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QUESTION 55
Which keying effect in After Effects creates a binary key?
A. Color key
B. Inner Outer key
C. Linear Color key
D. Color Difference key

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
Click the Exhibit button.
Which icon should you select to allow your working view to match the pixel aspect ratio of your final output?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 57
Which setting for Resolution in the Composition Settings dialog box renders one-quarter of the pixels contained in the full resolution footage?
A. Half
B. Full
C. Custom
D. Quarter

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
What happens when you place 24 fps footage into a composition with a frame rate of 15 fps?
A. The 24 fps footage speeds up.
B. The 24 fps footage slows down.
C. The 24 fps footage skips frames.
D. The 24 fps footage repeats frames.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which After Effects command lets you isolate a video layer for editing by hiding other video layers in the Composition window?
A. Layer > Switches > Shy
B. Layer > Switches > Solo
C. Layer > Bring Layer to Front
D. Layer > Switches > Collapse

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
You want to expand the area previewed to the size of the composition. What should you do?
A. choose View > Resolution > Full
B. Shift-click on the RAM Preview button
C. double-click the center of the Work Area Bar
D. double-click on the Rulers in the Composition window

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
Which factor helps determine memory requirements for Adobe After Effects when rendering a composition?
A. the clock speed of the CPU
B. the resolution of the monitor
C. the resolution of the composition frame
D. the throughput rate of the computer’s bus

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
You applied a drop shadow to a layer, but when it is in motion, the shadow follows the layer and NOT the light source. What could be wrong?
A. The drop shadow is locked to the wrong layer.
B. The light source needs to be animated over time.
C. The motion was rendered before the drop shadow in the rendering pipeline.
D. The drop shadow was rendered before the motion in the rendering pipeline.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
You want to enable a playback device to choose an appropriate stream optimized to the users bandwidth. Which option should you select when exporting to Windows Media or Real Media?
A. Video
B. Metadata
C. Audiences
D. Video Content

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
Which field order is required when exporting field-rendered NTSC DV video?
A. lower field
B. upper field
C. upper or lower field
D. none, DV video uses progressive scan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
A user has set the audio preview settings to 44.100 KHz, but after final rendering, the audio quality sounds worse than it did in the preview. What could be the problem?
A. The audio preview is set to 8-bit.
B. The audio preview is set to mono.
C. The output module is set for a lower sample rate.
D. The output module is set for a higher sample rate.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
Which statement about using the RotoBezier option when working with paths is true?
A. Only open paths can be converted to RotoBezier paths.
B. Only closed paths can be converted to RotoBezier paths.
C. RotoBezier paths can be edited by adjusting their direction points.
D. You can change RotoBezier smooth corners to sharp corners with the Convert Vertex tool.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
You have created a layer and applied a Track Matte. What happens when you choose Edit > Split Layer?
A. After Effects retains the order of Track Mattes above the layer.
B. After Effects warns you to remove the Track Matte and reapply it after the layer is split.
C. After Effects splits the layer and applies the Preserve Underlying Transparency option to the new layers.
D. After Effects creates a precomposition of the two new layers and applies the Track Matte in the current composition.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which keying effect divides an image into two mattes and then combines them into an alpha matte?
A. Extract Key
B. Linear Color Key
C. Color Difference Key
D. Difference Matte Key

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
Which option controls how closely the created path matches the shape of the alpha channel when you choose Layer > Auto Trace?
A. Blur
B. Threshold
C. Tolerance
D. Current Frame

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 70
Which light has a source constrained by a cone?
A. spot
B. point
C. parallel
D. ambient

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which three properties are added to a 2D layer when it is converted to a 3D layer? (Choose three.)
A. ability to accept lights
B. ability to cast shadows
C. ability to do 3D modeling
D. Z axis transform properties
E. ability to animate 3D objects in ElectricImage files
F. ability to modify 3D information from composited files

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 72
You are working with a 3D layer and choose Effect > Distort >Transform.
What happens first during rendering?
A. x, y, and z properties are applied in the Timeline window.
B. Orientation properties are applied in the Timeline window.
C. Orientation and x, y, and z properties are applied in the Timeline window.
D. Transformation properties are applied with the Effect > Distort >Transform command.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Which statement about using After Effects OpenGL previewing is true?
A. Layers are limited to 2,000 by 2,000 pixels.
B. OpenGL supports all After Effects blending modes.
C. OpenGL previews are created by using Adaptive Resolution previewing.
D. OpenGL previews are limited only by the amount of installed RAM on the system.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
You want to slice an image that contains 3D channel information along its z depth values. Which 3D Channel effect should you use?
A. ID Matte
B. Depth Matte
C. Depth of Field
D. 3D Channel Extract

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
You want to crossfade between several cameras in a 3D scene while rendering final output. Which feature or command should you use?
A. precomposing
B. Effect > 3D Channel > Depth of Field
C. Timeline camera property Point of Interest
D. Timeline camera property Focus Distance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which example represents an array for scale in an expression?
A. .scale
B. [xy,xy]
C. Scale = 3
D. xyscale = Math.sqrt

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
You have created an expression for the scale property of Layer B. You drag the pick whip to the x value for the position property of Layer A. Which expression is written for the scale property of Layer B?
A. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[x]
B. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0]
C. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0], thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0]
D. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0], thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[1]

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
You have created the following expression on Layer A: thisComp.layer(“layer D”).scale.valueAtTime(time-2) Which is the global object of this expression?
A. scale
B. thisComp
C. layer(“layer D”)
D. valueAtTime(time-2)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
Which After Effects feature enables you to create a relationship from the keyframes of one layer property and dynamically control different layer properties?
A. null objects
B. child layers
C. expressions
D. parent layers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
For which option in the Project Settings dialog box can you enter a value for where to start numbering frames?
A. Frames
B. Color Depth
C. Drop-Frame
D. Non-Drop-Frame

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
Which is the default setting for levels in the Audio palette?
A. -96 dB
B. 0 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 120 dB

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
Which action restores the original settings of all palettes and command settings?
A. rebooting your computer
B. restarting Adobe After Effects
C. opening a new Adobe After Effects project
D. deleting the Adobe After Effects preferences file

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
Which option in the Smart Masks palette should you use to match the seventh vertex in the first keyframe to the seventh vertex in the second keyframe?
A. Quality
B. Keyframe Fields
C. Bending Resistance
D. Use Linear Vertex Paths

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Which tool should you use to change the point around which a layer will rotate without changing the position of the layer in the Composition window?
A. Rotation tool
B. Selection tool
C. Pan Behind tool
D. Orbit Camera tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
Which is an example of a non-drop-frame timecode?
A. 00072
B. 0007+2
C. 4:15:14:07
D. 4;15;14;04

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 72
You create an alpha channel _________.
A. to hold color data for a document
B. to create transparency for a layer
C. to create transparency for a JPEG file
D. to localize Optimization settings in Save for Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection.
What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
You want to create an image that will be printed using black ink plus onePantone?color. What should you do?
A. add a color swatch for thePantone?colorand use the color on any layer
B. create an alpha channel for the elements that will use thePanatone?color
C. create a spot color channel for the elements that will use thePanatone?color
D. create a layer set and add elements that will print in thePantone?colorto any layer within the layer set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying a gallery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Your foreground swatch isred,your background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Exhibit

You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch.
Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
A scanned photograph exhibits substantial graininess and diminished sharpness. You want to sharpen the image without increasing the grain.
Which control in theUnsharpMask filter should you use?
A. Fade
B. Radius
C. Amount
D. Threshold

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a stroke?
A. Texture
B. Scattering
C. Shape Dynamics
D. Brush Tip Shapes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
The Aligned checkbox for the Pattern Stamp tool in the Options Bar ensures that ______.
A. all areas painted with the tool are continuations of the same underlying pattern
B. you are sampling from the same pixels in the pattern with which you are painting
C. you are sampling from the same relative point in the pattern with which you are painting
D. the upper left corner of the pattern with which you are painting is aligned with the beginning of each brush stroke

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before you last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
You are creating a layer style that includes a Bevel and Emboss.
What allows you to sculpt the ridges, valleys, and bumps that are shaded in the embossing process?

A. spread
B. contour
C. shading
D. blend mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
You use the Magic Eraser tool on the background.
What is the result?
A. The background becomes Layer 0 and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become transparent.
B. The background becomes Layer 0 and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with background color.
C. The background remains and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with background color.
D. The background remains and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with black.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
You have several layers in a layer set. You want to the layers in that set to blend with one another first, and then with the rest of the layers in the document.
Which blending mode should you use for the layer set?
A. Normal
B. Hard Mix
C. Exclusion
D. Pass Through

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
A Photoshop document has several paths. You want to use one of them as a vector mask. What should you do?
A. chooseLayer > Add Vector Mask then choose a path from the resulting dialog box.
B. select the patch in the Paths palette, then choose Layer > Add Vector Mask > Current Path
C. copy the path to the clipboard, choose Layer > Add Vector Mask; then Edit > Paste
D. choose Layer > Add Vector Mask, then drag the path from the Paths palette onto the Vector Mask thumbnail

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
The topmost of several layers in a document is a shape layer. You want that shape to define a hole in all the layers of the image.
What should you do?
A. select the top layer, and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. link all layers, then choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask from Linked
C. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Opacity to 0%, and Knockout to Deep
D. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Fill Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
You have created a raster layer mask that is currently hiding too much of a layer. You want to reveal more of the layer.
What should you do?
A. select the mask and paint with white
B. select the mask and paint with black C. create a path around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask
D. create a path with Intersect Shape Areas selected around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
You want to restrict the visibility of one layer to only where it overlaps the visible content of the layer below it.
What should you do?
A. select the lower of the two layers and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. holddown Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and click on the line between the two layers.
C. Link the two layers,thenchoose Create New Set from Linked from the Layers palette menu.
D. Select both layers, then click on the Add Layer Mask button at the bottom of the Layers palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 91
You are suing the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image. Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A. Radius
B. Amount
C. Tonal Width
D. MidtoneContrast

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
You have several images of a subject. One has the correct tonal and color characteristics. You want to adjust the other to look like the correct one.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use?
A. Auto Color
B. Match Color
C. Replace Color
D. Selective Color

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using BicubicInterpolation?
A. Blur
B. Sharpen
C. Add Noise
D. Auto Levels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
The shadows and highlights in a document are too light and too dark respectively. The color of the image, however, is satisfactory.
Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box should you choose?
A. Snap NeutralMidtones
B. Find Dark & Light Colors
C. Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D. Enhance Monochromatic Contrast

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
Exhibit.

You have createda curvesadjustment layer that you only want applied to the Rubber ducky layer. You notice that the adjustment layer darkens the entire composition.
What should you do?
A. put the beach layer above the adjustment layer
B. create a clipping mask with the Rubber Ducky layer
C. put the Rubber Ducky layer above the adjustment layer
D. create a layer set with the adjustment and Rubber Duckylaers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You are trying to lighten a dark subject in your image by using the Shadow/Highlight command, but the midtonesand lighter areas are changing too much.
What should you do?
A. increase the Shadow Amount
B. decrease the Shadow Amount
C. Increase the Shadow Tonal Width
D. Decrease the Shadow Tonal Width

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast. Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 100
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the promotions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporated into video

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You sue the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled.
How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. an ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
You create an alpha channel _________.
A. to hold color data for a document
B. to create transparency for a layer
C. to create transparency for a JPEG file
D. to localize Optimization settings in Save for Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
You want to create an image that will be printed using black ink plus onePantone?Color. What should you do?
A. add a color swatch for thePantone?colorand use the color on any layer
B. create an alpha channel for the elements that will use thePantone?color
C. create a spot color channel for the elements that will use thePantone?color
D. create a layer set and add elements that will print in thePanatone?colorto any layer within the layer set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection.
What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
You have used the File Browser to rotate, flag, and rank images in a directory. You want to burn the entire directory to a CD while maintaining the settings in the File Browser.
Which File Browser command should you use?
A. File > Purge Cache
B. File > Export Cache
C. Edit > Append Metadata
D. Edit > Replace Metadata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
Yourasterizea type layer to __________.
A. useLiquify
B. apply al layer style
C. use Free Transform
D. use an adjustment layer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
Which statement is true about using the command File > Place to place artwork in an image?
A. The artwork will be placed on a new layer.
B. You can choose to place the artwork as pixels or paths.
C. You can choose which resolution to use for the imported artwork.
D. The file formats you can place are the same as those in which you can save a Photoshop file.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
A digital camera supported by Adobe Photoshop was set for tungsten lighting when a photograph was made in daylight. The photograph was made in the camera’s RAW mode.
What should you do?
A. when opening the document, adjust the tint slider in the Camera RAW dialog box
B. after opening the document, use the Assign Profile dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBICprofile
C. after opening the document, use the Color Settings dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBICprofile
D. when opening the document, choose daylight under the White Balance menu in the Camera RAW dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which file format should you sue to preserve variable transparency in an image to be used on a web page?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PNG
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 72
You have created a new letter sized document. Your general units preference is set to inches. You want to change the width of your document to 775 points and the height to 550 points. What should you do?
A. choose Object > Crop Area
B. choose File > Document Setup and change the Artboard width to 775 and the Height to 550
C. choose File > Document Setup and change the Artboard width to 775p and the height to 550p
D. choose File > Document Setup and change the Artboard units to points; enter 775 for the width and 550 for the height

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
When color managing your documents, it is important to know if there are any missing profiles or mismatches in the color profiles. Where do you find the settings to activate these warnings?
A. Edit > Assign Profile
B. Edit > Color Settings
C. Window > Document Info
D. File > Document Color Mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74
In color management settings, which rendering intent will preserve the visual relationship in a way that is perceived as natural to the human eye?
A. Perceptual
B. Saturation
C. Relative Colormetric
D. Absolute Colormetric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 75
You have not been color managing your documents and have disabled warning dialog boxes wherever possible. Now you want to color manage your documents. Where will you find the reset to enable the warning dialog boxes?
A. Edit > Assign Profile
B. Edit > Color Settings
C. File > Document Color Mode
D. Edit > Preferences > General

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
Which color management feature determines how source colors are translated into the gamut of the destination color space?
A. color profiles
B. rendering intent
C. color management engine
D. device independent color space

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 77
Which settings in the Color Settings dialog box sets the default color profile for newly created documents?
A. Working Spaces
B. Color Management Policies
C. Conversion Options > Intent
D. Conversion Options > Engine

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 78
Where in the Save for Web dialog box can you choose a modem speed to display the correct estimated download time at the bottom of each optimized image option?
A. Preview palette menu
B. Optimize palette menu
C. Settings pop-up menu
D. Optimized File Format pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
You are saving irregular shaped objects that have transparent areas as JPEG images for the Web. Which option in the Save for Web dialog box allows you to set the color for transparent areas?
A. Blur
B. Matte
C. Quality
D. ICC Profile

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
Which two file formats are supported by Web browsers? (Choose two.)
A. AI
B. GIF
C. EPS
D. TIFF
E. JPEG
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 81
Which file format will allow you to create a Web graphic with a small file size, and that will not lose resolution as you enlarge it?
A. GIF
B. PNG
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 82
You want to build an SWF animation with the objects on a layer. Which option in the Layers palette menu places each object on its own layer?
A. Flatten Artwork
B. Collect in New Layer
C. Release to Layers (Build)
D. Release to Layers (Sequence)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
A group of objects has transparency applied. How do you set the objects to knock out one another?
A. select the group by using a selection tool; select On for the Knockout Group option in the Transparency palette
B. select the group by using a selection tool; select Off for the Knockout Group option in the Transparency palette
C. target the group by using the Layers palette; select the Off setting for Knockout Group option in the Transparency palette
D. target the group by using the Layers palette; select the On setting for Knockout Group option in the Transparency palette

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
Which statement about clipping masks is true?
A. The masking object must be a vector object.
B. The clipping mask may be moved by using the selection tool.
C. A clipping mask retains the original fill and stroke used to create it.
D. A clipping mask is made from the bottom-most object in a multiple selection.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 45
NetBoot Filters in Mac OS X Server can ________.
A. deny NetBoot access to select computers, based on their IP address
B. allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their IP address
C. allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their host name
D. allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their hardware address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
When you configure NFS export settings for a share point, selecting “Map All users to nobody” ________.
A. prevents export of any items or contents to any users
B. creates the group, nobody, that is used for NFS access
C. tells the NFS server to treat every user the same: as nobody
D. tells the NFS server to identify all users by their client settings

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
A folder is set up using Deny type Access Control Lists (ACLs). Which rule determines who can perform actions on files in that folder?
A. Only the owner or group can perform a file action.
B. Group permissions take precedence over user level permissions to perform file actions.
C. A denial at any level of user or group permissions takes precedence over any acceptance with regard to performing file actions.
D. Users have either read-only access, or no access at all, which supersedes Everyone permissions with regard to performing file actions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
In Mac OS X Server v10.4, print quotas can be ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. configured for computer accounts in Workgroup Manager
B. configured for group accounts in Workgroup Manager
C. configured for user accounts in Workgroup Manager
D. configured to deny print services on LPR printers
E. enabled for a print queue in Server Admin
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 49
In the Mac OS X Server v10.4 print service, a printer pool ________.
A. is a string identifying the printer manufacturer
B. identifies the model of the printer that is shared
C. is the protocol used to access network print queues
D. is a queue that can have more than one printer assigned to it

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Click the Exhibit button and examine the graphic, then answer the question below.
You have set a managed preferences Dock location for the Arts workgroup, and for a user, Sarah, as shown in the exhibit. Sarah logs in as a member of the Arts workgroup. Where on her screen does the Dock appear?

A. left side of the screen
B. right side of the screen
C. bottom of the screen (the default Dock position)
D. Sarah will be prompted to choose whether her user preferences or the Arts workgroup preferences should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of her choice.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which CANNOT be used as the source when creating a NetBoot boot image with System Image Utility in Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. Mac OS 9.2.2 Install Disc
B. Mac OS X v10.4 Install DVD
C. PowerBook G4 with Mac OS X v10.4 installed
D. disk image created from a hard drive with Mac OS X installed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
You have chosen “Any” as the authentication method for your Apple File Server. Which authentication methods will the server try to use to authenticate a user, and in what order?
A. 1. Standard
2.
Kerberos

3.
SSH
B. 1. SSH
2.
Standard

3.
Kerberos
C. 1. Kerberos
2. Standard
D. 1. Standard
2. Kerberos
E. 1. Kerberos
2. SSH

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which statement best describes how Network Address Translation (NAT) functions on Mac OS X Server?
A. NAT distributes IP addresses from an internal IP address range to clients.
B. NAT maps client requests to public addresses, and forwards responses to the requester.
C. NAT blocks incoming traffic on specified ports, allowing only outgoing traffic on those ports.
D. NAT maintains a list of DNS entries for all clients, and manages zone transfers with that data.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
In Mac OS X Server v10.4, the administrator is configuring the /Network default view. This view will be seen by ________.
A. all users
B. unbound DHCP users
C. users connected via VPN
D. bound, unmanaged users

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Using Workgroup Manager, you can select and configure Access Control Lists (ACLs) for ________.
A. files and folders
B. users and groups
C. folders and sharepoints
D. all items in a file system
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
Which three user actions can be logged and monitored in Apple File Service? (Choose THREE.)
A. file creation
B. file deletion
C. CPU utilization
D. folder creation
E. ownership changes
F. permissions changes
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 57
Which statement presents a valid reason for configuring a network user account to use crypt passwords?
A. Crypt is the most secure password type provided by Mac OS X Server v10.4.
B. The crypt password type enables the user account to authenticate via Kerberos.
C. Mac OS X Server v10.4 allows only crypt passwords to be set for network user accounts.
D. Crypt passwords provide compatibility with computers running Mac OS X v10.1 and earlier.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You are configuring a user account in Workgroup Manager. Which password type should you choose if you want users to authenticate via a Mac OS X Server password server?
A. Crypt
B. Shadow
C. Open Directory
D. Kerberos Distribution

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Using Workgroup Manager, what two options can you configure for an AFP share point? (Choose TWO.)
A. Who can connect to the share point
B. Whether the share point contains NFS drop boxes
C. Which computer accounts can access the share point
D. Whether the share point assigned permissions will be inherited by new items
E. Whether the share point’s assigned permissions will be copied to enclosed items

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 60
The print service in Mac OS X Server v10.4 enforces authentication on print queues shared over SMB. This feature is ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. accessible from Windows Print Center in Mac OS X
B. identical to authentication for AppleTalk and LPR print queues
C. consistent with the print services provided by a Windows server
D. necessary for Windows users to access non-PostScript printers
E. useful for preventing unauthorized users from using a particular printer
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 11
You work as a systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You have just successful installed Mac OS X Server v10.4 on a server. Which of the following directory configurations will now be available to you in Server Assistant? (Choose Three)
A. NetInfo Parent
B. Standalone Server
C. Open Directory Master
D. Active Directory Master
E. Connected to a Directory System

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you set up a server initially, you specify its directory services configuration.
Choices are:
NO change ,available only when upgrading form Mac OS X Sever version 10.2.8or the latest 10.3 version.
Standalone Server, used to set up only a local NetInfo directory domain on the server.
Open Directory Master , used to set up an LDAP directory on the server for other computers to share.
Connected to a Directory System, used to set up the server to obtain directory information from a shared
directory domain that’s already been set up on another Not D: Active Directory Master is not an option

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statement best describes Network Address Translation (NAT) on Mac OS X Server?
A. NAT distributes IP addresses from an internal IP address range to clients.
B. NAT maps client requests to public addresses, and forwards responses to the requester
C. NAT blocks incoming traffic on specified ports, allowing only outgoing traffic on those ports.
D. NAT maintains a list of DNS entries for all clients, and manages zone transfers with that data.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following actions can be logged and monitored in Apple File Services?
A. File creation
B. File deletion
C. CPU utilization
D. Folder creation
E. Ownership changes
F. Permission changes

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
On an AFP Server to which users is the Login Greeting displayed?
A. To all users when they log in to the server.
B. To all users when they connect to the AFP Server.
C. Only to Mac OS 9 clients, when they connect to the AFP Server.
D. Only to users with a Directory binding to the server when they log in to their computer.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Upon connection to an AFP share you must first authenticate with a username and password or Kerberos
ticket. after login you will be greeted with the Login Greeting. So B is wrong becuase it says connect.

A. is correct as it say when they log in to the server. Quote from “Mac OS X Server File Services Administration For Version 10.4 or Later”: http://images.apple.com/server/pdfs/File_Services_v10.4.pdf pg. 65 Creating a Login Greating “The login greeting is a message users see when they log in the server.”
QUESTION 15
Which of the following authentication schemes does an Open Directory Master running on Mac OS X Server v10.4 use? (Choose Two)
A. Shared Passwords
B. Clear Text
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP
E. SASL

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
You work as the systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You want to configure automatic Group Folder access in Mac OS X Server. You want to perform this task using a method recommended by Apple. Which of the following methods could you use? (Choose Two)
A. Assign a user login performance for the group folder.
B. Add the group folder to the Dock using MCX Dock preference
C. Set the automount flag for group folders on the relevant share point
D. Use NFS to configure the share point where the group folder is stored

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true regarding crypt passwords?
A. Crypt is the most secure password type provided by Mac OS X Server v10.4.
B. The crypt password type enables the user account to authenticate via Kerberos.
C. Mac OS X Server v10.4 allows only crypt passwords to be set for network user accounts.
D. Crypt passwords provide Compatibility with computers running Mac OS X v10.1 and earlier.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You configure a firewall on a Mac OS X Server v10.4 computer to allow web service for the IP address range 10.1.7.6/16 only. Which of the following IP addresses will be DENIED access to the web server? (Choose Two)
A. 10.1.7.6
B. 10.2.7.6
C. 10.1.7.8
D. 10.1.9.6
E. 17.1.7.6

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You work as a systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You need to create a NetBoot boot image with System Image Utility in Mac OS X Server v10.4. Which of the following can you use as a source for the boot image? (Choose Three)
A. Mac OS 9.2.2 Install Disc
B. Mac OS X v10.4 Install DVD
C. PowerBook G4 with Mac OS X v10.4 installed
D. Disk image created from a hard drive with Mac OS X installed

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which of the following password policy options does Mac OS X Server v10.4 support? (Choose Two)
A. Log failed login attempts.
B. Use Kerberos passwords.
C. Use Clear Text passwords.
D. Establish password criteria
E. Identify password storage location.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which of the following tasks can be performed remotely with Remote Desktop but not locally using Server Admin?
A. Start and stop services on the server
B. Administrate multiple servers simultaneously
C. Administrate a server without a monitor
D. Configure an additional Ethernet port on the server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
You work as the systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You have configured a disk quota for a user named Lisa. To which files will this quota be applied?
A. To files owned by Lisa, and located in Lisa’s home folder.
B. To files owned by any user but located in Lisa’s home folder.
C. To files owned by Lisa, and located on the partition where Lisa’s home folder resides.
D. To files owned by Lisa, and located on the share point where Lisa’s home folder resides.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Examine the Exhibit, then answer the question below.

You work as a systems administrator at Certkiller .com. You have set a managed performance Dock location for the Arts Workgroup as well as for a user named Sarah, as shown in the exhibit. Where will the Dock appear when Sarah logs in as a member of the Arts Workgroup?
A. To the left side of the screen.
B. To the right side of the screen.
C. At the bottom of the screen.
D. Sarah will be prompted to choose whether her user preferences or the Arts workgroup preferences should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of her choice.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of the following computer configurations meets the minimum recommended requirements for Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. iMac G3 (Bondi Blue)/256 MB RAM / 6 GB available disk space
B. Power Mac G4/512 MB RAM /3GB available disk space
C. Power Mac G4/256 MB RAM / 4GB available disk space
D. iBook G4/256 MB RAM / 6 GB available disk space

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Doesn’t have Firewire, B. Doesn’t have 4 GB of disk space, Both C and D meet the requirements for OS
10.4 Server. The computer onto which you install Mac OS X Server must have: A Power PC G3.G4,or G5 processor Built-in Fire Wire At least 128 megabytes (MB)of random access memory (Ram).At least 256 MB of A PowerPC G3.G4,or G5 processor
Built-in FireWire At lest 128megabytes(MB)of ramdom acess memory (RAM?).Atleast 256MB of RAM is required for high-demand servers running multiple services. At least 4 gigabytes (GB)of disk space available At lest 4megabytes(GB)of disk space available Source: Mac OS X Server Getting Started Guide For Version 10.4 or Later http://images.apple.com/server/pdfs/Getting_Started_v10.4.pdf
QUESTION 25
For which of the following can you configure Access Control Lists (ACLs) from Workgroup Manager?
A. files and folders
B. users and groups
C. folders and share points
D. all items in a file system

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
According to the override rule, what is the order of precedence for Management Preferences?
A. Groups, User, Computer List
B. Computer List, Groups, User
C. User, Group, Computer List
D. Computer List, User, Groups
E. User, Computer List, Groups
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which of the following allows you to share a single public IP address and can be used in conjunction with a firewall to provide security for your users?
A. Kerberos
B. Web Mail
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Examine the Exhibit, then answer the question below.

In the Exhibit, the Staff Mac OS X Server hosts a shared directory domain, to which the three client computers A, B, and C are bound. Which of the following statements are true of this network?
A. The Directory Access application was used on the Staff Mac OS X Server to bind computer A to its parent domain.
B. The Server Assistant application was used on the Staff Mac OS X Server to bind computer B to its parent domain
C. User defined in the Shared domain of the Staff Mac OS X Server can log into computer A
D. User defined only in the Local domain of computer C can log in to the Staff Mac OS X Server
E. User defined only in the Local domain of the Staff Mac OS X Server cannot log in to computer C.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are true regarding FTP service in Mac OS X Server v10.4? (Choose Three)
A. By default, FTP service encodes filed on-the-fly, as the files are requested.
B. By default, FTP service encrypts filed on-the-fly, as the files are requested.
C. By default, FTP service archives filed on-the-fly, as the files are requested.
D. By default, FTP service compresses filed on-the-fly, as the files are requested.
E. By default, FTP service unencrypts filed on-the-fly, as the files are requested.
F. By default, FTP service uncompresses filed on-the-fly, as the files are requested.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which of the following access control features are introduced in Mac OS X Server v10.4? (Choose Three)
A. Group can own files
B. Files can have multiple owners
C. Groups can contain other group
D. Users can belong to more than 16 groups
E. What was the Everyone user is now the Everyone group
F. Any user can set Access Control Lists (ACLs) on any folder s/he owns.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Access control features differ greatly from the old Unix POSIX features. In short, ACLs don’t express
ownership per se so We have a problem with the answers about files having multiple owners. We would
say ACL changes have been that groups can own files, that groups can contain other groups, or nesting,
and that with Tiger users can belong to more than 16 groups. We say the right answers are A, C and D. E
and F are definitely wrong.
The wording on this question is vague enough to leave some doubt, though.

QUESTION 31
Where would you configure password policies in Mac OS X Server?
A. In Workgroup Manager, at the Basic user panel.
B. In Workgroup Manager, as an advanced user option.
C. In Server Admin, as part of Directory Services settings.
D. In Workgroup Manager, as part of Accounts preferences.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which of the following statements are true regarding passive FTP?
A. Users must enable passive FTP if they are behind a firewall that requires SFTP.
B. Users must enable passive FTP if they are behind a firewall that has FTP tunneling disabled.
C. Users must enable passive FTP if they are behind a firewall that does not allow FTP connections.
D. Users must enable passive FTP if they are behind a firewall that does not allow all FTP connection modes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
What is the primary purpose of shadow files in NetBoot?
A. It allows the client to boot diskless.
B. It provides a temporary writable space.
C. It allows NetBoot to run in read-only mode.
D. It allows NetBoot clients to edit the NetBoot image.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which of the following browsing protocols for Apple File Service can you enable from Server Admin?
A. NFS
B. SMB
C. Bonjour
D. Apple Talk
E. Open Directory

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
AFS browsing protocols are limited to Bonjour (which also involves SLP) and Apple Talk. The correct answer is C and D.
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are true regarding Deny type Access Control Lists (ACLs)?
A. Only the owner or group can perform a file action on a file located in a folder that is set up using Deny type Access Control Lists (ACLs).
B. Group permissions take precedence over user level permissions to perform file actions action on a file located in a folder that is set up using Deny type Access Control Lists (ACLs).
C. A denial at any level of user or group permissions takes precedence over any acceptance with regard to performing file actions.
D. Users have either read-only access, or no access at all, which supersedes Everyone permissions with regard to performing file actions action on a file located in a folder that is set up using Deny type Access Control Lists (ACLs).
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Why makes sharing files over NFS NOT secure?
A. NFS relies on Kerberos.
B. NFS uses Clear Text passwords.
C. NFS uses MAC address authentication.
D. NFS does not require user authentication.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which of the following utilities allows you change the role of the Open Directory service?
A. Server Admin
B. Directory Access
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Open Directory Admin

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which of the following components are included in an installation package? (Choose Three)
A. An information plist.
B. A text file with size calculations.
C. A text file with the Finder layout.
D. An archive of the files to be installed.
E. A text file identifying the package contents.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Contents of an installation package includes the information plist;
a text file with size calculation ;and an archive of the files to be installed which is also called the payload
The Finder layout is not included and the file that identifies the package contents is a binary file, not a text
file. Correct answer is A, B and D.

QUESTION 39
Where on a client machine is managed client data stored after the user logs in?
A. /Library
B. /System/Library
C. /Library/Preferences/
D. ~/Library/Preferences/

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which of the following will result in the automatic configuration of Mac OS X Server v10.4 on a computer?
A. Enter the configuration details via Setup Assistant.
B. Save the configuration details in an XML file, config plist and put the file on a mounted volume on the server
C. Save the configuration details as an entry in a running directory service with the MAC address of the server as its name.
D. Save the configuration details as a text file, with the server host name as its name, and store the file on mounted volume on the file server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which of the following meets the minimum recommended hardware configuration for Mac OS X v10.3 and for OS X V10.4 NetBoot clients?
A. 100 Base-T Ethernet and 128 MB RAM for Mac OS X v10.3 NetBoot clients and 10 Base-T Ethernet and 256 MB RAM for Mac OS X v10.4 NetBoot clients.
B. 10 Base-T Ethernet and 128 MB RAM for Mac OS X v10.3 NetBoot clients and 100 Base-T Ethernet and 256 MB RAM for Mac OS X v10.4 NetBoot clients.
C. 100 Base-T Ethernet and 128 MB RAM for Mac OS Xv10.3 NetBoot clients and 100 Base-T Ethernet and 128 MB RAM for Mac OS Xv10.4 NetBoot clients.
D. 100 Base-T Ethernet and 256 MB RAM for Mac OS Xv10.3 NetBoot clients and 100 Base-T Ethernet and 256 MB RAM for Mac OS Xv10.4 NetBoot clients.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Requirements to NetBoot Panther and Tiger clients are the same: 100 Base-T Ethernet and 128MB RAM. That makes the correct answer C. NetBoot for OS9 clients only takes 64MB RAM but that isn’t the question.
QUESTION 42
What is the purpose of NetBoot Filters in Mac OS X Server?
A. To control NetBoot access to select to computers based on their IP address.
B. To control NetBoot access to select computers based on their IP address.
C. To control NetBoot access to select computers based on their host address.
D. To control NetBoot access to select computers based on their hardware address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
In Mac OS X Server v10.4, which of the following FTP service settings can you configure using Server Admin?
A. Enabling anonymous access.
B. Enabling passive mode transfers.
C. Enabling MacBinary and disk image auto-conversion.
D. Specifying a maximum number of authenticated users.
E. Specifying a maximum number of downloadable files per session.
F. Enabling Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MD5 (CRAM-MD5).

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FTP services on OSX Server v10.4 allows you to encode, archive, and compress on the fly. It does not allow for encryption on the fly. Correct answer is A, C and D.
QUESTION 44
To which of the following does managed performance for the Guest Computers account in Workgroup Manager apply?
A. To computers named on the Guest Computers list only.
B. To any bound computer from which a user connects to the server with Guest access.
C. To any bound computer that is not a member of a named computer list on the server.
D. To computers that are members of computer lists that have Guest access to the server.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 11
When installing Mac OS X Server v 10.3, on a remote computer from a local computer, what should you attempt to use as a password to gain access to the remote computer?
A. 12345678
B. local computer’s root password
C. remote computer’s IP (Ipv4) address
D. any user-defined password present on the remote computer
E. first eight characters of the remote computer’s serial number

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
During the Mac OS X v10.3 startup sequence, a Macintosh checks for a pressed C key, which tells the computer to start up from a CD volume rather than from a hard disk volume. This check occurs immediately after___________________
A. Bootx loads
B. Open Firmware is initialized
C. The kernel environment loads
D. The POST (Power On Self Test) passes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which protocol does the QuickTime Streaming Server use?
A. QTSS
B. RTSP
C. RTSS
D. TRSS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Using the Printer Setup Utility in Mac OS X v10.3, how do you enable printing to a printer shared by a computer with a Windows operating system?
A. Click Add, choose IP from the pop-up menu, select the Windows printer from the list, and click Add.
B. Click Add, choose windows printing from the pop-up menu, type in the printer address and queue name and click add.
C. Click add, choose windows printing from the pop-up menu. Choose LPD/LPR form the pop-up menu, select the windows printer from the list and click add.
D. Click add, choose windows printing from the pop-up menu choose the correct workgroup from the workgroup pop-up menu, select the printer from the list and click add.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Using the windows service in server Admin, Mac OS X Server v10.3 can be configured to_________________choose all that apply
A. allow Guest access
B. reshare NFS volume
C. be an Active Directory server
D. be a Primary Domain Controller
E. be a member of a windows workgroup

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 16
What is one reason to prefer an AFP share point over an NFS share point for storing home directories?
A. NFS volumes must be mounted manually.
B. AFP volumes are easier to search than NFS volume
C. AFP provides user-level authentication access security
D. NFS share points do not support group-level Read & write permission

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What information can you find in the open Directory error and service logs that will help you when troubleshooting open directory problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. failed authentication attempts
B. Kerberos authentication authority
C. Kerberos tickets that have been granted
D. Failed network resources installation attempts
E. List of open directory plug-ins that loaded successfully
F. IP addresses from which an authentication attempt was launched

Correct Answer: ABCDEF
QUESTION 18
Kerberos can authenticate users for which Mac OS X Server v 10.3 services?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. SASL
E. QTSS
F. Web services
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
You manage the Dock position for user Sarah so it appears on the left of her screen.
You manage the Dock position for the workgroup,Arts of which Sarah is a member, so that the Dock appears on the right side of member’s screens. Where does the
Dock appear when Sarah logs in as a member of the Arts workgroup?
A. left side the screen
B. right side of the screen
C. When there is a conflict between user and workgroup preferences the default value of the preference is used. The default Dock position is at the bottom of the screen.
D. If you are managing the Dock position for the computer list account in which the Arts workgroup is a member, the Dock position will be the same as the one defined for the computer list. If you are not managing the Dock position for the computer list, the Dock appears on the right same as the one defined for the computer list. If you are not managing the Dock position for the computer list, the Dock appears on the right.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. anti-replay protection
C. authentication
D. authorization
E. confidentiality
F. integrity
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 2
Which two encryption algorithms are commonly used to encrypt the contents of a message? (Choose two.)
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IPsec
D. PKI
E. SHA1
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI support?
A. certificate keys
B. nonrepudiation keys
C. usage keys
D. variable keys
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure?
A. The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
B. The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
C. After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.
D. CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required?
A. authenticity of digitally signed data
B. integrity of digitally signed data
C. nonrepudiation of the transaction
D. confidentiality of the public key
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
A. The data is encrypted three times with three different keys.
B. The data is encrypted, decrypted, and encrypted using three different keys.
C. The data is divided into three blocks of equal length for encryption.
D. The data is encrypted using a key length that is three times longer than the key used for DES.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Which statement describes a cryptographic hash function?
A. A one-way cryptographic hash function is hard to invert.
B. The output of a cryptographic hash function can be any length.
C. The input of a cryptographic hash function has a fixed length.
D. A cryptographic hash function is used to provide confidentiality.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which statement is a feature of HMAC?
A. HMAC is based on the RSA hash function.
B. HMAC uses a secret key that is only known to the sender and defeats man-in-the-middle attacks.
C. HMAC uses a secret key as input to the hash function, adding authentication to integrity assurance.
D. HMAC uses protocols such as SSL or TLS to provide session layer confidentiality.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Why is RSA typically used to protect only small amounts of data?
A. The keys must be a fixed length.
B. The public keys must be kept secret.
C. The algorithms used to encrypt data are slow.
D. The signature keys must be changed frequently.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
The network administrator for an e-commerce website requires a service that prevents customers from claiming that legitimate orders are fake. What service provides this type of guarantee?
A. authentication
B. confidentiality
C. integrity
D. nonrepudiation

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which encryption algorithm is described in the exhibit?

A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RC4
E. SEAL

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which statement describes asymmetric encryption algorithms?
A. They include DES, 3DES, and AES.
B. They have key lengths ranging from 80 to 256 bits.
C. They are also called shared-secret key algorithms.
D. They are relatively slow because they are based on difficult computational algorithms.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which symmetrical encryption algorithm is the most difficult to crack?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
E. SHA
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is a characteristic of the RSA algorithm?
A. RSA is much faster than DES.
B. RSA is a common symmetric algorithm.
C. RSA is used to protect corporate data in high-throughput, low-latency environments.
D. RSA keys of 512 bits can be used for faster processing, while keys of 2048 bits can be used for increased security.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cipher method is depicted?

A. Caesar cipher
B. stream cipher
C. substitution cipher
D. transposition cipher
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What does it mean when a hashing algorithm is collision resistant?
A. Exclusive ORs are performed on input data and produce a digest.
B. It is not feasible to compute the hash given the input data.
C. It uses a two-way function that computes a hash from the input and output data.
D. Two messages with the same hash are unlikely to occur.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
How do modern cryptographers defend against brute-force attacks?
A. Use statistical analysis to eliminate the most common encryption keys.
B. Use an algorithm that requires the attacker to have both ciphertext and plaintext to conduct a successful attack.
C. Use a keyspace large enough that it takes too much money and too much time to conduct a successful attack.
D. Use frequency analysis to ensure that the most popular letters used in the language are not used in the cipher message.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the PKI? (Choose two.)
A. A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes.
B. A class 0 certificate is more trusted than a class 1 certificate.
C. The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate.
D. A class 5 certificate is for users with a focus on verification of email.
E. A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between companies.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 19
Which statement describes the use of keys for encryption?
A. The sender and receiver must use the same key when using symmetric encryption.
B. The sender and receiver must use the same key when using asymmetric encryption.
C. The sender and receiver must use the same keys for both symmetric and asymmetric encryption.
D. The sender and receiver must use two keys: one for symmetric encryption and another for asymmetric encryption.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which encryption protocol provides network layer confidentiality?
A. IPsec protocol suite
B. Keyed MD5
C. Message Digest 5
D. Secure Sockets Layer
E. Secure Hash Algorithm 1
F. Transport Layer Security
Correct Answer: A Exam H

QUESTION 1
Which IPsec protocol should be selected when confidentiality is required?
A. tunnel mode
B. transport mode
C. authentication header
D. encapsulating security payload
E. generic routing encapsulation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
When using ESP tunnel mode, which portion of the packet is not authenticated?
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. new IP header
D. original IP header
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
When configuring an IPsec VPN, what is used to define the traffic that is sent through the IPsec tunnel and protected by the IPsec process?
A. crypto map
B. crypto ACL
C. ISAKMP policy
D. IPsec transform set
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two IPsec framework components are valid options when configuring an IPsec VPN on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.)

A. Integrity options include MD5 and RSA.
B. IPsec protocol options include GRE and AH.
C. Confidentiality options include DES, 3DES, and AES.
D. Authentication options include pre-shared key and SHA.
E. Diffie-Hellman options include DH1, DH2, and DH5.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen, which Easy VPN Server component is being configured?

A. group policy
B. transform set
C. IKE proposal
D. user authentication
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Under the ACL Editor, which option is used to specify the traffic to be encrypted on a secure

A. connection?
B. Access Rules
C. IPsec Rules
D. Firewall Rules
E. SDM Default Rules

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two authentication methods that can be configured using the SDM Site-to-Site VPN Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. SHA
C. pre-shared keys
D. encrypted nonces
E. digital certificates
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site VPN is required from R1 to R3. The administrator is using the SDM Site-to-Site VPN Wizard on R1. Which IP address should the administrator enter in the highlighted field?

A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 10.2.2.1
D. 10.2.2.2
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.3.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN?
A. VPN client software must be installed.
B. A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
C. The host must be in a stationary location.
D. A web browser must be installed on the host.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which two statements accurately describe characteristics of IPsec? (Choose two.)
A. IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data.
B. IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer.
C. IPsec works at the network layer and operates over all Layer 2 protocols.
D. IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms.
E. IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms.
F. IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 When configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN using the CLI, the authentication pre-share command is configured in the ISAKMP policy. Which additional peer authentication configuration is required?
A. Configure the message encryption algorithm with the encryptiontype ISAKMP policy configuration command.
B. Configure the DH group identifier with the groupnumber ISAKMP policy configuration command.
C. Configure a hostname with the crypto isakmp identity hostname global configuration command.
D. Configure a PSK with the crypto isakmp key global configuration command.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which action do IPsec peers take during the IKE Phase 2 exchange?
A. exchange of DH keys
B. negotiation of IPsec policy
C. verification of peer identity
D. negotiation of IKE policy sets

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE VPN tunnel between R1 and R2. Assuming the R2 GRE configuration is correct and based on the running configuration of R1, what must

A. change the tunnel source interface to Fa0/0
B. change the tunnel destination to 192.168.5.1
C. change the tunnel IP address to 192.168.3.1
D. change the tunnel destination to 209.165.200.225
E. change the tunnel IP address to 209.165.201.1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 When verifying IPsec configurations, which show command displays the encryption algorithm, hash algorithm, authentication method, and Diffie-Hellman group configured, as well as default settings?
A. show crypto map
B. show crypto ipsec sa
C. show crypto isakmp policy
D. show crypto ipsec transform-set

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
With the Cisco Easy VPN feature, which process ensures that a static route is created on the Cisco Easy VPN Server for the internal IP address of each VPN client?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Network Access Control
C. On-Demand Routing
D. Reverse Path Forwarding
E. Reverse Route Injection
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
Which statement describes an important characteristic of a site-to-site VPN?
A. It must be statically set up.
B. It is ideally suited for use by mobile workers.
C. It requires using a VPN client on the host PC.
D. It is commonly implemented over dialup and cable modem networks.
E. After the initial connection is established, it can dynamically change connection information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What is the default IKE policy value for authentication?
A. MD5
B. SHA
C. RSA signatures
D. pre-shared keys
E. RSA encrypted sconces
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which requirement necessitates using the Step-by-Step option of the SDM Site-to-Site VPN wizard instead of the Quick Setup option?
A. AES encryption is required.
B. 3DES encryption is required.
C. Pre-shared keys are to be used.
D. The remote peer is a Cisco router.
E. The remote peer IP address is unknown.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
How many bytes of overhead are added to each IP packet while it is transported through a GRE tunnel?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
What are two benefits of an SSL VPN? (Choose two.)
A. It supports all client/server applications.
B. It supports the same level of cryptographic security as an IPsec VPN.
C. It has the option of only requiring an SSL-enabled web browser.
D. The thin client mode functions without requiring any downloads or software.
E. It is compatible with DMVPNs, Cisco IOS Firewall, IPsec, IPS, Cisco Easy VPN, and NAT.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
Which UDP port must be permitted on any IP interface used to exchange IKE information between security gateways?
A. 400
B. 500
C. 600
D. 700
Correct Answer: B Exam I

QUESTION 1
What are the two major elements of the Cisco Secure Communications solution? (Choose two.)
A. secure communications for extranets
B. secure communications for intranets
C. secure communications for management
D. secure communications for remote access
E. secure communications for site-to-site connections
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2
Which component of the security policy lists specific websites, newsgroups, or bandwidth-intensive applications that are not allowed on the company network?
A. remote access policies
B. acceptable use policies
C. incident handling procedures
D. identification and authentication policies
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What are the two major components of a security awareness program? (Choose two.)
A. awareness campaign
B. security policy development
C. security solution development
D. self-defending network implementation
E. training and education
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which term describes a completely redundant backup facility, with almost identical equipment to the operational facility that is maintained in the event of a disaster?
A. backup site
B. cold site
C. hot site
D. reserve site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What are three benefits of a comprehensive security policy? (Choose three.)
A. defines legal consequences of violations
B. ensures consistency in system operations
C. ensures diversity in system operations, software and hardware acquisition and use, and maintenance
D. identifies reputable network equipment providers
E. sets the rules for expected behavior
F. provides a database for information assets
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 6

Which two Cisco Threat Control and Containment technologies address endpoint security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Application Control Engine
B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System
E. virtual private network
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
What are three key principles of a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.)
A. adaptability
B. authentication
C. collaboration
D. confidentiality
E. integration
F. integrity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 8
Which three detailed documents are used by security staff for an organization to implement the security policies? (Choose three.)
A. asset inventory
B. best practices
C. guidelines
D. procedures
E. risk assessment
F. standards
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 9
Which security document includes implementation details, usually with step-by-step instructions and graphics?
A. guideline document
B. standard document
C. procedure document
D. overview document
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When an organization implements the two-person control principle, how are tasks handled?
A. A task requires two individuals who review and approve the work of each other.
B. A task is broken down into two parts, and each part is assigned to a different individual.
C. A task must be completed twice by two operators who must achieve the same results.
D. A task is rotated among individuals within a team, each completing the entire task for a specific amount of time.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which policy includes standards regarding the installation and update of endpoint threat-control software?
A. distribution policy
B. end-user policy
C. management policy
D. technical policy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which three statements describe ethics in network security? (Choose three.)
A. principles put into action in place of laws
B. foundations for current laws
C. set of moral principles that govern civil behavior
D. standard that is higher than the law
E. set of regulations established by the judiciary system
F. set of legal standards that specify enforceable actions when the law is broken
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
What are the two components in the Cisco Security Management Suite? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Intrusion Prevention
B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco Security MARS
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 14
In which phase of the system development life cycle should security requirements be addressed?
A. Add security requirements during the initiation phase.
B. Include a minimum set of security requirements at each phase.
C. Apply critical security requirements during the implementation phase.
D. Implement the majority of the security requirements at the acquisition phase.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which security services, available through the Cisco Self-Defending Network, include VPN access?
A. secure communications
B. threat control and containment
C. operational control and policy management
D. application control for infrastructure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis uses a mathematical model that assigns a monetary figure to the value of assets,
the cost of threats being realized, and the cost of security implementations?
A. Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Qualitative Asset Analysis
D. Quantitative Continuity Analysis
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which principle of the Cisco Self-Defending Network emphasizes that security should be built in?
A. adapt
B. collaborate
C. integrate
D. simplify

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. When implementing the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which two technologies ensure confidentiality when referring to secure communications? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco NAC appliances and Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System
D. Intrusion Prevention System
E. IPsec VPN
F. SSL VPN

Correct Answer: EF QUESTION 19
Which three documents comprise the hierarchical structure of a comprehensive security policy for an organization? (Choose three.)
A. backup policy
B. server policy
C. incident policy
D. governing policy
E. end-user policy
F. technical policy
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 20
Which network security test requires a network administrator to launch an attack within the network?
A. network scan
B. password crack
C. penetration test
D. vulnerability scan
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What is the primary focus of network operations security?
A. to design and develop secure application code
B. to support deployment and periodic maintenance of secure systems
C. to conduct regular employee background checks
D. to reprimand personnel who do not adhere to security policies
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 65
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-permit” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “class-default”?
A. inspect
B. pass
C. drop
D. police

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Which policy map is associated to the “sdm-zp-in-out” security zone pair?
A. sdm-permit-icmpreply
B. sdm-permit
C. sdm-inspect
D. sdm-insp-traffic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-inspect” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “sdm-invalid-src”, and which traffic is matched by the traffic class “sdm-invlid-src” ? (Choose two.)
A. traffic matched by ACL 100
B. traffic matched by the nested “sdm-cls-insp-traffic” class map
C. inspect/log
D. traffic matched by ACL 104
E. Drop/Log

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68
Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
B. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
C. Cisco IOS router
D. Cisco PIX 500 series security appliance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
The enable secret password appears as an MD5 hash in a router’s configuration file, whereas the enable
password is not hashed (or encrypted, if the password-encryption service is not enabled).
What is the reason that Cisco still support the use of both enable secret and enable passwords in a
router’s configuration?

A. The enable password is used for IKE Phase I, whereas the enable secret password is used for IKE Phase II.
B. The enable password is considered to be a router’s public key, whereas the enable secret password is considered to be a router’s private key.
C. Because the enable secret password is a hash, it cannot be decrypted. Therefore, the enable password is used to match the password that was entered, and the enable secret is used to verify that the enable password has not been modified since the hash was generated.
D. The enable password is present for backward compatibility.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Which classes does the U.S. government place classified data into? (Choose three.)
A. SBU
B. Confidential
C. Secret
D. Top-secret
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 72
How does CLI view differ from a privilege level?
A. A CLI view supports only commands configured for that specific view, whereas a privilege level supports commands available to that level and all the lower levels.
B. A CLI view supports only monitoring commands, whereas a privilege level allows a user to make changes to an IOS configuration.
C. A CLI view and a privilege level perform the same function. However, a CLI view is used on a Catalyst switch, whereas a privilege level is used on an IOS router.
D. A CLI view can function without a AAA configuration, whereas a privilege level requires AAA to be configured.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
When configuring Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual connections, what is the “quiet period”?
A. A period of time when no one is attempting to log in
B. The period of time in which virtual logins are blocked as security services fully initialize
C. The period of time in which virtual login attempts are blocked, following repeated failed login attempts
D. The period of time between successive login attempts

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which three statements are valid SDM configuration wizards? (Choose three.)
A. Security Audit
B. VPN
C. STP
D. NAT

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 75
How do you define the authentication method that will be used with AAA?
A. With a method list
B. With the method command
C. With the method aaa command
D. With a method statement

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What is the objective of the aaa authentication login console-in local command?
A. It specifies the login authorization method list named console-in using the local RADIUS username-password database.
B. It specifies the login authorization method list named console-in using the local username-password database on the router.
C. It specifies the login authentication method list named console-in using the local user database on the router.
D. It specifies the login authentication list named console-in using the local username- password database on the router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which one of the following commands can be used to enable AAA authentication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level?
A. aaa authentication enable default local
B. aaa authentication enable level
C. aaa authentication enable method default
D. aaa authentication enable default

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Please choose the correct matching relationships between the cryptography algorithms and the type of algorithm.

A. Symmetric – TIS1, TIS2 and TIS3 Asymmetric – TIS4, TIS5 and TIS6
B. Symmetric – TIS1, TIS4 and TIS5 Asymmetric – TIS2, TIS3 and TIS6
C. Symmetric – TIS2,TIS4 and TIS5 Asymmetric – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS6
D. Symmetric – TIS2, TIS5 and TIS6 Asymmetric – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which two ports are used with RADIUS authentication and authorization?(Choose two.)
A. TCP port 2002
B. UDP port 2000
C. UDP port 1645
D. UDP port 1812

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?
A. OOB
B. SAFE
C. MARS
D. OTP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Information about a managed device??s resources and activity is defined by a series of objects. What defines the structure of these management objects?
A. FIB
B. LDAP
C. CEF
D. MIB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
When configuring SSH, which is the Cisco minimum recommended modulus value?
A. 2048 bits
B. 256 bits
C. 1024 bits
D. 512 bits

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
When using the Cisco SDM Quick Setup Siteto-Site VPN wizard, which three parameters do you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Interface for the VPN connection
B. IP address for the remote peer
C. Transform set for the IPsec tunnel
D. Source interface where encrypted traffic originates

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 84
If you click the Configure button along the top of Cisco SDM??s graphical interface,which Tasks button permits you to configure such features as SSH, NTP, SNMP, and syslog?
A. Additional Tasks
B. Security Audit
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. Interfaces and Connections

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 85
Which method is of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures?
A. Creating a back door
B. Starting a Smurf attack
C. Conducting social engineering
D. Launching a DoS attack

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
Examine the following options, which Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) protection mechanism disables a switch port if the port receives a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU)?
A. PortFast
B. BPDU Guard
C. UplinkFast
D. Root Guard

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
If a switch is working in the fail-open mode, what will happen when the switch’s CAM table fills to capacity and a new frame arrives?
A. The switch sends a NACK segment to the frame’s source MAC address.
B. A copy of the frame is forwarded out all switch ports other than the port the frame was received on.
C. The frame is dropped.
D. The frame is transmitted on the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
Which type of MAC address is dynamically learned by a switch port and then added to the switch’s running configuration?
A. Pervasive secure MAC address
B. Static secure MAC address
C. Sticky secure MAC address
D. Dynamic secure MAC address

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 89
Which are the best practices for attack mitigations?

A. TIS1, TIS2, TIS3 and TIS5
B. TIS2, TIS5, TIS6 and TIS8
C. TIS2, TIS5, TIS6 and TIS7
D. TIS2, TIS3, TIS6 and TIS8
E. TIS3, TIS4, TIS6 and TIS7

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
In an IEEE 802.1x deployment, between which two devices EAPOL messages typically are sent?
A. Between the RADIUS server and the authenticator
B. Between the authenticator and the authentication server
C. Between the supplicant and the authentication server
D. Between the supplicant and the authenticator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which item is the great majority of software vulnerabilities that have been discovered?
A. Stack vulnerabilities
B. Software overflows C. Heap overflows
D. Buffer overflows

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
What will be enabled by the scanning technology-The Dynamic Vector Streaming (DVS)?
A. Firmware-level virus detection
B. Layer 4 virus detection
C. Signature-based spyware filtering
D. Signature-based virus filtering

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
What Cisco Security Agent Interceptor is in charge of intercepting all read/write requests to the rc files in UNIX?
A. Network interceptor
B. Configuration interceptor
C. Execution space interceptor
D. File system interceptor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
Which name is of the e-mail traffic monitoring service that underlies that architecture of IronPort?
A. IronPort M-Series
B. E-Base
C. TrafMon
D. SenderBase

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
Which statement is not a reason for an organization to incorporate a SAN in its enterprise infrastructure?
A. To increase the performance of long-distance replication, backup, and recovery
B. To decrease the threat of viruses and worm attacks against data storage devices
C. To decrease both capital and operating expenses associated with data storage
D. To meet changing business priorities, applications, and revenue growth

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Which protocol will use a LUN as a way to differentiate the individual disk drives that comprise a target device?
A. iSCSI
B. ATA
C. SCSI

D. HBA Correct Answer: C QUESTION 97
Which statement is true about a Smurf attack?
A. It sends ping requests to a subnet, requesting that devices on that subnet send ping replies to a target system.
B. It intercepts the third step in a TCP three-way handshake to hijack a session.
C. It uses Trojan horse applications to create a distributed collection of “zombie” computers, which can be used to launch a coordinated DDoS attack.
D. It sends ping requests in segments of an invalid size.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
For the following statements, which one is perceived as a drawback of implementing Fibre Channel Authentication Protocol (FCAP)?
A. It is restricted in size to only three segments.
B. It requires the implementation of IKE.
C. It relies on an underlying Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).
D. It requires the use of netBT as the network protocol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which two primary port authentication protocols are used with VSANs? (Choose two.)
A. ESP
B. CHAP
C. DHCHAP
D. SPAP
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 100
Which VoIP components can permit or deny a call attempt on the basis of a network’s available bandwidth?
A. MCU
B. Gatekeeper
C. Application server
D. Gateway

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
Which statement is true about vishing?
A. Influencing users to forward a call to a toll number (for example, a long distance or international number)
B. Influencing users to provide personal information over the phone
C. Using an inside facilitator to intentionally forward a call to a toll number (for example, a long distance or international number)
D. Influencing users to provide personal information over a web page

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 102
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?
A. GRE tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. L2F tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which type of firewall is needed to open appropriate UDP ports required for RTP streams?
A. Proxy firewall
B. Packet filtering firewall
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 104
Please choose the correct description about Cisco Self-Defending Network characteristics.

A. INTEGRATED – TIS1 COLLABORATIVE – TIS2 ADAPTIVE – TIS3
B. INTEGRATED – TIS2 COLLABORATIVE – TIS1 ADAPTIVE – TIS3
C. INTEGRATED – TIS2 COLLABORATIVE – TIS3 www-CareerCert-info ADAPTIVE – TIS1
D. INTEGRATED – TIS3 COLLABORATIVE – TIS2 ADAPTIVE – TIS1

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 71
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Explanation: Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73 How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 75
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. ipsofwd on admin
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. clish -c set routing active enable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
When you change an implicit rule’s order from Last to First in Global Properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway.
B. Select Install Database from the Policy menu.
C. Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Select Save from the File menu.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
How does the button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page retrieve the address?
A. Route Table
B. Address resolution (ARP, RARP)
C. Name resolution (hosts file, DNS, cache)
D. SNMP Get

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Network
B. Security Management object
C. Host
D. Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.
B. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.
C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.
D. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
How can you activate the SNMP daemon on a Check Point Security Management Server?
A. Using the command line, enter snmp_install.
B. Any of these options will work.
C. In SmartDashboard, right-click a Check Point object and select Activate SNMP.
D. From cpconfig, select SNMP extension.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R76 Security Gateway?
A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.
C. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
D. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 47
Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which four current Switch 8800 features address Maluti Univerisity (MU) network requirements? (Choose four)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availablity solution
B. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
C. Support integrated Services (IntServ) and RSVP to provide flow-based, fine-grain control over network traffic.
D. With the load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric, the switch has a maximum aggregated throughput of more than 400 Mpps
E. Multiple priority features will ensure key applications receive the best network response, i.e; eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 48
Which 3Com solution would you recommend for the Maluti University (MU) data center in Building 9 to create the highly-redundant campus backbone connecting the four distribution buildings?
A. Option A -One Switch 7700 8-Slot Chassis Starter Kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Option B -One Switch 8810 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CGBIC92)
C. Option C -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)
-One Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Module (3C17508)
D. Option D -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) -Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -Two Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Modules (3C17508)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the Satellite Buildings to the data center switch?
A. One 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
B. Multiple 2-port 10 GBASE-X modules (3C17512) with 10GBASE-ER XENPAK transceivers
C. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LH SFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
D. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate this concern?
A. Use VLAN segmentation to reduce the traffic that traverses the campus backbone.
B. Distribute the 28 servers, currently located in Building 9 data center, throughout the network to reduce campus-backbone traffic.
C. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 4070 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
D. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 7700 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the wiring-closet switches in Building 9 to the data center switch?
A. The 12-or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module
B. The 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
C. The 12- or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers ( 3CSFP91)
D. The 12- or 24-port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-LHSFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
If you chose the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution center to the wiring closets on the upper floors?
A. Use the 1-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceiver to connect the switch to the wiring closets
B. Use 3Com’s eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Distributed Fabric technology to connect the switch to the wiring closets
C. Use the 10/100/1000BASE-T switch ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
D. Use 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers on the SFP gigabit ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
Which wiring closet solution would you use to connect the Maluti University (MU) desktop devices?
A. Switch 5500G-EI PWR 24/48 port model
B. Switch 5500-SI 28/52 port model
C. Switch 5500-EI 28 port FX model
D. Switch 5500-EI PWR 28/52 port model

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
DRAG DROP
Choose the 3Com switch you would use for the Maluti University (MU) server farm solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 55
Which solution would you recommend to the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) to support its wiring closet, end-user switch requirements?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 FX
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 SE with a 1000BASE-SX Module
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-T Module
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-SX Module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which two 3Com solution would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE

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