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QUESTION 21
You have drawn a star using the star tool. The corners of the star are squared. You want pointed corners, so you click the Miter Join icon in the Stroke palette, but the corners remain squared. With the object selected, what should you do to make the star corners pointed?
A. choose Effect > Sharpen
B. choose Effect > Path > Outline Object
C. increase the Miter Limit in the Stroke palette
D. click the Projecting Cap icon in the Stroke palette

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You want to create an object that will stretch artwork evenly along the length of a path. Which tool should you use?
A. Pen
B. Art Brush
C. Scatter Brush
D. Pattern Brush

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Click the Exhibit button.
Which of the 3D Extrude & Bevel options will change object A to object B?
A. Bevel Extent In
B. Bevel Extent Out
C. Extrude Cap On
D. Extrude Cap Off

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
You have imported a photograph, but you need to create an oval image, rather than rectangular. You have created a path using the ellipse tool for your clipping mask. Which object order should you use to create the clipping mask?
A. The bottom object must be the photograph on a locked layer.
B. The top selected object must be the photograph on a visible layer.
C. The top selected object must be the ellipse tool path on a visible layer.
D. The top selected object must be the ellipse tool path on a hidden layer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which command should you use to change the color of the Artboard?
A. File > File Info > Advanced
B. File > Document Color Mode
C. File > Document Setup > Artboard
D. File > Document Setup > Transparency

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
You have made several modifications to a large Illustrator file and want to find out how many undos are available with your current system memory and application settings.
Which component of the work area displays this information?
A. Status bar pop-up menu
B. Actions palette pop-up menu
C. Transform palette pop-up menu
D. Document info palette pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
You have been asked to print an existing document on paper that is larger than the size specified for the original document. You scale the artwork, but when you print, it is cropped to the original paper size. Which two tasks should you do? (Choose two.)
A. resize the Artboard by using the Page tool
B. resize the Artboard by using the Selection tool
C. change the media size to match the size of the paper
D. select Artboard from the Document Setup dialog box and change the units
E. select Artboard from the Document Setup dialog box and change the setting for Size to match the size of the paper

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 28
What does the Page tool allow you to do?
A. change the size of the page
B. change the size of the artboard
C. define the placement of crop marks
D. adjust the position of the page on the artboard

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have received text and graphic files that will be imported into an Adobe Illustrator document. The files were created on Windows and Macintosh platforms. You need to determine if you have the appropriate fonts on your computer. What should you do?
A. import your text documents, select the text with missing fonts and underline the text
B. choose Window > Type > Open Type and click on the contextual alternatives button
C. import your text documents, select all of the text and change the fill color to an unused color
D. choose File > Document Setup, select Type from the pop-up menu and choose Substituted Fonts under Highlight.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Click the Exhibit button. Which statement about this Glyphs palette is true?
A. It shows a Type 1 font.
B. It shows a TrueType font.
C. The * character has more than one form.
D. The $ character has more than one form.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
How should you convert a single letter in a string of text into an outline?
A. make the letter its own text object, then choose Effect > Rasterize
B. select the letter with the text tool, then choose Type > Create Outlines
C. make the letter its own text object, then choose Type > Create Outlines
D. select the letter with the text tool, choose Effect > Path > Outline Object

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
You want to perform a series of transformations on a text box. You also want to edit the transformations at a later time. Which Illustrator feature or command allows you to do this?
A. Transform palette
B. Free Transform tool
C. Object > Transform > Transform Each
D. Effect > Distort and Transform > Transform

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
You have been using paragraph styles in your text. You click in a paragraph and notice that there’s a plus sign next to the style name in the Paragraph Styles palette. What does the plus sign indicate?
A. Additional text exists but is not visible.
B. The text has been converted to outline.
C. A character style has been applied to the text.
D. The text formatting does not match the paragraph style definition.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
You have used the polygon tool to create a pentagon with a solid black stroke and a red fill. You use the area type tool to add text inside the polygon. What happens to the stroke and fill of the pentagon after you add the text?
A. Both the fill and stroke disappear.
B. Both the fill and stroke remain unchanged.
C. The fill disappears and the stroke remains.
D. The stroke disappears and the fill remains.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
You are using a font format which consists of a single font file for all of its outline, metric, and bitmap data. This single font file works on both a Macintosh and Windows computer. Which font format are you using?
A. Type 1
B. TrueType
C. OpenType
D. Multiple Master

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You have placed a Microsoft Word document in a type container. You want to change all the type to Helvetica Bold. What is the most efficient way to do this?
A. open the document in Word, change the type there, and save
B. drag and select all the type by using the Type tool; then change the font in the Character palette
C. click the type container by using the Selection tool; then change the font in the Character palette
D. select the type container, and choose Helvetica in the Character palette; then press Ctrl-B (Windows) or Command-B (Mac OS) to make it bold
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
Where would you change the Adobe Single-line Composer to the Adobe Every-line Composer?
A. the Character palette menu
B. the Paragraph palette menu
C. the Character Style palette menu
D. the Paragraph Style palette menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
You have created an enveloped object with a text object and a path object. You want to edit the text. What should you do?
A. choose Select > Object > Text Objects
B. choose Object > Envelope Distort > Edit Contents
C. choose Object > Envelope Distort > Expand and then use the Type tool to edit the text
D. use the Direct Selection tool to select the text portion of the enveloped object and then use the Type tool to edit the text

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
Which statement is true about the SVG format feature in Illustrator?
A. SVG format is entirely JavaScript-based.
B. SVG animations can be created via keyframes in the SVG Interactivity palette.
C. SVG effects can be applied that are NOT rasterized until the file is viewed in a browser.
D. Vector graphics can be produced for the Web that do NOT require an additional browser plug-in.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Which is a native file format in Adobe Illustrator 11?
A. PDF
B. PSD
C. CGM
D. SWF

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
What can you do while viewing the Actions palette in Button mode?
A. edit actions
B. toggle dialog on/off
C. play sets of actions
D. play an action with a single click

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
Which type feature allows you to hang punctuation in the margins of a selected paragraph?
A. optical kerning
B. composition engines
C. OpenType font support
D. optical margin alignment

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
In which situation should you use Adobe Illustrator instead of Adobe Photoshop?
A. when you need to edit a scanned image that is too dark
B. when you need to edit a screen capture displaying the user interface of an application
C. when you need to combine a series of images taken with a digital camera using options to mask, edit color, and add gaussian blurs
D. when you need to create a logo that will need to be resized often in a page layout program and printed on output devices of different resolutions

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
You are designing a logo that needs to look smooth when resized larger or smaller. Which application should you use?
A. Adobe Illustrator
B. Adobe Photoshop
C. Adobe Streamline
D. Adobe FrameMaker

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
You need to design your company logo so that it can be used in your product brochures, letterhead, website, and as a large four foot by eight foot banner for your trade show booth. Which scenario best fits your needs?
A. You should create the design in Illustrator so that it can be printed, but you will need to use Adobe Photoshop to create the logo for your website.
B. You should create your design in Illustrator so that you can output to print, create your banner sized document, and save your logo in a Web compatible format.
C. You should create the design in Illustrator so that it can be printed and used for your website, but you will need to use Adobe InDesign for your trade show banner.
D. You should create your design in Photoshop for your website and then import it into Illustrator so that it can be scaled to a larger size for both outputting to print and creating your trade show banner.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which setting in the Color Settings dialog box determines how Adobe Illustrator will handle files that have no color profile?
A. Working Spaces
B. Color Management Policies
C. Conversion Options > Intent
D. Conversion Options > Engine
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
What is color gamut?
A. the numerical system used to describe color
B. a device-independent theoretical color model
C. the total range of colors reproduced by a device
D. a method a used for converting colors from one device to another
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
In color management settings, which rendering intent compares the source white point to that of the destination and shifts color accordingly?
A. Perceptual
B. Saturation
C. Relative Colormetric
D. Absolute Colormetric

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
When making default color management decisions, with what does a color management policy compare profiles?
A. the RGB working space
B. the CMYK working space
C. the current working space
D. the rendering intent that is currently selected
E. the color management engine that is currently selected

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which command simulates how a document appears WITHOUT converting colors to the proof profile space?
A. enable View > Proof Colors
B. disable View > Proof Colors
C. choose View > Proof Setup and select Preserve Color Numbers
D. choose View > Proof Setup and deselect Preserve Color Numbers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
What is a benefit of layers?
A. They can be saved as separate files.
B. They can be grouped within an image.
C. They can be printed as color separations.
D. They can be printed in different combinations.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You have created a clipping mask, but need to remove one object from the clipping group without deleting it. What should you do?
A. select the object and choose Edit > Clear
B. on the Layers palette, drag the object out of the clipping group
C. on the Layers palette, drag the object below the clipping path on the same layer
D. on the Layers palette, drag the object above the clipping path on the same layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You have several objects with a red stroke. You observe that the bounding box, path, and anchor points for the selected objects are also red making it difficult to edit the paths.
What should you do?
A. change the fill color
B. change the layer color
C. change the transparency of the objects
D. change the stacking order of the objects

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
You have opened a Photoshop (PSD) file in Illustrator 11 using the Convert Photoshop Layers to Objects option. Which layer features are preserved?
A. text layers
B. clipping groups
C. adjustment layers
D. layers that use a Knockout option

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
Which action switches the view mode for all other layers in the Layers palette?
A. Shift-click the eye icon in the Layers palette
B. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the eye icon in the Layers palette
C. Ctrl-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) the eye icon in the Layers palette
D. Alt+Ctrl-click (Windows) or Option+Command-click (Mac OS) the eye icon in the Layers palette

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
Which statement about clipping masks in Adobe Illustrator is true?
A. A clipping mask retains its fill and stroke.
B. A bitmapped object can be used as a clipping mask.
C. The clipping mask must be underneath the artwork to be clipped, either as a group or on the Layers palette.
D. When you mask objects on different layers, the selected objects move to the clipping mask’s layer in the Layers palette.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
You are creating a flyer to be published in multiple languages. Which method allows you to use one file for the different language versions?
A. choose Object > Lock > Selection to suppress printing for the text object
B. choose Type > Show Hidden Characters to display the text object for printing
C. use different layers for each language; show or hide the appropriate layers for output
D. choose Edit > Paste in Front to show the appropriate text object in front of the other text objects

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 58
You are exporting an Illustrator document with symbols on multiple layers to Adobe Photoshop. Which statement is true about the data exported to the Photoshop file format?
A. Illustrator converts the data into a format compatible with Photoshop.
B. Illustrator preserves the appearance of the artwork by rasterizing the data.
C. Illustrator preserves the appearance of the data by merging the layers in the document.
D. Illustrator preserves the appearance of the data by merging the layers in the document or by rasterizing the data.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
You have a document that uses spot colors and process colors. You want to ensure that the spot colors are converted to process colors for color separation but are maintained as spot colors in the working document. What should you do?
A. Choose Edit > Color Settings
B. Choose File > Print and select Output
C. Change the color mode for that object on the color palette
D. Change the color from spot to process on the Swatches palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
Which guideline improves the quality of printing in your blends, gradients, and gradient mesh objects?
A. use darker colors
B. use an appropriate line screen that retains 256 levels of gray
C. use longer blends to allow more space for the color to change
D. use a blend that changes less than 50% between two or more process-color components

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
Which setting in the Document Setup dialog box determines the output quality of rasterized artwork when transparency is flattened?
A. the Output Resolution setting in the Printing & Export menu
B. the Raster/Vector Balance settings in the Transparency menu
C. the Rasterization Resolution setting in the Transparency menu
D. the Gradient Mesh Resolution setting in the Printing & Export menu

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
You have applied transparency effects to various objects in your artwork. Which process takes place when you print?
A. masking
B. cropping
C. grouping
D. flattening

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
You want to delete crop marks that were set directly in your artwork using the Object > Crop Area > Make option. What should you do to delete the crop marks?
A. choose Object > Crop Area > Release
B. select the crop marks with the Selection tool and delete them
C. deselect Trim Marks in the Marks & Bleed options in the Print dialog box
D. select the artwork and choose Clear Appearance from the Appearance palette menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Which action allows you to see an approximation of how transparency and blending will appear in color separated output?
A. choosing View > Pixel Preview
B. choosing View > Overprint Preview
C. selecting Isolate Blending in the Transparency palette
D. selecting Knockout Group in the Transparency palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 65
You need to set the resolution and screen frequency for printing your image to a laser printer or imagesetter. What should be the general relationship between the resolution and the screen frequency to obtain the highest quality halftone?
A. The image resolution must divide evenly in the screen frequency.
B. The image resolution should be 4 to 6 times the screen frequency.
C. The screen frequency must divide evenly into the image resolution.
D. The image resolution should be 1.5 to 2 times the screen frequency.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
You need to create multiple sets of crop marks in your document. What should you do?
A. choose Filter > Create > Crop Marks
B. choose File > Print and select Marks and Bleed
C. use the pen tool to draw crop marks around selected sets of objects
D. draw a rectangle with no fill or stroke and group it with a selected set of objects and choose File > Print and select Marks and Bleed

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
You want to improve printing gradients, gradient meshes, and color blends to eliminate discrete bands of color. What should you do?
A. use long blends
B. use lighter colors or make dark blends short
C. use a line screen that retains 16 or fewer levels of gray
D. use a blend that has less than 20% change between two or more process color components

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
You have created an Illustrator document that has multiple pages. Which Artboard setting in the Document Setup dialog box allows you to print a specific range of pages matching the settings in the Print Setup (Windows) or Page Setup (Mac OS) dialog box?
A. Tile Full Pages
B. Single Full Page
C. Tile Imageable Areas
D. Show Images In Outline

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
Which command should you use to find the options for setting typographer’s quotes for your document?
A. choose File > Document Setup
B. choose Window > Type > Character
C. choose Window > Type > Character Styles
D. choose Edit > Preferences > Type & Auto Tracing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to dock a group of palettes (a) to another existing group of palettes (b).
What should you do to go from the Before to the After portion of the exhibit?
A. You drag the title bar of palette group (a) to the tab area of palette group (b) until you see palette group
(b) darken.
B. You drag the title bar of palette group (a) to the bottom of palette group (b) until you see the bottom of palette group (b) darken.
C. You drag each palette tab separately from palette group (a) to the bottom of palette group (b) until you see the bottom of palette group (b) darken.
D. You drag the first palette tab from palette group (a) to the bottom of palette group (b) until you see the bottom of palette group (b) darken. You then drag each remaining palette tab in group (a) to the top of the first palette you moved.

Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 21
Exhibit.

Which statement is true about the image that produced the histogram shown in the Exhibit?
A. It is too dark.
B. It is too light.
C. It has too little contrast.
D. It has too much contrast.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Exhibit.

In the Hue/Saturation dialog box, what happens when you enter a negative value for Lightness?
A. The hue shifts darker.
B. The brightness is increased.
C. The saturation shifts to darker.
D. The tonal range is compressed.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
You have used the Histogram to determine that the lightest pixels in an RGB image have a luminosity level
of 243. The image has no color casts or other contrast problems. You want the lightest pixels to be fully
white.
How should you adjust the Input and Output fields of the composite channel in the Curves dialog box?

A. Input: 12; Output: 0
B. Input 0; Output: 12
C. Input 243; Output: 255
D. Input 255; Output 243

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
You want to crop several images to be the same size and resolution. What should you do?
A. use the Marquee tool at a fixed size, then use the Crop command
B. use the Crop tool and specify the size and resolution in the Options bar
C. specify the width and height in the Canvas Size dialog box before opening each image
D. specify the size and resolution in the Image Size dialog box before opening each image.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
You have scanned an image by using a scanner. You have an ICC compliant profile for the scanner. You
choose Image> Mode> Assign Profile and select the profile for the scanner.
Which statement is true?

A. Both the color data and the displayed color of the image are changed.
B. The displayed color of the image may change, the color data does NOT change.
C. The displayed color of the image does NOT change, the color data does change.
D. Neither the color data nor the displayed color of the image changes, but the image will print correctly.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
You are pasting data you have copied from one document into another document. You receive an alert that
says “The source data’s color profile does not match the destination document’s color profile”. You want
the pasted data to look like the original as much as possible.
What should you do?

A. select Convert in the Alert dialog box
B. select Don’t Convert in the Alert dialog box
C. click Cancel in the Alert dialog box, and change your working color space in the Color Settings dialog box to the color space of the source document
D. click Cancel in the Alert dialog box, and change your working color space in the Color Settings dialog box to match the color space of the destination document.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which workingcolor space should you use for Web images?
A. Apple RGB
B. Color Match RGB
C. Adobe RGB (1998)
D. sRGB iec61966-2.1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are correcting images that will be incorporated into a Web site. Your primary audience will be viewing the images on Windows-based computers. You want to simulate how the images will appear on the majority of their monitors. Which value should you enter for the Gamma setting in the Adobe Gamma dialog box?
A. 1.0
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 2.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is a reason for using the Proof setup command?
A. to establish a CMYK working color space
B. to convert to the CMYK working color space
C. to convert a document to an arbitrary ICC profile for printing a proof
D. to preview how a document appears when output to a profiled device
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What is a use of the Color Management Policies section of the Color Settings dialog box?
A. establishes the working color spaces used when editing images
B. establishes whether or not dithering is used when converting between color space
C. establishes procedures when reading and embedding profiles upon opening and saving
D. establishes which conversion method is used when converting from color space to another

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
You want to apply a preset pattern to specific areas of an existing image without affecting the original color. What should you do?
A. use the Pattern Stamp tool on a Pattern fill layer
B. use the Pattern Stamp tool with a blending mode of color
C. use the Brush tool on a Pattern fill layer, painting with black
D. use the Pattern Stamp tool with a blending mode of luminosity

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
You have been editing an image. You want to restore portions of the image to the state they were in when
the document was opened by painting. You would like the effect to be greater with slower brush strokes, in
a manner similar to a traditional airbrush.
Which tool should you use?

A. the Airbrush tool
B. the Eraser, with only the Airbrush option checked
C. the History Brush tool, with the Airbrush option checked
D. the Eraser, with only the Erase to History option checked

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which statement about the Dual Brush option in the Brushes palette is true?
A. You can adjust the color of the secondary brush tip.
B. You can adjust the angle of the secondary brush tip.
C. You can adjust the Blending mode of the secondary brush tip.
D. You can adjust the airbrush behavior of the secondary brush tip.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You want to crate a gradient that transitions from green to transparent to red. What should you do?
A. selecting the Gradient tool with the Reflected option checked; then create a green to red gradient
B. select a Gradient tool with the transparency option checked; then create a green to red gradient
C. use the Gradient editor to add a black opacity stop in the center of a green to red gradient; then create a green to red gradient
D. use the Gradient editor to add a white opacity stop in the center of a green to red gradient; then create a green to red gradient

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
You are creating a Web-based image library for a company intranet site. Image quality is the most important parameter to consider; file size is a low priority. The images are all photographs. Which file format should you use?
A. GIF
B. JPEG
C. PNG-8
D. PNG-24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
You have created a drop shadow for an object. The shadow needs to fade smoothly over the background
color of a Web page. You choose File>Save for Web, and select GIF as the file type.
What else should you do?

A. set the Color Reduction Algorithm to Adaptive
B. set the Matte color to the background color of your page
C. check the Transparency button and click the mask icon to select a channel mask
D. click the transparency icon and then select the background color in the color table

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
You choose File>Save for Web, and select the JPEG file format. What happens when you select the Progressive checkbox?
A. It applies selective compression to the image.
B. It uses adaptive color transitions in the image.
C. It makes the image download in multiple passes.
D. It compares animation frames and ignores redundant pixels.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You have created an image map in Adobe ImageReady. When the user clicks on the link in their browser, you want the link to display in a new window. Which option in the Image Map palette should you choose from the Target pull-down menu?
A. _top
B. _self
C. _blank
D. _parent

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
You have created a button with ext in Adobe ImageReady. You want to add rollover effect. After adding a new state, how can you change the appearance of the new state?
A. rotate the text
B. add a layer effect
C. change the color mode
D. change the optimization settings
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which is an advantage of the Link Slices function?
A. It allows to resize a set of linked slices at once.
B. It allows you to move a set of linked slices at once.
C. It allows you to optimize a set of linked slices at once.
D. It allows you to link a set of slices to the same URL at once.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
You have created a path around an image. You want to save the path as an image clipping path for use in
a page layout application.
What should you do?

A. convert the path to a Vector Mask and save the file in Photoshop .psd format
B. select the path; choose>Export>Paths to IIIustrator and save the file as PDF
C. use the Move tool to drag and drop the path from Photoshop into the page layout document
D. save the path; choose Clipping Path from the Path palette and save the file as a photoshop EPS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
You are crating a logo. The single document will be output at various sizes to various media. Which tools should you use?
A. the Type tools and Shape tools with the Fill Pixels option selected
B. the Type tools and Shape tools with the Shape Layer option selected
C. the Type Mask tools and Shape tools with the Fill Pixels options selected
D. the Type Mask tools and Shape tools with the Shape Layer option selected

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which tool should you sue to reposition a point on an existing path?
A. pen
B. move
C. direct-selection
D. path component selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
You want to rotate and scale a selection at the same time. Which tool or command should you use?
A. crop tool
B. Image>Image Size
C. direct-selection tool
D. Edit>Free Transform

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
You need to scan an old black and white print. You want to capture the widest range of tonality from the
print.
Which color depth setting should you use?

A. 48 bit RGB
B. 32 bit CMYK
C. 8 bit grayscale
D. 1bit black and white

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
You are creating an image for a client who will be using the image by placing it in several layout applications. You want to maximize the compatibility of the image with the different layout applications.
Which file format should you use?
A. PDF
B. PSD
C. TIFF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You are working on a Photoshop document, and choose File>Place. You select an EPS file. Which two options are available before you rasterize the EPS file? (Choose two.)
A. anti-alias
B. transform
C. save path
D. make work path
E. rasterize fill content

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 48
You need to save an image as a TIFF file with lossless compression. Which TIFF Options settings will provide the widest platform compatibility?
A. LZW
B. ZIP
C. RLE
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Exhibit.

You want to rename a number of images in the File Browser by using the Batch Rename command. Which file naming options should you select to add a sequential number after each original image name?
A. select None and One Digit Serial number
B. select Document Name and One Digit Serial Number
C. type the desired name and sequential numbers in each section
D. leave the first section blank and then select One Digit Serial Number for the second section

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
You want to place an EPS logo on an image you are creating. You want to place the logo 200 pixels in
from the left side and scale it to be 300 pixel wide.
What should you do?

A. make a 300 pixel selection at the correct location and choose File>Place
B. place the EPS file; then, use the Option Bar to the specify location scale
C. place the EPS file; rasterize it’ then use the Free Transform tool to locate and scale the file
D. place the EPS file; rasterize it to be 300 pixels wide; then drag and drop it to the desired location

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
You have crated two shape layers. You want to alight the left edge of one of the shapy layers to the left
edge of the other shape layer.
What should you do?

A. link the two layers and click the Align left edges button in the Option bar of the Move tool
B. merge the two layers and click the Align left edges button in the Option bar of the Move tool
C. group the two layers and click the Align left edges button in the Options bar of the Move tool
D. place both layers in the same layers set and click the Align left edges button in the Option bar of the Move tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
You are editing a portrait of a person. You want to make the yes larger while maintaining the proportions
so they appear natural.
What is the most effective way to do this by using the Liquify tool?

A. click the Wrap tool and select Mesh in the view Options menu
B. click on the Bloat tool, and select Backdrop in the View Options menu
C. click on the Shift Pixels tool and choose Smooth from the Reconstruction menu
D. Make a selection around the eyes and use the Zoom tool from the Liquify dialog box

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
You want to create a clipping group of two layers using the Layers palette. What should you do?
A. choose Group with Previous from the Layers palette menu
B. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click on the line dividing the two layers
C. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) click on the line dividing the two layers
D. Link the layers then Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) click on the line dividing the two layers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
You want to reduce the opacity of the original content of a layer without changing the appearance of the styles applied to that layer. Which Layer palette control should you adjust?
A. Fill
B. Opacity
C. Blending Mode
D. Create new adjustment layer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
You have applied a Curves Adjustment layer to an image. You want to edit to curve. What should you do?
A. double-click on the adjustment layer thumbnail
B. choose Change Layer Content from the Layer menu
C. double-click on the adjustment layer mask thumbnail
D. choose Layer Properties from the Layers palette menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
A layer contains a shape filled with a solid color. You want to fill the shape with a gradient. What should you do?
A. select the shape layer and choose a gradient from the Swatches palette
B. select the gradient tool from the toolbox; select a gradient from the options bar, and drag the gradient tool across the shape
C. select the shape layer; click the Layer Styles button on the Layers palette and select Gradient overlay; choose a gradient and click OK
D. select the shape layer; click the New Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Map; choose a gradient and click OK

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You have scanned a map in several overlapping sections. You want to assemble the pieces as layers in one document, with the overlapping areas in register. Which blending mode produces a solid black when the layers are aligned?
A. Overlay
B. Exclusion
C. Difference
D. Vivid light

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 58
Which statement about layer sets is true?
A. They can be masked.
B. They can have filters applied to them.
C. They can have styles applied to them.
D. They can be grouped with single layers.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
You are printing a 72 ppi image and choose to scale the image to 50% in the Print dialog box. To which resolution will the image be printed?
A. 36 ppi
B. 72 ppi
C. 144 ppi
D. 360 ppi

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
You have created an image that includes Type layers. You need to scale and print a selected area but
keep the type as sharp as possible.
What should you do?

A. crop to the selection; then scale in the print dialog box and print as a PDF
B. duplicate the image; then crop to the selection and scale in the print dialog box.
C. copy the selected area to a new document; then scale using Image size and print One Copy
D. scale it by using the print with a preview command; then click on Include Vector Data and Print Selected Area

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61

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QUESTION 21
You have a photo of a green leaf. The leaf is in sharp focus and is against a blurred green background.
You want to make a selection that follows the contour of the leaf.
What should you do?

A. use the Find Edges filter
B. use the Magic Wand tool
C. use the Magnetic Lasso tool
D. choose Select >ColorRange

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You have saved as selection as a channel. You now want to load and reuse the selection. What should you do?
A. drag the alpha channel into the image window
B. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click on the alpha channel
C. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)click on the alpha channel
D. Right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) on the channel and choose Load Channel as Selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
You have created a rough selection of an object in your image. You want to refine the selection by suing
quick mask with its default settings and the Brush tool.
Which statement is true?

A. Painting with white adds to the selection
B. Painting with black adds to the selection.
C. The opacity setting of the brush is irrelevant.
D. The foreground color must be either black or white.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
You have made a feathered selection. You then repeatedly fill the selected area with different colors. Which statement is true?
A. Traces of the earlier color fills remain at the feathered edges of the selection.
B. At the feathered edges of the selection only the image’s luminosityareaffected, not its hue or saturation.
C. At the feathered edges of the selection only the image’s hue and saturation area affected, not its luminosity.
D. Though fading in opacity at the feathered edges of the selection, the newer fills completely overwrite the earlier ones.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Exhibit.

Which tool can completely eliminate the white pixels in the background of the image shown in the exhibit with a single click?
A. Eraser
B. Extract
C. Magic Eraser
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before your last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
You are suing the Pattern Stamp tool to paint in your image.
Which tool option ensures that the pattern is applied continuously, rather than from the initial sampling point, regardless of how many times you stop and resume painting with the pattern?
A. Flow
B. Aligned
C. Impressionist
D. Protect Texture

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Exhibit.

In the exhibit, which gradient was used to create the result to the right?
A. Angle Gradient
B. Redial Gradient
C. Diamond Gradient
D. Reflected Gradient

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a stroke?
A. Texture
B. Scattering
C. Shape Dynamics
D. Brush Tip Shapes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Exhibit.

You want to create a shape layer by drawing in a freeform manner.
Which two buttons from the Vector Tools Options Bar should you choose? (Choose two.)

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 31
Exhibit.

You want to create a work path by using one of the built-in custom shapes.
Which two buttons from the Vector Tools Options Bar should you choose? (Choose two.)

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 32
You have drawn a patch in your image. In the Paths palette, the path name is Work Path. What happens if you deselect Work Path and draw and new path?
A. The new path is added to Work Path.
B. A new path called Work Path 2 is created.
C. A single path component is created from all overlapping components.
D. The original Work Path is deleted, and the new path becomes Work Path.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
You have selected several anchor points of a shape layer. You want to rotate them an arbitrary amount.
Which command should you use?
A. Filter >Liquify
B. Edit > Free Transform Path
C. Edit > Free Transform Points
D. Layer > Change Layer Content

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which file format can preserve vector data?
A. BMP
B. PICT
C. Photoshop PDF
D. Photoshop RAW

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You use the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled.
How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. all ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast.
Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporatedintovideo

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
You are using theUnsharpMask filter on a portrait. You want to avoid sharpening imperfections in the skin tone.
What should you do?
A. increase the Amount setting
B. decrease the Amount setting
C. increase the Threshold setting
D. decrease the Threshold setting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying the gallery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to

drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch. Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
You foreground swatch is red, you background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want to affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
An image with a correctly assigned input profile has been converted to Adobe RGB (1998). Which statement is true?
A. The colors look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors look the same and the color numbers are identical.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which term is used to describe how a particular device currently reproduces color?
A. calibrating
B. soft proofing
C. synchronizing
D. characterizing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
What is the purpose of the Proof Setup command?
A. to correctly display an image that uses non-square pixels
B. to tag an image with a profile that describes its color space
C. to preview how the image will print to the current printer and paper size
D. to preview on screen how a file will display or print on different output devices

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which rendering intent is suitable for business graphics, where maintaining the exact relationship between colors is not as important as creating vivid color?
A. Saturation
B. Perceptual
C. Relative Colorimetric
D. Absolute Colorimetric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
In the Color Settings dialog box, where do you specify the color profile that you want to use for each color model?
A. Working Spaces
B. Advanced Controls
C. Conversion Options
D. Color Management Policies

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
Which file format support vector graphics?
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
A digital camera supported by Adobe Photoshop was set for tungsten lighting when a photograph was made in daylight. The photograph was made in the camera’s RAW mode.
What should you do?
A. when opening the document, adjust the tint slider in the Camera RAW dialog box
B. after opening the document, use the Assign Profile dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBIcprofile
C. after opening the document, use the Color Settings dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBIcprofile
D. when opening the document, choose daylight under the White Balance menu in the Camera RAW dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
You have created a shape layer. You want to sue a filter on the shape. What must you do?
A. delete the layer mask
B. delete the vector mask
C. resterizethe fill content
D. rasterizethe shape layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
Which statement about using the Place command to place anIIIustratorfile into a Photoshop document is true?
A. It becomes a shape layer.
B. It israsterizedat the document’s resolution.
C. It becomes a link to the originalIIIustratorfile.
D. It becomes a working path in the Paths palette.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Which file format should you use to preserve variable transparency in an image to be used on a web page?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
How do you apply keywords to many images in a directory?
A. use the Preset Manager
B. use the File info keyword field
C. use the File Browser keyword tab
D. check “Enable Version Cue Workgroup File Management”in the File Handling preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
You want to print a document with shape layers. You want the vector data to be sent to a Postscript printer.
What should you do?
A. duplicate the shape layers’ vector masks as paths
B. choose Layer >Rasterize> All Layers before printing
C. select Maximize Compatibility in the File Handling Preference dialog box
D. selectInclude Vector Data in the Output options of the Print with Preview dialog box.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
Which command should you use to print an image by using the current print settings WITHOUT displaying a dialog box?
A. Print
B. Page Setup
C. Print One Copy
D. Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You want print a document in duotone mode to your four-color desktop inkjet printer.
Which statement is true?
A. Only two inks will be used by the printer.
B. The image will print in grayscale, using black ink only.
C. The image will print as a process color approximation on the document.
D. Each of the inks specified in the duotone will be replaced by a pair of inks at the printer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 58
Which statement about printing duotones is true?
A. Duotones must be converted to CMYK mode before printing.
B. A transfer function should be created for each ink in the duotone.
C. The inks used in duotones must be printed a different screen angles.
D. Duotones should be saved as TIFF files if they are going to be imported into and printed from a page-layout application.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are printing an image from Photoshop. You want Photoshop to handle the color management.
Which options should you choose for Print Space from the Color Management area of the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Same as Source
B. a profile of your printer
C. a profile of your monitor
D. Printer Color Management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
You are creating an interface element with a drop shadow for a Web page. You want to maintain the full, variable transparency of the graphic and shadow. You enable transparency in the Save for Web dialog box.
Which file format renders the transparency without introducing a surrounding matte color?
A. GIF
B. JPEG
C. PNG8
D. PNG24
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Which file format should you sue display photographs and other continuous-tone images on the Web?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PDF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You have a single layered document. You want to generate a JPEG of a small area of the document.
What should you do?
A. Copy that area to a new layer, disable the visibility of the original layer, then use the Save for Web dialog box
B. Save a selection of the area as a channel, then click the Alpha channel button in the Save for Web dialog box
C. Create a slice of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slice pop-up menu of the Save Optimized AS dialog box
D. Create a marquee of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slices pop-up menu of the Save Optimized As dialog box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
You have created a navigation bar for a Website that contains both continuous-tone images and areas of flat color. You want to achieve the best optimization for the navigation bar.
What should you do?
A. save the image as a GIF
B. save the image as JPEG
C. create slices to determine how areas should be optimized
D. create image maps to determine how areas should be optimized

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
You have created a graphic that you will be suing on the Web. The graphic includes transparent areas.
You want the fully transparent pixels to remain transparent, and you want to blend partially transparent
pixels with a color.
What optimization options should you choose?

A. select transparency, and select a matter color
B. deselect transparency, and select a matter color
C. select transparency, and set the matte color to None
D. deselect transparency, and set the matte color to None

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
What happens when you choose the command Layer > Flatten image?
A. Layers within layer sets are merged into a single layer.
B. All layers are made visible and then combined into the background layer.
C. The active layer and all visible layers below it are combined into a single layer.
D. All visible layers are combined into the background layer and hidden layers are discarded.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
You have created a layer set. You want to maintain the blending modes that are assigned to the individual layers within the set.
Which blending mode should you use for the layer set?
A. Normal
B. Multiply
C. Overlay
D. Pass Through

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
How do you hide the content of several layer sets with one mask?
A. put all of the layer sets inside a new layer set, select this new set, then click the Add Mask button
B. create a clipping mask consisting of the layer sets, select the base set in that group, and click the Add Mask button.
C. create a layer above the layer sets, set its Fill Opacity to 0%, and its Knockout setting to Deep
D. create a layer above the layer sets, set its Fill Opacity to 0%, and its Knockout setting to Shadow

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
You want to give the content of a layer atexturizedappearance (relief) that responds to the Global Angle of light.
Which layer style should you use?
A. Satin
B. Pattern Overlay
C. Gradient Overlay
D. Bevel and Emboss

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
The topmost of several layers in a document is a shape layer. You want that shape to define a hole in all the layers of the image.
What should you do?
A. select the top layer, and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. link all layers, then choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask from Linked
C. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep
D. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Fill Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which mask does a shape layer use by default?
A. vector
B. raster
C. clipping
D. transparency

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 22
Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system

Correct Answer: BCFG
QUESTION 23
The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point

Correct Answer: ACDE QUESTION 26
How does the NBX administrator get both internal and external calls to use Timed Routes?
A. The Dial Plan does not support alternate routes for inbound calls
B. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and External Dial Plan tables
C. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and Incoming Dial Plan tables
D. The Dial Plan has an inbound and outbound section where the specific Timed Routes are coded
E. Create the necessary entries in the Dial Plan using the keywords “inbound” and ” outbound” to specify call direction

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan Operation Test function? (Choose three.)
A. Allows a user to verify the speed-dial button setup on their NBX phone
B. Allows the NBX administrator to test the inbound/outbound NBX Dial Plan
C. Displays the line entry of the Dial Plan associated with the extension or number being tested
D. Displays the actual digits that will be sent to the carrier when an extension or number is dialed
E. Displays the user name and privileges that are associated with a user or extension, for example, long distance, trunk-to-trunk, etc.

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 28
IP addresses can be provided to NBX phones by a Windows Server acting as a DHCP server configured with Option 184.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which three are important considerations when creating a NBX solution where the main site has a NBX system with a Network Call Processor (NCP) and the remote sites has an NBX V5000 Chassis but no NCP? (Choose three.)
A. The PSTN connection at the remote site must be a digital connection via a router
B. Calls made to the main site cannot be internally transferred to a remote site phone
C. Phones at the remote site will not work if the WAN connection between the two sites is lost
D. Supports “Hop Off” where the remote phones may access all PSTN lines from remote locations
E. The WAN link should employ Network Address Translation (NAT) to minimize any security exposure
F. Multicast-dependent features, for example, conference or music-on-hold, may not be available at the remote site

Correct Answer: CDF QUESTION 30
Which of the following must be used to support a multi-user, remote-site connection through a single NBX system at the central office?
A. Use Layer 2 operation over an IP WAN
B. Use Layer 3 operation over an IP WAN
C. Use Layer 4 operation over an TCP/IP WAN
D. Use Layer 3 operation over an IP WAN with Network Address Translation (NAT)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which of the following are true statements concerning Virtual Tie Lines? (Choose four.)
A. Requires IP Licenses
B. Calls are not tracked by CDR
C. VTL Channels do not count against NBX device limit
D. All communicating NBX systems require VTL licenses
E. Connects multiple NBX systems over WAN connections
F. Uses the same signaling protocol as Connextions H323 Gateways

Correct Answer: ACDE

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QUESTION 21
Your department employees all have the same NBX Business telephones on their desktop. As the NBX system administrator for your group, you have been asked to setup the programmable buttons on the phones so they all have the same function.
What is the easiest way to configure the NBX phones for your department?
A. Create a new Telephone Group with the required settings. Assign the users in the department to the new group
B. Program your phone with the button settings. Have the users copy the button settings by entering your extension in the User Device Setup menu
C. Create a new Telephone Group with the required settings. Have the users in the department choose the new Telephone Group in the User Device Setup menu
D. Program your phone using the NBX user configuration software. E-mail the file to the users in your department. The users load the file using the TAPI software
E. Program your phone with the button settings. Forward your user configuration via the phone to all the users in your department. Have them apply the configuration to the phone
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which three are features / uses of a Phantom Mailbox on an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can be used to create a greeting-only mailbox where a caller can only hear a message
B. Allows a user to roam from phone to phone without having to create a new profile with each move
C. Can be used to save extension numbers, as Phantom Mailboxes do not use up the pool of telephone extensions
D. Is useful for telecommuters who do not have a desk and/or phone in the office to have a mailbox for incoming calls
E. Can be used to define a set of user permissions/restrictions which are then assigned to a Class of Service (CoS)
F. Can be used as a general mailbox for an Auto Attendant, where a caller can leave a message without specifying a particular recipient

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 23
Which three are features of the NBX Offsite Notification? (Choose three.)
A. Up to five different call numbers/options can be setup for a user’s offsite notification
B. Offsite notification privileges and options are defined in the User Configuration menu
C. Only messages tagged as “urgent” will be forwarded by the offsite notification feature
D. Offsite Notification must be enabled in the NBX Messaging, as well as, in the Class of Service (CoS)
E. Only the NBX system administrator or users with administrator privileges can use offsite notification
F. Users can be notified of voice messages to another internal extension, an external phone, a pager or via email

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 24
Which four are characteristics of the NBX phone lock/unlock security feature? (Choose four.)
A. The NBX phone default is “locked”
B. After an NBX system reboot, all phones are unlocked
C. Analog Terminal Adapters (ATA) devices can be locked by feature code
D. Only the NBX Business phones can use the lock/unlock feature
E. To lock/unlock a phone use the designated feature code and the mailbox password
F. A locked phone can call any internal extension, emergency numbers and toll free numbers
G. The NBX phone default is unlocked and a mailbox password must be created before a phone can be locked

Correct Answer: CEFG
QUESTION 25
Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) is supported on a 3102 business phone? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on time-of-day settings
Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 26
Which three are features of the NBX Hunt Groups? (Choose three.)
A. After four rings, a call is automatically sent to the next member in the group
B. Up to 99 Hunt Groups can be assigned on an NBX 100 Communications System
C. Any number of users and hunt groups can be created on the SuperStack 3 NBX Telephony system
D. A hunt group is a collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined order until the call is answered
E. In a Circular Hunt group, the extension next in line to receive a call becomes first in line to receive a new call
F. A call will ring on the first open line in the Hunt Group. If the call is not answered it is forwarded to voice mail or the Auto Attendant
G. In a Linear Hunt group, the first member listed will always receive the call unless their line is busy and then the call is forwarded to the next member in the group

Correct Answer: DEG
QUESTION 27
Which three Login/Logout options are available for members of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their password
C. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
D. Use optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of day and will only need to login again if they logout or more than 15 minutes pass between phone calls

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 28
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define “ring progression” for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 29
Which four are features of the NBX Auto Attendant (AA)? (Choose four.)
A. Supports up to 99 AA
B. Can answer with or without a live attendant
C. Only answers when no live attendant is available
D. Any NBX user can create an AA for their extension
E. Can configure different AA based on time of day and day of week
F. Each AA can be configured when to time out and whether to hang up or forward the call
G. AA message can be recorded via an NBX phone or be an imported .wav or an MPEG-2 file

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 30
Which four are NBX Auto Attendant (AA) Level 1 pull-down menu actions, set by an NBX administrator, that establish the caller’s AA options? (Choose four.)
A. Name Directory
B. Enter Main Menu
C. Response Repeat
D. Prompted Transfer
E. Return to Operator
F. System Disconnect
G. Transfer to Voice Mail

Correct Answer: ADFG
QUESTION 31
Which four are attributes of the second generation NBX T1 Digital Line Card (3C10116D) and the E1 Digital Line Card (3C10165D)? (Choose four.)
A. Requires NBX software Release 4.3 or higher
B. Provides both T1 and E1 support on the same card
C. Supports embedded CSU and provides CSU statistics
D. Can be configured with up to 17 different IP addresses for Fractional Channel support
E. Has one POTS port that can be used to make an outbound call in case of a power failure
F. Includes a 10/100/1000 Mbps LAN port for improved packet throughput and reduced latency
G. Can be configured for G.729 audio compression and silence suppression for bandwidth efficiency
H. Has remote Layer 3 support for communicating with a Network Call Processor (NCP) across a routed network

Correct Answer: ACGH
QUESTION 32
What are the first steps the NBX administrator would take to configure a second generation NBX Digital Line Card (DLC)?
A. Choose Device Configuration/Line card Ports;Select card Device Type list; the new card from the DLC list;click modify
B. Choose Device Configuration/Digital line cards;select the card to be configured from this menu then click Modify
C. Choose Device Configuration/Decive Configuration/TAPI settings; select card type from Decive Type list;select the new card from the DLC list; click Modify
D. Choose Device Configuration/Decive Configuration/Digital line cards;select card type from decive type list;select the new card from the DLC list;click modify
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Correct Answer: BCFG
QUESTION 34
Which four are functions of the NBX Dial Plans? (Choose four.)
A. Dictates how calls are handled
B. Determines the route a call will take to its destination
C. Translates dialed digits into a specific destination
D. Forwards extension and Caller ID information for internal calls
E. Defines a set of destinations that can be reached by the NBX system
F. Verifies if a user has the authorization to make the call, for example, long distance or trunk-to-trunk
G. Translates single digit speed dial codes into full extension or outbound telephone numbers

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 35
How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File – select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File – select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File – select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File – select country from drop-down menu and click Import

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan Operation Test function? (Choose three.)
A. Allows a user to verify the speed-dial button setup on their NBX phone
B. Allows the NBX administrator to test the inbound/outbound NBX Dial Plan
C. Displays the line entry of the Dial Plan associated with the extension or number being tested
D. Displays the actual digits that will be sent to the carrier when an extension or number is dialed
E. Displays the user name and privileges that are associated with a user or extension, for example, long distance, trunk-to-trunk, etc.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 37
The NBX Dial Plan can be configured to route calls to an alternate carrier or to replace an internal extension number with an external number, for example, a cell phone.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan timed routes? (Choose three.)
A. Can designate a specific destination route for each time period
B. Can group time periods and point them to a specific route destination
C. Can create route plans based on specific time-of-day or day-of-week
D. Can disable specific routes for any time period, for example, holiday, night, etc.
E. Can create route plans based on a specific date, for example, business, state or country holiday
F. Can create route plans based on pre-configured business hours – open, closed, lunch etc.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 39
How does the NBX administrator get both internal and external calls to use Timed Routes?
A. The Dial Plan does not support alternate routes for inbound calls
B. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and External Dial Plan tables
C. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and Incoming Dial Plan tables
D. The Dial Plan has an inbound and outbound section where the specific Timed Routes are coded
E. Create the necessary entries in the Dial Plan using the keywords “inbound” and “outbound” to specify call direction

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which three should the NBX administrator do when configuring an NBX Digital Line Card for ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
A. Create the incoming Pretranslators, as it is always required to map the DID numbers to the NBX internal extensions
B. Determine how many digits are forwarded to the NBX from the local exchange Direct Inward Dialing (DID) service
C. Have the local exchange assign a block of Direct Inward Dialing (DID) numbers that match the NBX internal phone extensions
D. Determine if the local exchange block of Direct Inward Dialing (DID) assigned numbers matches the NBX internal phone extensions
E. Decide if an incoming Pretranslator is required to map the block of DID assigned numbers and/or the number of digits forwarded
F. Choose Dial Plan / DID / Reverse so the NBX system will strip off the correct number of digits to match the internal extensions starting with the last digit

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 41
Which three are features of the NBX Pretranslator function? (Choose three.)
A. Pretranslation is not available on Analog Line Cards
B. Each Pretranslation is used for either incoming or outgoing traffic
C. Each Pretranslation is used for both incoming and outgoing traffic
D. Outbound Pretranslation is associated with the Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS) supported by the Digital Line Card
E. A single outbound or inbound Pretranslation definition contains all the required translations defined in order from lowest-to-highest extension
F. Inbound Pretranslation is associated with the Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS) or Direct Inward Dial (DID) supported by the Digital Line Card
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 42
How does the NBX administrator turn off/on Caller Line ID Restriction (CLIR) for the entire NBX system?
A. Turn CLIR off/on in the NBX User Configuration menu
B. Restrict or allow CLIR through the Dial Plan route codes
C. Turn CLIR off/on in the NBX User Configuration Class of Service menu
D. Turn CLIR off/on with the System-wide CLIR settings in the NBX System Configuration / System Settings / System Wide menu

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which NBX operation must be used to support a multi-user, remote-site connection through a single NBX system at the central office?
A. Use Layer 2 operation over an IP WAN
B. Use Layer 3 operation over an IP WAN
C. Use Layer 4 operation over an TCP/IP WAN
D. Use Layer 3 operation over an IP WAN with Network Address Translation (NAT)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which three are important considerations when creating an NBX solution where the main site has an NBX system with a Network Call Processor (NCP) and the remote sites has an NBX V5000 Chassis but no NCP? (Choose three.)
A. The PSTN connection at the remote site must be a digital connection via a router
B. Calls made to the main site cannot be internally transferred to a remote site phone
C. Phones at the remote site will not work if the WAN connection between the two sites is lost
D. The WAN link should employ Network Address Translation (NAT) to minimize any security exposure
E. Multicast-dependent features, for example, conference or music-on-hold, may not be available at the remote site
F. Supports “Hop Off” where the remote phones may access all PSTN lines from remote locations

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 45
What does the term “Hop On” refer to concerning an NBX system?
A. Ability of a user to switch between calls using the flash key
B. Ability of multiple users to join a conference call between NBX users
C. Ability to transfer incoming callers from one NBX site to another NBX site, as long as a WAN link exists between the two locations
D. Ability to use existing PSTN lines attached to one NBX from a remote NBX user, as long as a WAN link exists between the two locations

Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 41
Click theTask button.
Which of the interfaces is not currently active and reserved for future use?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 42
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems supports software version R4.4?
A. NBX 100
B. NBX V3000
C. All NBX Systems
D. SuperStack 3 NBX

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which four components are included with the NBX V3000 IP Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. System disk drive
B. One Analog FXS port
C. 16 MB memory module
D. Four Analog FXO ports
E. Two T1/E1 Digital Line ports
F. Network Call Processor (NCP)
G. Two Failover 10/100 Mbps Ethernet LAN ports

Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 44
Which of the following NBX V5000 system components is field upgradeable or field replaceable?

A. CPU
B. Mirrored Disk drive
C. Analog Port Modules
D. Paging Port Modules
E. Redundant Power supply

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
The NBX V3000 disk drive is field replaceable.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add a Page Zone or make modifications to an existing Page Zone?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 47
Which four steps should the NBX administrator perform to set up a new Page Zone that includes an external broadcast over a public address (PA) system? (Choose four.)
A. Specify the MAC or IP address of PA system
B. Checkbox “Add External Page” to include PA system
C. Specify the Page Zone name and associated zone extension
D. Add new members by clicking on members in the “Member” list
E. Select User Configuration / Page Zones / Add to create a new page zone
F. Add new members to the page zone by typing in their extension and name
G. Select Device Configuration / Telephone Groups / Page Zones to create a new page zone

Correct Answer: BCDE QUESTION 48
NBX code releases prior to 4.4 have which paging capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Up to nine (9) paging zones can be created
B. Users can disable paging on their individual phones
C. There is no limit on the number of users in a page zone
D. Page users through telephone speakers and/or external Public Address system
E. Can page all phones with speakers or devices connected to the paging port or both simultaneously

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 49
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to change configurable operator system default values?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 50
Click theTask button.
To override the default destination for System and Personal Operators what tab would a user select?
A.
B.
C.
D.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem?

A. Router R2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
B. Router R2 does not see the upstream router R1 as a PIM neighbor.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router R2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
LAB A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 4
Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true?

A. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is an IS-IS external route.
B. The R1 IS-IS router is an ASBR.
C. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a suppressed route.
D. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a summary route.
E. The R1 IS-IS router is an ABR that belongs to multiple IS-IS areas.
F. The R1 IS-IS router is performing route aggregation and is suppressing the more specific 10.1.0.0/23 prefix.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
LAB

A. Blockade# conf t Blockade(config)# router isis Blockade(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50 Blockade(config)# router eigrp 100 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute isis level-1 metric 512 10 255 1 1500 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute connected Blockade# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured DHCP services on the router as shown. DHCP
clients connected to the FastEthernet0/0 interface are working properly.
DHCP clients connected to the FastEthernet0/1 interface are not receiving addresses. Which two
statements contain recommendations that will solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the FastEthernet0/0 configuration.
B. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the FastEthernet0/1 configuration.
C. A second DHCP pool for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be configured.
D. The network shown in the output under the ip dhcp pool Central command should be changed to network 10.10.0.0 with a mask of 255.255.255.0.
E. An ip dhcp excluded-address global configuration command for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be issued.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
LAB

e
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.3.5 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.3.6 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about WLAN components are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Aironet autonomous access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
B. Cisco Aironet lightweight access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
C. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the Wireless Domain Services (WDS).
D. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the WLAN controller.
E. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE).
F. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Control System (WCS).
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Above is the output from show ip bgp neighbors command. What is line 21 stating about the BGP connection?

A. the number of consecutive TCP connections to the specified remote neighbor
B. the number of times the router has established a TCP connection
C. the number of total TCP connections that the router has
D. the number of neighbors that the router has
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is enabled on switch SW_A only. Both Host_A and Host_B acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the outcome be if Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?

A. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
B. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
C. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
D. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
LAB

A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config-if-range)#exit switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 10 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which EIGRP packet statement is true?
A. On high-speed links, hello packets are broadcast every 5 seconds for neighbor discovery.
B. On low-speed links, hello packets are broadcast every 15 seconds for neighbor discovery.
C. Reply packets are multicast to IP address 224.0.0.10 using RTP.
D. Update packets route reliable change information only to the affected routers.
E. Reply packets are used to send routing updates.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)

e
A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which statement is true about Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
B. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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UESTION 1
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message.
An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 address for the host
B. lifetime of the prefix
C. prefixes for the link
D. keepalive timers
E. request for the local host IP address
F. any route advertisements it has received
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?

A. auto qos voip cisco-phone
B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN F. protocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability, load, and MTU.
C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?
Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10 Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10 Router(config-access-map)#action forward Router(config-access-map)#exit Router(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. For security reasons, the servers should not communicate with each other, although they are located on the same subnet. The servers do need, however, to communicate with a database server located in the inside network. What configuration will isolate the servers from each other?

A. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. The ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
B. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports. The ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
C. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 and the ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
D. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 and the ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN community ports.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
LAB The information of the question
You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20

A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
To enable BGP tunneling over an IPv4 backbone, the IPv4 address 192.168.30.1 is converted into a valid IPv6 address. Which three IPv6 addresses are acceptable formats for the IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
A. ::C0A8:1E01
B. C0A8:1E01::
C. ::192.168.30.1
D. 192.168.30.1::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:192.168.30.1
F. 192.168.30.1:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?

A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgP only if a PAgP device is detected
C. enables PAgP unconditionally
D. enables Etherchannel only
E. enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the psuedo-node on the LAN
C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information
F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Port security has been configured on the switch port Fa0/5. What would happen if another device is connected to the port after the maximum number of devices has been reached, even if one or more of the original MAC addresses are inactive?

A. The port will permit the new MAC address because one or more of the original MAC addresses are inactive.
B. The port will permit the new MAC address because one or more of the original MAC addresses will age out.
C. Although one or more of the original MAC addresses are inactive, the port will not permit the new MAC address.
D. Because the new MAC address is not configured on the port, the port will not permit the new MAC address.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured with the default configuration on all routers. Autosummarization is enabled on routers R2 and R3, but it is disabled on router R1. Which two EIGRP routes will be seen in the routing table of router R3? (Choose two.)

A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 10.10.0.0/16
C. 10.10.10.0/24
D. 172.16.0.0/16
E. 172.16.0.0/24
F. 172.16.10.0/24
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network. However, router R1 does not receive a default route to router R2 as intended. Which configuration change would ensure that R1 would receive a default route from R2?

A. Add the area 1 stub command on routers R1.
B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate configuration command on router R2.
C. Remove the default information originate configuration command from router R2 and place it on router R1.
D. Add the ip route 5.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 command to router R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.

A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
switch(config)#vlan 20
switch(config)#vlan 31
switch(config)#int vlan 20
switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0
switch(if-config)#no shut
switch(if-config)#int vlan 31
switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0
switch(if-config)#no shut
switch(if-config)#exit
switch#ip routing
switch#copy run start
vtp client configuration:
switch#conf t
switch(config)#vtp mode client
switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
switch#copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is the IPv6 address FF02::2 used for?
A. all hosts in a local segment
B. all routers in a local segment
C. all hosts in a particular multicast group
D. all routers in an autonomous system
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about the configuration of voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Static secure MAC addresses can be configured in conjunction with voice VLANs.
B. PortFast is automatically enabled when voice VLANs are configured.
C. PortFast must be manually configured when voice VLANs are configured.
D. Voice VLANs are typically configured on uplink ports.
E. Voice VLANs are typically configured on access ports.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?

A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Based on the exhibited command output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The EIGRP network is stable.
B. The router at 10.1.1.3 has not replied to the R1 query packet.
C. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is undergoing recomputation.
D. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is stuck-in-active.
E. R1 has sent a query packet to 10.1.1.2.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration.
What will this command accomplish?
A. forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B. forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems
C. forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems
D. forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the router stops receiving advertisements for the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

A. The summary route will be removed from the table.
B. The summary route will remain in the table.
C. The more specific routes will be advertised from the table.
D. 10.1.2.0/24 will still be advertised but packets destined for it will be dropped when they reach this router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.

A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t
switch(config)#vtp mode server
switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
switch(config)#vlan 20
switch(config)#vlan 31
switch(config)#int vlan 20
switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0
switch(if-config)#no shut
switch(if-config)#int vlan 31
switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0
switch(if-config)#no shut
switch(if-config)#exit
switch#ip routing
switch#copy run start
vtp client configuration:
switch#conf t
switch(config)#vtp mode client
switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
switch#copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?
A. IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
B. The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
C. Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
D. An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the voice traffic coming to the switch access port that is connected to the IP phone?

A. The voice VLAN must be configured as a native VLAN on the switch.
B. The traffic on the voice VLAN must be tagged with 802.1p encapsulation in order to coexist on the same LAN segment with a PC.
C. A PC connected to a switch port via an IP phone must support a trunking encapsulation.
D. A PC connected to a switch port via an IP phone is unaware of the presence of the phone.
E. To improve the quality of the voice traffic, no other devices should be attached to the IP phone.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20

A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets D. compression
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19
The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN 1
B. a trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. a root VTP server
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
IS-IS Level 1 routers use LSPs for which purpose?
A. to build a topology database for the local area only
B. to build a topology database for the local and remote areas
C. to build a topology database for remote areas
D. to build a topology database for areas outside the AS
E. to establish adjacency with L1 IS’s
F. to establish adjacency with ES’s
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The following commands are issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
Router(configuration)#exit
Router#debug ip packet 199
What will the debug output on the console show?
A. All IP packets passing through the router
B. Only IP packets with the source address of 10.1.1.1
C. All IP packets from 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1
D. All IP Packets between 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In this example, the “debug ip packet” command is tied to access list 199, specifying which IP packets
should be debugged. Access list 199 contains two lines, one going from the host with IP address 10.1.1.1
to 172.16.1.1 and the other specifying all TCP packets from host 172.16.1.1 to 10.1.1.1.

QUESTION 2
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco routers, switches, PIX and ASA firewalls prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below: LevelLevel NameDescription 0 Emergencies System is unusable 1 Alerts Immediate action needed 2 Critical Critical conditions 3 Errors Error conditions 4 Warnings Warning conditions 5 Notifications Informational messages 6 Informational Normal but significant conditions 7 Debugging Debugging messages
When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this case we can see that logging level of 3 (as seen by the 3 in “LINK-3- UPDOWN”) and level 5 (as seen by the 5 in “LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN”) are shown, which means that logging level 5 must have been configured. As shown by the table, logging level 5 is Notifications.
QUESTION 3
You have the followings commands on your Cisco Router:
ip ftp username admin
ip ftp password backup
You have been asked to switch from FTP to HTTP. Which two commands will you use to replace the existing commands?
A. ip http username admin
B. ip http client username admin
C. ip http password backup
D. ip http client password backup
E. ip http server username admin
F. ip http server password backup
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Configuring the HTTP Client Perform this task to enable the HTTP client and configure optional client characteristics. The standard HTTP 1.1 client and the secure HTTP client are always enabled. No commands exist to disable the HTTP client. For information about configuring optional characteristics for the HTTPS client, see the HTTPS-HTTP Server and Client with SSL 3.0, Release 12.2(15)T, feature module. SUMMARY STEPS enable configure terminal ip http client cache {ager interval minutes | memory {file file-size-limit | pool pool-size-limit} ip http client connection {forceclose | idle timeout seconds | retry count | timeout seconds} ip http client password password ip http client proxy-server proxy-name proxy-port port-number 7. ip http client response timeout seconds ip http client source-interface type number ip http client username username Reference: HTTP 1.1 Web Server and Client
. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/netmgmt/configuration/guide/nm_http_web.html
QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Preferred server
A router can be configured to prefer an NTP source over another. A preferred server’s responses are discarded only if they vary dramatically from the other time sources. Otherwise, the preferred server is used for synchronization without consideration of the other time sources. Preferred servers are usually specified when they are known to be extremely accurate. To specify a preferred server, use the prefer keyword appended to the ntp server command. The following example tells the router to prefer TimeServerOne over TimeServerTwo: Router#config terminal Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerOne prefer Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerTwo Router(config)#^Z
QUESTION 5
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco routers prioritize log messages into 8 levels (0-7), as shown below: LevelLevel NameDescription 0 Emergencies System is unusable 1 Alerts Immediate action needed 2 Critical Critical conditions 3 Errors Error conditions 4 Warnings Warning conditions 5 Notifications Informational messages 6 Informational Normal but significant conditions 7 Debugging Debugging messages
When you enable logging for a specific level, all logs of that severity and greater (numerically less) will be logged. In this case, when you enable console logging of warning messages (level 4), it will log levels 0-4, making the correct answer warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies.
QUESTION 6
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks?
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Proactive Versus Reactive Network Maintenance:
Network maintenance tasks can be categorized as one of the following:
Structured tasks: Performed as a predefined plan.
Interrupt-driven tasks: Involve resolving issues as they are reported.
Reference: CCNP TSHOOT Official Certification Guide, Kevin Wallace, Chapter 1, p.7

QUESTION 7
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CDP is a protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco routers, bridges, access servers,
and switches. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors
of already known devices, in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols. With CDP,
network management applications can learn the device type and the SNMP agent address of neighboring
devices. This feature enables applications to send SNMP queries to neighboring devices. In this case, the
line protocol is up which means that the physical layer is operational (layer 1) but the data link layer is not.
Reference: “Configuring CDP”

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.1E/native/configuration/guide/c dp.html

QUESTION 8
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following ?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FCAPS -> Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance and Security (ISO)

QUESTION 9
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FCAPS -> Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance and Security (ISO)
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Cisco 642-832 Exam

QUESTION 10
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below. %PIX|ASA-3-105010: (Primary) Failover message block alloc failed · %PIX|ASA-3-106010: Deny inbound protocol src interface_name:dest_address/dest_port dst
interface_name:source_address/source_port · %PIX|ASA-3-106011: Deny inbound (No xlate) string · %PIX|ASA-3-106014: Deny inbound icmp src interface_name: IP_address dst interface_name:
IP_address (type dec, code dec) · %PIX-3-107003: RIP: Attempted reference of stale data encountered in function, line: line_num · %PIX|ASA-3-109010: Auth from inside_address/inside_port to outside_address/outside_port failed (too
many pending auths) on interface interface_name. · %PIX|ASA-3-109013: User must authenticate before using this service · %PIX|ASA-3-109016: Can’t find authorization ACL acl_ID for user ‘user’ · %PIX|ASA-3-109018: Downloaded ACL acl_ID is empty · %PIX|ASA-3-109019: Downloaded ACL acl_ID has parsing error; ACE string · %PIX|ASA-3-109020: Downloaded ACL has config error; ACE
· %PIX|ASA-3-109023: User from source_address/source_port to dest_address/dest_port on interface outside_interface must authenticate before using this service.
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above. R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1 R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1 R1(config)#end R1#debug ip packet 199 detail Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network? (Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Topic 2, Drag Drop Questions
QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. FCAPS stands for: A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

F-> Fault Management C-> Configuration Management A -> Accounting Management
FCAPS -> Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance and Security (ISO)
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QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
There are many Network Maintenance models. Match the model names on the left to the options on the right: A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: FCAPS -> Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance and Security (ISO) ITIL -> A collection of best practice recommendations Cisco Lifecycle -> Often referred to as the PPDIOO model TMN -> Telecommunications Management Network
Well Known Network Maintenance Models Maintenance models Model Explanation FCAPS Fault-, Configuration-, Accounting-, Performance- and Security management defined by ISO ITIL IT Infrastructure Library Defines a collection of best-practice recommendations that work together to meet business goals. TMN Telecommunications Management Network ITU-T variation of FCAPS – See above – specially targeted towards Tele Communication Networks
PPDIOO
Also called Cisco Lifecycle Services (See drawing below)
PPDIOO Life Cycle Reference: http://mars.tekkom.dk/mediawiki/index.php/CCNP_TSHOOT_642-832/Chapter_1
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QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP Match the items on the left to their purpose on the right

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation:
EEM -> CLI based Management and Monitoring
SDM -> Provides a GUI for Administration
FTP -> Used for Backup and Restore

Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager (EEM) is a powerful and flexible CLI based subsystem that provides
real-time network event detection and onboard automation. It gives you the ability to adapt the behavior of
your network devices to align with your business needs.

Cisco SDM is an intuitive, Web-based device-management tool for Cisco IOS. Software-based routers.
The Cisco SDM simplifies router and security configuration through smart wizards, which help customers
and Cisco partners quickly and easily deploy, configure, and monitor a Cisco router without requiring
knowledge of the command-line interface (CLI). The Cisco SDM is supported on a wide range of Cisco
routers and Cisco IOS Software releases.

Cisco devices can use FTP to backup and restore configuration files and IOS software. Some examples of
this are shown below:

Example 1: Backing up manually
R1# copy startup-config ftp://kevin:[email protected] Address or name of remote host
[ 192.168.22.33]?
Destination file name [r1-confg]?
Writing R1-confg !!!
3458 bytes copied in 3.443 secs (1243 bytes/sec)

Example 2: Backing up automatically
The configuration below will make a backup:
write-memory Trigger backup when running-config is copied to nvram time-period 1440 Trigger backup
every 1440 minuttes. 60*24=1440 !
ip ftp username kevin
ip ftp password dj7jS
!
archive
path ftp://192.168.2.33/R1-config
write-memory
time-period 1440Viewing

R1#show archive
The next archive file will be named ftp://192.168.2.33/R1-confg-4 Archive # Name
1 ftp://192.168.2.33/R1-confg-1
2 ftp://192.168.2.33/R1-confg-2
3 ftp://192.168.2.33/R1-confg-3 <- Most Recent
Ticket 1 QUESTION 1
Topic 3, Ticket 1 : Switch Port Trunk
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
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In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
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Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —– Client will be getting 169.X.X.X
-On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned which is using IP address 10.2.1.0/24 Sh run ——- & check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2
==================================================== interface FastEthernet1/0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 interface FastEthernet1/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10
====================================================
-We need to check on ASW 1 trunk port the trunk Po13 & Po23 were receiving VLAN 20 & 200 but not VLAN 10 so that switch could not get DHCP IP address and was failing to reach IP address of Internet

-Change required: On ASW1 below change is required for switch-to-switch connectivity.. int range portchannel13,portchannel23 switchport trunk allowed vlan none switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as :
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: G Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN
10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with the trunk configuration on ASW1.
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Access Vlans
D. Port Security
E. VLAN ACL / Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact
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that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN
10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with switch to switch connectivity, specifically the trunk configuration on ASW1.
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
B. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13, port-channel 23, then configure switchport trunk none allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200 commands.
C. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
D. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23, port-channel, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,200 commands.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We need to allow VLANs 10 and 200 on the trunks to restore full connectivity. This can be accomplished
by issuing the “switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200” command on the port channels used as trunks in
DSW1.

========================================================================== ====
Ticket 2 QUESTION 1
Topic 4, Ticket 2 : ACCESS VLAN
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
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Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —–Client will be getting 169.X.X.X
-On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned which is using IP address 10.2.1.0/24
Sh run ——- & check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2 ====================================================

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-Here we are not able to see access Vlan10 configured for Port Fa1/0/1 & Fa1/0/2
-Change required: On ASW1, for configuring Access Vlan under interface fa1/0/1 & 1/0/2 we have to enable command switchport access vlan 10
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as:
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?

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A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: G Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to switch technology?

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A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Loop Prevention
D. Access Vlans
E. VLAN ACL Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface
G. Port Security

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?

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A. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 2, then switchport mode access vlan 10 command.
B. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 2, then switchport access mode vlan 10 command.
C. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 2, then switchport vlan 10 access command.
D. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 2, then switchport access vlan 10 command.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ========================================================================== =====

Ticket 3 QUESTION 1
Topic 5, Ticket 3 : OSPF Authentication
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
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Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2 but not from R1

-Check for neighborship of ospf sh ip ospf nei —– Only one neighborship is forming with R2 & i.e. with R3
Since R2 is connected to R1 & R3 with routing protocol ospf than there should be 2 neighbors seen but only one is seen
-Need to check running config of R2 & R3 for interface Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 on R2
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 28 Cisco 642-832 Exam Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0 on R1

-Change required: On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf authentication message-digest
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====

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A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

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A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
========================================================================== =====

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A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message- digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 4 QUESTION 1

Topic 6, Ticket 4 : BGP Neighbor
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 32 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2, R1
-Look for BGP Neighbourship Sh ip bgp summary —– No O/P will be seen
-Check for interface IP & ping IP 209.65.200.225 —- Reply will be received from Webserver interface
-Look for peering IP address via sh run on R1 interface serial 0/0/1

-Since we are receiving icmp packets from Webserver interface on R1 so peering IP address under router BGP is configured wrong IP but with correct AS nos.
-Change required: On R1 under router BGP Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.

On which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?

A. Under the BGP process, enter the bgp redistribute-internal command.
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001command.
C. Deleted the current BGP process and reenter all of the command using 65002 as the AS number.
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command and enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 5 QUESTION 1

Topic 7, Ticket 5 : NAT ACL
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Cisco 642-832 Exam

In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2, R1
-Look for BGP Neighbourship Sh ip bgp summary —– State of BGP will be in established state & will be able to receive I prefix
(209.65.200.241)
-As per troubleshooting we are able to ping ip 10.2.1.3 from R1 & BGP is also receiving prefix of webserver & we are able to ping the same from R1. Further troubleshooting needs to be done on R1 on serial 0/0/1
-Check for running config. i.e sh run for interface serial 0/0/1..

!
! From above snapshot we are able to see that IP needs to be PAT to serial 0/0/1 to reach web server IP (209.65.200.241). But in access-list of NAT IP allowed IP is 10.1.0.0/16 is allowed & need 10.2.0.0 /16 to
-As per troubleshooting we are able to ping ip 10.2.1.3 from R1 & BGP is also receiving prefix of web server & we are able to ping the same from R1. Its should be checked further for running config of interface for stopping
-Change required: On R1, In natting we need to add client IP address for reachability to server.
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39 Cisco 642-832 Exam The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

A. BGP

B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition? ========================================================================== =====
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 6 QUESTION 1

Topic 8, Ticket 6 : R1 ACL
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-832 Exam

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 42 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-832 Exam Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241…

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4
-Ipconfig —– Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2, R1
-Look for BGP Neighbourship
-Sh ip bgp summary —– State of BGP will be in active state. This means connectivity issue between serial
-Check for running config. i.e sh run — over here check for access-list configured on interface as BGP is down (No need to check for NAT configuration as its configuration should be right as first need to bring BGP up)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44 Cisco 642-832 Exam

-In above snapshot we can see that access-list of edge_security on R1 is not allowing wan IP network
-Change required: On R1, we need to permit IP 209.65.200.222/30 under access list.
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241…
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-832 Exam
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241…
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: G Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241…
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command.
B. Under the ip access-list extended edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command.
C. Under the ip access-list extended edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0.0
0.255.255.255 any command.
D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access-group edge_security out command. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: ========================================================================== =====

Ticket 7 QUESTION 1
Topic 9, Ticket 7 : Port Security
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 47 Cisco 642-832 Exam

DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.

The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the
underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be

presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and
solution.

Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-832 Exam Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be getting 169.X.X.X
-On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned but when we checked interface it was showing down Sh run ——- check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2 (switchport access Vlan 10 will be there with switch
port security command). Now check as below
Sh int fa1/0/1 & sh int fa1/0/2

-As seen on interface the port is in err-disable mode so need to clear port.
-Change required: On ASW1, for port security need command to remove port-security under interface under interface fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2.
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: G Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.

The fault condition is related to which technology?
========================================================================== =====
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Access Vlans
D. Port Security
E. VLAN ACL / Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fa 1/0/1 2, then no switchport port-security interface configuration commands. Then in exec mode clear errdisable interface fa 1/01 2 vlan 10 command
B. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fa 1/0/1 2, then no switchport port-security, followed by shutdown, no shutdown interface configuration commands.
C. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fa 1/0/1 2, then no switchport port-security interface configuration commands.
D. In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fa 1/0/1 2, then no switchport port-security interface configuration commands. Then in exec mode clear errdisable interface fa 1/0/1, then clear errdisable interface fa 1/0/2 commands.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 8
QUESTION 1
Topic 10, Ticket 8 : Redistribution of EIGRP to OSPF
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52 Cisco 642-832 Exam
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53 Cisco 642-832 Exam Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , but cannot ping from R3, R2, R1
-This clearly shows problem at R4 since EIGRP is between DSW1, DSW2 & R4 and OSPF protocol is running between R4, R3, R2, R1 so routes from R4 are not propagated to R3, R2, R1
-Since R4 is able to ping 10.2.1.3 it means that routes are received in EIGRP & same needs to be advertised in OSPF to ping from R3, R2, R1.
-Need to check the routes are being advertised properly or not in OSPF & EIGRP vice-versa.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Cisco 642-832 Exam

-From above snap shot it clearly indicates that redistribution done in EIGRP is having problem & by default all routes are denied from ospf to EIGRP… so need to change route-map name.
-Change required: On R4, in redistribution of EIGRP routing protocol, we need to change name of route-map to resolve the issue…
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPv4 and IPv6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
Which is the solution to the fault condition?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56 Cisco 642-832 Exam ========================================================================== =====

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53 Cisco 642-832 Exam Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

A. Under the EIGRP process, delete the redistribute ospf 1 route-map OSPF_ to_ E IGRP command and enter the redistribute ospf 1 route-map OSPF – > E IGRP command.
B. Under the EIGRP process, delete the redistribute ospf 1 route-map OSPF_ to_ E IGRP command and enter the redistribute ospf 6 metric route-map OSPF – > E IGRP command.
C. Under the OSPF process, delete the redistribute eigrp10 subnets route-map EIGPR ->OSPF command and enter the redistribute eigrp10 subnets route-map OSPF – > E IGRP command.
D. Under the OSPF process, delete the redistribute eigrp10 subnets route-map EIGPR ->OSPF command and enter the redistribute eigrp10 subnets route-map EIGPR – > OSPF command.
E. Under the EIGRP process, delete the redistribute ospf 1 route-map OSPF _to_ EIGRP command and enter redistribute ospf 1 metric 100000 100 100 1 15000 route_ map OSPF _to _EIGRP command
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 9 QUESTION 1

Topic 11, Ticket 9 : EIGRP AS number
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 57 Cisco 642-832 Exam

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 58 Cisco 642-832 Exam

Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-From Client PC we can ping 10.2.1.254
-But IP 10.2.1.3 is not able to ping from R4, R3, R2, R1
-This clearly shows problem at R4 Kindly check routes in EIGRP there are no routes of eigrp.
-Check the neighborship of EIGRP on R4; there are no neighbor seen from DSW1 & DSW2 check the running config of EIGRP protocol it shows EIGRP AS 1 process…. Now check on DSW1 & DSW2
On DSW1 only one Eigrp neighbour is there with DSW2 but its not with R4…

-From above snapshot & since R4 has EIGRP AS number 1 due to which neighbour is not happening.
-Change required: On R4, IPV4 EIGRP Routing, need to change the EIGRP AS number from 1 to 10 since DSW1 & DSW2 is having EIGRP AS number 10
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
========================================================================== =====

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== ===== Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPv4 and IPv6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 61 Cisco 642-832 Exam The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition? ========================================================================== =====

Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. Disable auto summary on the EIGRP process
B. Enable EIGRP on the FastEthernet0/0 and FastEthernet0/1 interface using the no passive- interface command.
C. Change the AS number on the EIGRP routing process from 1 to 10 to much the AS number used on DSW1 and DSW2.
D. Under the EIGRP process, delete the network 10.1.4.0 0.0.0.255 command and enter the network
10.1.4.4 0.0.0.252 and 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.252 commands.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 10 QUESTION 1

Topic 12, Ticket 10 : VLAN Access Map
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 62 Cisco 642-832 Exam
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations. Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and
solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 63 Cisco 642-832 Exam

========================================================================== =====

Client 1 is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-From Client PC we can ping 10.2.1.254….
-But IP 10.2.1.3 is not able to ping from R4, R3, R2, R1

-Change required: On DSW1, VALN ACL, Need to delete the VLAN access-map test1 whose action is to drop access-list 10 i.e 10.2.1.3
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 65 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.

On which device is the fault condition located?
========================================================================== =====

Client 1 is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

Client 1 is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Helper
C. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
D. IPv6 RIP Routing
E. IPv4 layer 3 security
F. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
G. Loop Prevention
H. Access Vlans
I. Port Security
J. VLAN ACL / Port ACL
K. Switch Virtual Interface

Correct Answer: J Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

Client 1 is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 11 QUESTION 1

Topic 13, Ticket 11 : IPV6 OSPF
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits. This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches. In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 67 Cisco 642-832 Exam
number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations. Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and
solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
-From Client PC we can ping 10.2.1.254….
-But IP 10.2.1.3 is able to ping from R4, R3, R2, R1.
-Since the problem is R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping loopback of DSW1 (2026::102:1).
-Kindly check for neighbourship of routers as IPV6…. As per design below neighbourship should be present for IPV6 R1 —R2 — R3 — R4— DSW1 & DSW2 —– Neighbourship between devices of IPV6

R2 IPV6 OSPF neighbourship is with R1

R3 IPV6 OSPF neighbourship is with R4
-As per above snapshot we cannot see IPV6 neighbourship between R2 & R3 when checked interface configuration ipv6 ospf area 0 is missing on R2 which is connected to R3
-Change required: On R2, IPV6 OSPF routing, Configuration is required ipv6 ospf 6 area 0 under interface serial 0/0/0.23
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
========================================================================== =====
A. NTP
B. IPv4 OSPF Routing
C. IPv6 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 layer 3 security

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to fault condition? ========================================================================== =====
A. Under the interface Serial 0/0/0.23 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 0 command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.12 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 12 command.
C. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the network 2026::1:/122 area 0 command.
D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter no passive-interface default command.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 12 QUESTION 1

Topic 14, Ticket 12 : HSRP Issue
Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3

-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2

-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4

-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP

-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002

-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the

ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.

R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.
ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be
presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.
Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and

solution.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 73 Cisco 642-832 Exam
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74 Cisco 642-832 Exam
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution Steps need to follow as below:-
-Since the problem is raised that DSW1 will not become active router for HSRP group 10
-we will check for the HSRP configuration…
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 75 Cisco 642-832 Exam -From snapshot we see that the track command given needs to be changed under active VLAN10 router
-Change Required: On DSW1, related to HSRP, under vlan 10 change the given track 1 command. & use track 10 command.
So in ticket Answer to the fault condition will be as below for
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for HSRP group
10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
========================================================================== =====

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A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for HSRP group
10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology? ========================================================================== =====

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A. NTP
B. HSRP
C. IP DHCP Helper
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv6 RIP Routing
F. IPv4 layer 3 security
G. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
H. Loop Prevention
I. Access Vlans

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened DSW1 will not become the active router for HSRP group
10.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?

========================================================================== =====
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A. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration enter standby 10 preempt command.
B. Under the track 1 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 1 down 2 command and enter the threshold metric up 61 down 62 command.
C. Under the track 10 object configuration delete the threshold metric up 61 down 62 command and enter the threshold metric up 1 down 2 command.
D. Under the interface vlan 10 configuration delete the standby 10 track1 decrement 60 command and enter the standby 10 track 10 decrement 60 command.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Ticket 13 QUESTION 1

Topic 15, Ticket 13 : DHCP IssueTopology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)
-Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
-EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
-OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
-Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
-BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
-HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches
The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
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R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the
ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside
(209.65.0.0/24) network.

ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1

and DSW2.
In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the

underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several

implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations. Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and
solution.
Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution
========================================================================== =====

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Solution
Steps need to follow as below:
-When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 ipconfig —–Client will be receiving Private IP address 169.254.X.X
-From ASW1 we can ping 10.2.1.254….
-On ASW1 VLAN10 is allowed in trunk & access command will is enabled on interface but DHCP IP address is not recd.
On R4 DHCP ip address is not allowed for network 10.2.1.0/24 which clearly shows the problem lies on R4 & the problem is of DHCP
QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
On which device is the fault condition located? ========================================================================== =====
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client
1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network
addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and
device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241
address.

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Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.

The fault condition is related to which technology?

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