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QUESTION 86
Which four of the following questions need to be answered during the MPLS VPN troubleshooting process? (Choose four.)
A. Are the VPNv4 routes propagated to the other PE routers?
B. Are the CE routes received by the PE and inserted into the PE VRF?
C. Are the CE routes received by the PE router redistributed into the PE global BGP table?
D. Are the VPNv4 routes redistributed from MPBGP into the PE-CE routing protocol?
E. Are the VPNv4 routes inserted into the VRF on the other PE routers?
F. Are the PE routers enabled for propagating IPv4 routing updates between them?

Correct Answer: ABDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and D are the edge LSRs. If the link between Routers B and C has failed, what best represents the state of the LFIB table on Router B after convergence?

A. Label 25, Action 75, Next Hop E
B. Label 47, Action pop, Next Hop E
C. Label 75, Action 25, Next Hop E
D. Label 47, Action pop, Next Hop C

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Look at the picture.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 89
The MPLS VPN provider is using a separate Internet VPN to provide Internet access to its MPLS VPN customers. Currently, all of its customers are not able to access the Internet. The partial provider’s CE-Internet router configuration is shown below. Based on the configuration, what could be the cause of the problem? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1 ! router bgp 51001 network 0.0.0.0 neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 51002 ! PE neighbor router neighbor 10.2.2.2 prefix-list test1 out neighbor
10.3.3.3 remote-as 51001 ! Another Internet router neighbor 10.3.3.3 prefix-list test2 out ! ip prefix-list test2 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ip prefix-list test1 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 1
A. The test2 prefix-list should be applied to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor and the test1 prefix-list should be applied to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
B. Both prefix-lists should be applied in the “in” direction instead of the “out” direction.
C. The network command is missing the mask 0.0.0.0 option.
D. The network command is missing the mask 255.255.255.255 option.
E. The neighbor 10.2.2.2 activate and the neighbor 10.3.3.3 activate commands are missing.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 90
What benefit does AToM provide to the service provider’s customers?
A. By supporting Layer 2 VPNs, customers maintain control of their site-to-site routings over the WAN.
B. By supporting Layer 3 VPNs, a full mesh of virtual circuits will not be required between the different customer sites to enable optimal routing.
C. By supporting secured Layer 3 VPNs, customers do not have to deal with the complexity of configuring IPSec.
D. By supporting MPLS traffic engineering over ATM, customers can better utilize their WAN link.
E. By supporting Diff-Serv QoS, AToM allows customers to deploy voice/video applications across the WAN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
In a central services topology, which routes do client VRFs contain?
A. routes from the client site, but not from the server site
B. routes from the server site, but not from the client site
C. routes from both the client site and the server site
D. only EBGP routes from either the client site or the server site

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
For what purpose can the ip vrf sitemap route-map-name command be used?
A. applies a route map for setting the SOO
B. applies a route map for setting the Down Bit
C. applies a route map for setting the Routing Bit
D. applies a route map for setting the RD
E. applies a route map for setting the RT
F. applies a route map for setting the VRF name

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit and the following connectivity requirements. How many different VRFs are required? Sites CE1A, CE1B, CE1C, and CE1D require connectivity among them. Sites CE2A and CE2B require connectivity between them. Site CE12A requires connectivity to sites CE1A, CE1B, CE1C, CE1D, and CE12B. Site CE12B requires connectivity to sites CE2A, CE2B, and CE12A.

A. 2 VRFs
B. 3 VRFs
C. 4 VRFs
D. 6 VRFs
E. 8 VRFs
F. 10 VRFs

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which of the following could be called a VPN identifier in the MPLS/VPN architecture?
A. route target
B. route distinguisher
C. VRF
D. VPN IPv4 address
E. BGP site-of-origin (SOO) extended community attribute

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
What are three characteristics of overlay VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. Service provider infrastructure appears as point-to-point links to the customer routers.
B. Routing protocols run directly between the customer routers.
C. Implementing optimum routing between customer sites requires a partial mesh of virtual circuits.
D. Service provider PE routers use route filtering to isolate between different customers.
E. Service provider does not participate in customer routing.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Look at the picture.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 97
Using MPLS unicast IP forwarding, what will happen if an LSR receives an unlabeled incoming packet?
A. It will process switch the packet by doing a routing table lookup.
B. It will forward the packet using the LFIB.
C. It will forward the packet using the LIB.
D. It will forward the packet using the FIB.
E. It will drop the packet immediately.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Refer to the diagram. How many VRF tables are needed to support three VPNs (Customer A, Customer B, and a VoIP VPN) with the following requirements: All sites of Customer A (except from the central site) can share the same routing information. All sites of Customer B (except from the central site) can share the same routing information. The two POP VoIP gateway sites can share the same routing information. Central A site can connect to all of Customer A sites and the VoIP sites. Central B site can connect to all of Customer B sites and the VoIP sites. Sites A-1 and A-2 can not connect to Sites B-1 and B-2. Central B site can not connect to Sites A-1 and A-2. Central A site can not connect to Sites B-1 and B-2. Sites B-1 and B-2 can not connect to Sites A-1 and A-2

A. 1 VRF
B. 3 VRFs
C. 4 VRFs
D. 5 VRFs
E. 7 VRFs

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the configuration shown in the graphic. Router R1 is supposed to selectively attach an additional RT of 115:301 to all export routes matched by access-list 10. The configuration is currently not working as intended. Which two items are wrong with the configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The route-map is missing the route-map RTMAP permit 20 statement.
B. The vrf configuration is missing the export map RTMAP command.
C. The vrf configuration is missing the route-target export 115:301 command.
D. The rd 115:300 command is not correct.
E. The set extcommunity rt 115:301 command is not correct.
F. The route-target both 115:300 command is not correct.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the graphic. CE-2 is using a dedicated sub-interface implementation for Internet access. In this case, PE-2 will need to establish VPNv4 BGP neighbor relationships with which other router(s)?

A. PE-1 only
B. PE-IG only
C. PE-1 and PE-IG
D. PE-1 and CE-2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
What are two concerns when implementing CEF switching? (Choose two.)
A. increased CPU utilization from maintaining the FIB table
B. increased memory requirement
C. the requirement to disable other IOS features such as NBAR and MQC
D. increased memory requirement on the VIP when implementing DCEF
E. configuration complexity
F. troubleshooting complexity because of the many tables that CEF maintains

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Within an MPLS domain, which of the following has the most impact on network convergence time?
A. the LDP convergence time
B. the IGP convergence time
C. the IGP to MPLS redistribution process
D. the time required to rebuild the LIB table
E. the time required to cache the routing table entries into the FIB table

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 157
How are routing protocol context implemented in OSPF?
A. Each routing context is implemented by redistributing into MBGP.
B. Each routing context is implemented by assigning it to an interface.
C. Each routing context is implemented as a separate routing process.
D. Each routing context is implemented as a separate isolated instance of the same routing protocol.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the “Implementing Cisco MPLS” Student Guide (Text Part Number:
97-1154-01) Volume 2, version 1.0, page 8-6.
-Routing context=routing protocol run in one vrf
-Routing contexts were introduced in Cisco IOS software to support the need for separate isolated copies
of VPN routing protocols. They can be implemented as separate routing processes (OSPF), similar to
traditional Cisco IOS software implementation, or as separate isolated instances of the same routing
protocol (EBGP, RIPv2).
This is the same issue as the question 201.

QUESTION 158
The VPN named my_vpn is operating on interface s0/0 of a PE-router. The CE-PE routing protocol is
OSPF.
The MPLS backbone IPG is OSPF.
Which statement is true about the interaction between the customer’s OSPF routes and the backbone’s

OSPF routes?
A. On the PE-router, two instances of OSPF are run: one for the VPN and one for the backbone IGP.
B. On the PE-router, three instances if OSPF are run: one for the VPN, one for the backbone IGP, and one to carry the PE-PRE routes.
C. This configuration is acceptable for MPLS implementations. However, when MPLS VPNs are implemented, OSPF cannot be used as the CE-PE routing protocol and the backbone IGP.
D. On the PE-router, a single instance of OSPF is run. However, the customer’s routes are kept separate for the backbone route because the RD is prepares to the customer’s routes.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is important to note that the MPLS/VPN backbone is not a real OSPF area 0 backbone. No adjacencies are formed between PE routers – only between PE and CE routers. MP-iBGP is used between PE routers, and all OSPF routes are translated into VPN-IPv4 routes. This means that the redistribution of routes into BGP does not cause these routes to become external OSPF routes when advertised to other member sites of the same VPN. Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (Ciscopress) page 235
QUESTION 159
Exhibit:

Which statement is true about route summarization for routes announced to the backbone by Area 1?
A. By default, routes will not be summarized.
B. By default, routes will be summarized on the network boundaries.
C. By default, routes will be summarized to Area 3 (NSSA) but not to Area 2.
D. By default, routes will be summarized based upon the summarization schedule configured in the CE-router.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Summarizing is the consolidation of multiple routes into one single advertisement. This is normally done at the boundaries of Area Border Routers (ABRs). Although summarization could be configured between any two areas, it is better to summarize in the direction of the backbone. This way the backbone receives all the aggregate addresses and in turn will injects them, already summarized, into other areas. There are two types of summarization:
1. Inter-area route summarization
1. External route summarization Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/104/3.html#12.0
QUESTION 160
What is the influence of the Down bit on the OSPF route section process?
A. OSPF routes with the Down bit set are never entered in the M-BGP routing table.
B. OSPF routes with the Down but set are never entered in the backbone’s IGP routing table.
C. OSPF routes with the Down bit set are passed up the hierarchical model. They are blocked from being passed down the hierarchical model.
D. OSPF routes with the Down bit set are marked as unavailable. After the third consecutive update with the Down bit set, they are removed from the routing table.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Customer routes are NEVER entered into the core IGP in an MPLS environment. The down bit does not change this fact. What is does do instead is that it prevent routes redistributes from m-bgp to OSPF from being redistributed back into M-bgp. This makes A the correct answer
QUESTION 161
Exhibit:

What is the interaction between a super-backbone and Area 3?
A. The super-backbone appears as a NSSA to the non-backbone OSPF routers of Area 3.
B. The super-backbone appears as BGP domain to the non-backbone OSPF routers of Area 3.
C. The super-backbone appears as another OSPF area to the non-backbone OSPF routers of Area 3.
D. The super-backbone appears as Area 0 (backbone area) to the non-backbone OSPF routers of Area 3.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Traditionally, an elaborate OSPF network consists of a backbone area (area 0) and a number of areas connected to this backbone via an area border router (ABR). By using an MPLS backbone for VPN with OSPF on the customer’s site, you can introduce a third level in the hierarchy of the OSPF model. This third level is called the MPLS VPN super backbone. In simple cases, the MPLS VPN super backbone is combined with the traditional area 0 backbone. This means that there is no area 0 backbone on the customer network, since the MPLS VPN super backbone plays the same role as the area 0 backbone. This is shown in the diagram below: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/121/mpls_ospf2.html
QUESTION 162
How are OSPF route attributes propagates across the MPLS VPN backbone? (Choose two)
A. OSPF priority is propagated in the Experimental Bits.
B. OSPF cost or external metric is propagated in the BGP MED attribute.
C. Metrics for external OSPF router is propagated in the Hop Count field.
D. OSPF area, route type, and metric type are propagated in an extended BGP community.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
MP-BGP attaches two new extended community attributes to the routes redistributed from OSPF:

*
OSPF domain identifier extended community attribute

*
OSPF route type extended community attribute MP-BGP uses these attributes and the MED to preserve OSPF routing information across the BGP/MPLS VPN backbone. Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (Ciscopress) page 235
QUESTION 163
Which of the following best describes the function of the OSPF tag field?
A. prevents cross-domain routing loops for external LSAs.
B. prevents cross-domain routing loops for internal LSAs.
C. prevents intra-domain routing loops for external LSAs.
D. prevents intra-domain routing loops for internal LSAs.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Using OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, when and which router will set the down bit?
A. The PE router will set the down bit when redistributing routes from MP-BGP into OSPF.
B. The PE router will set the down bit when redistributing routes from OSPF into MP-BGP.
C. The CE router will set the down bit when propagating the OSPF route to the PE router.
D. The PE router will set the down bit when propagating the OSPF route to the CE router.
E. The P router will set the down bit when propagating the route to another P router.
F. The PE router will set the down bit when propagating the route to another PE router over MP-BGP.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
An OSPF LSA type 5 route is redistributed into MP-BGP. That same route is then redistributed back from MP-BGP into OSPF on another PE router. In this case, that OSPF route will appear as what LSA type on the destination CE router?
A. LSA type 1
B. LSA type 2
C. LSA type 3
D. LSA type 4
E. LSA type 5
F. LSA type 7

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
The VPN named my_vpn is operating on interface s0/0 of a PE-router. The CE-PE routing protocol is
OSPF.
Why is the OSPF super-backbone needed in MPLS VPN environments?

A. To ensure that the customer’s OSPF traffic has priority over the backbone OSPF routing updates.
B. To ensure that the backbone internal OSPF routes are not inserted as external OSPF routes into the customer’s VPN.
C. To ensure that the customer’s internal OSPF routes on one site are not inserted as external OSPF routes into other sites on the same VPN.
D. To ensure that the customer’s internal OSPF routes are not inserted as external OSPF routes into the provider backbone as internal OSPF routes.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
In Cisco IOS release 12.1, how many VPN OSPF process can run simultaneously in an MPLS VPN PE-router?
A. 1.
B. 28
C. 255
D. The number of active processes is controlled by the memory available.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which three statements about the traditional OSPF routing model are true? (Choose three)
A. Networks running OSPF can be divided into areas.
B. OSPF was designed to support hierarchical networks.
C. A single area is a physical site or logical division of that site.
D. All areas must be physically connected to the backbone area (Area 0)
E. OSPF implementations consisting of multiple areas must be interconnected by a backbone area.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not C: The area in traditional OSPF is a logical union of routers Not D: It is highly recommended that all
areas are connected to the backbone are, but it is not obligatory. Using virtual link the area can be just
logically be connected to the area 0.

QUESTION 169
BGP address families are used to configure which three route exchange mechanisms? (Choose three)
A. Propagating Internet routes.
B. VPNv4 routes that are propagated across an MPLS/VPN backbone.
C. P-router to P-router routes that are propagated across an MPLS/VPN backbone.
D. PE-CE routing protocol to exchange VPN routes between provider edge routers and customer edge routers.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the “Implementing Cisco MPLS” Student Guide (Text Part Number:
97-1154-01) Volume 2, version 1.0, page 8-31.
BGP address families: The BGP process in a MPLS VPN-enabled router performs 3 separate tasks:

-Global BGP routes(internet routing) are exchanged as in traditional BGP setup.
-VPNv4 prefixes are exchanged through MP-BGP.
-VPN routes are exchanged with CE routers through per-VRF EBGP sessions. Address families (routing contexts) are used to configure these three tasks in the same BGP process(because only one BGP process can be configured per router), and the routing contexts (called address families from the router configuration perspective) are used to configure all three independent route exchange mechanisms.
QUESTION 170
The VPN named my_vpn is operating on interface s0/0 of a PE-router. The CE-PE routing protocol is RIP.
The MPLS backbone IGP is OSPF. However, when you review the configuration for the PE-router, you find
that BGP has been configured.
What explains this configuration?

A. VPN routes are always imported and exported using MP-BGP.
B. This router is configured improperly. BGP is not needed in this configuration.
C. This router is configured improperly. E-BGP is the required routing protocol between PE and CE-routers.
D. BGP should be configured on all routers supporting MPLS to ensure backward-compatibility reasons for earlier version of IOS.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: BGP distributes reachability information for VPN-IPv4 prefixes for each VPN. BGP communication takes place at two levels: within IP domains, known as an autonomous systems (interior BGP or IBGP) and between autonomous systems (external BGP or EBGP). PE-PE or PE-RR (route reflector) sessions are IBGP sessions, and PE-CE sessions are EBGP sessions Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1830/ products_feature_guide09186a00800e977b.html#11
QUESTION 171
Which two attributes in BGP are used to help with implementation of the OSPF super-backbone? (Choose two)
A. MED
B. weight
C. AS path
D. site of origin
E. extended community

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: According to the MPLS Student guide Version 2.1 Page 5-94, the OSPF cost is carried in the MED
attribute.
Not D: Although Site of Origin is used to prevent loop in BGP, in this question, it is asked which two BGP
attributes help the OSPF Super Backbone implementation.

QUESTION 172
Which statement is true about the use of EBGP as the CE-PE routing protocol in MPLS VPN implementations?
A. The CE router must be the BGP next hop.
B. The egress P router must be the BGP next hop.
C. ebgp-multihop must be configured on the MP-BGP sessions between the PE routers.
D. next-hop-self must be configured on the MP-IGBP sessions between the PE routers.
E. The BGP next hops announced using the core IGP can be summarized to reduce the size of the core routing table.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173

In the diagram, Internet access is through a dedicated subinterface implementation. What indicates that all of the routes to PE-2 must establish a global BGP neighbor relationship?
A. CE-1
B. PE-1
C. PE-IG
D. CE-2 and PE-IG
E. CE-1 and PE-2
F. PE-1 and PE-2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The question isn’t regarding internet traffic but instead traffic inside the Vrf A.
QUESTION 174
Between which types of routers are VPNv4 BGP routes propagated?
A. CE and PE
B. PE and P
C. CE and P
D. P and P
E. PE and PE
F. CE and CE

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 175
How is route target (RT) information attached to a VPNv4 route?
A. Using the MPLS Label field.
B. Using the MPLS EXP bits.
C. Using route tags.
D. Using Extended BGP communities.
E. Using the Route Distinguisher (RD) field.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
How can you configure a router that carries both Internet and VPNv4 routes so that it will only propagate the VPNv4 routes and not the Internet routes to the 10.1.1.1 BGP neighbor?
A. router bgp 65010 nobgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor10.1.1.1 remote-as 65010 address-familyvpnv4 neighbor10.1.1.1 activate ! output omitted
B. router bgp 65010 nobgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor10.1.1.1 remote-as 65010 neighbor10.1.1.1 activate address-familyvpnv4 neighbor10.1.1.1 activate ! output omitted
C. router bgp 65010 neighbor10.1.1.1 remote-as 65010 address-familyvpnv4 neighbor10.1.1.1 activate ! output omitted
D. router bgp 65010 address-familyvpnv4 neighbor10.1.1.1 activate ! output omitted

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177

In the diagram, the Internet is accessed through a dedicated Internet VPN. With which router or routers must PE-2 establish an address-family IPv4 BGP neighbor relationship?
A. CE-2
B. PE-1
C. PE-IG
D. PE-1 and PE-IG
E. CE-1, PE-1 and PE-IG
F. CE-1, CE-2, PE-1 and PE-IG

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which three statements are true about route reflectors? (Choose three.)
A. If the route is learned from an EBGP peer by the route reflector, it is reflected to all IBGP and EBGP peers.
B. If the route is learned from a non-client IBGP peer by the route reflector, it is reflected to all EBGP peers only.
C. If the route is learned from a non-client IBGP peer by the route reflector, it is reflected to EBGP peers and clients only.
D. If the route is learned from a client IBGP peer by the route reflector, it is reflected to all clients only, except the originating client.
E. If the route is learned from a client IBGP peer by the route reflector, it is reflected to all EBGP peers, non-clients, and clients (except the originating client).
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Network Topology Exhibit

AS-Path prepending is used AS1 in order to influence the return traffic path from AS 5 to AS 1 through the higher speed via AS 2. ____________ needs to be configured for AS-Path prepending and a minimum of _____________ of the AS number should be prepended.
A. Certkiller1; one copy
B. Certkiller2; one copy
C. Certkiller1; two copies
D. Certkiller2; two copies
E. Certkiller2; three copies

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
In a multihomed environment with two ISP connections, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The customer should not be configured to act as a transit AS between the two ISPs.
B. It is recommend that the multi-homed customer use a registered (public) AS number.
C. AS-Path prepending can be configured on the customer’s edge router to influence the BGP path selection process for the outbound traffic (traffic from the customer to the ISPs).
D. The customer can use Local Proference on the customer’s edge routers to influence the BGP path selection process for the inbound traffic (traffic from the ISPs to the customer).
E. The advertisement of the customer’s IP address space be condiditoned by the customer’s edge routers by using a static route to the null0 interface and by using the proper network statement under router bgp.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 181
What is the range of values from which an ISP can assign a private AS number?
A. 32768 to 65535
B. 64512 to 65535
C. 65101 to 65535
D. 65001 to 65535

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
In a Transit AS, how do the internal routers within the Transit AS forward packets destined for the external networks using a scalable solution?
A. Using the default route.
B. Using the IGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IGP by the edge routers.
C. Using the EBGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IBGP by the edge routers.
D. Using the IBGP routes, then using recursive lookup based on IGP information to resolve the BGP next-hop.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
What is the main reason for a multihomed customer to apply an outbound route filter to filter the BGP updates from the customer router to the service provider router?
A. To ensure that the return traffic into the customer network will be load balanced between the different service providers.
B. To ensure that the outbound traffic from the customer network will be load balanced between the different service providers.
C. To prevent the customer network from becoming a transit AS.
D. To allow the customer network to become a transit AS.
E. To reduce the size of the BGP table on the customer network internal (core) routers.
F. To reduce the size of the BGP table on the service provider internal (core) routers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which two statements regarding route reflectors are true? (Choose two)
A. A non-route reflector capable router cannot be a client.
B. A hierarchical route reflector design is where a route reflector client is not directly connected to the route reflector.
C. If a client has IBGP sessions to other clients in the same cluster, those clients will receive unnecessary duplicated BGP updates.
D. If a client in one cluster has an IBGP session to a route reflector that belongs to different clusters, the clients in the other cluster will receive unnecessary duplicated BGP updates.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Exhibit:

Given the information shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. BGP is used to propagate routes between sites.
B. OSPF is used to propagate routes between sites.
C. Isolated copies of the customer’s IGP run at every site.
D. Redistribution between customer IGP and the backbone OSPF is performed at every PE-router.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Which command enables extended community propagation for VPNv4 MP-BGP sessions?
A. router (config-router) # ip vpnv4 send-commuinity both
B. router (config-router-af) # ip vpnv4 send-community both
C. router (config-router-af) # neighbor 172.16.1.2 send-community both
D. router (config-router) # vpnv4 neighbor 172.16.1.2 send-community both

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which command series can be used to troubleshoot TDP session establishment? A The debut tag-switching tdp session.
A. The debug tag-switching tcp session.
B. The debug tag-switching q931 session.
C. The debug tag-switching neighbor session.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
How do you test end-to-end data flow between PE-routers?
A. Use the ping vrf command from the local PE-router to ping the remote PE router’s loopback address.
B. Use the telnet command from the local PE-router to access the remoter PE-router’s loopback address.
C. Use the traceroute command from the local PE-router to the remoter PE-router’s loopback address.
D. Because PE-PE traffic is done via label switching over an LSP, end-to-end data flow cannot be tested. You must test from CE to CE-router.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not A: You cannot issue “ping vrf” to a loopback, when other end’s loopback is not part of VPN.

QUESTION 189
What is the difference between a managed CE router VPN and a central services VPN?
A. In a managed CE router VPN, only customer loopback addresses are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.
B. In a managed CE router VPN, only default customer routes are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.
C. In a managed CE router VPN, all customer routes are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.
D. In a managed CE router VPN, only customer loopback addresses and default customer routes are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Which one of the following is used to prevent routing loops in MPLS VNP networks with multihomed sites?
A.RT
B. SOO
C. RD
D. AS-Path
E. MPLS Label
F. MED

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
Exhibit

Study the exhibit. Based on the show command output, which four statements are correct? Select four.
A. Certkiller 7 will announce a label of 20 to its LDP neighbors for prefix 150.1.0.0/16.
B. To reach prefix 150.1.11.32/28 via 192.168.1.17, Certkiller 7 will pop the label.
C. To reach prefix 192.168.1.17/32 via 192.168.1.97, Certkiller 7 will use a label of 19.
D. To reach prefix 150.1.0.0/16 via 192.168.1.97, Certkiller 7 will use a label of 20.
E. Certkiller 7 will announce an implicit null label to its LDP neighbors for prefix 192.168.1.17/32.
F. To reach prefix 192.168.1.17/32 via 192.168.1.17, Certkiller 7 will use a label of 19.

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Exhibit Study the exhibit. Certkiller 1 is supposed to participate in a central service MPLS VPN. What import and export RTs are required in the Certkiller 1 VRF?

A. route-target both 123:101 route-target export 123:303 route-target import 123:203
B. route-target both 123:101 route-target export 123:203 route-target import 123:303
C. route-target both 123:101 route-target both 123:103
D. route-target both 123:203 route-target both 123:303
E. route-target both 123:103 route-target export 123:303 route-target import 123:203
F. route-target both 123:103 route-target export 123:203 route-target import 123:303

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
You need selective VRF export so only a subset of the routes ______.
A. From a neighbor PE-router is exported to the CE-router.
B. From a neighbor PE-router is exported to the VRF on the local PE.
C. Exported from a neighbor CE-router is entered into the VRF on the local PE.
D. Exported from a VRF is one PE-router is imported into a VRF in another PE-router.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 194
How does the export route map affect the VRF export process?
A. A route map can be specified for each VRF to filter routers exported from a CE-router to a PE-router.
B. A route map can be specified for each VRF to filter routes exported from one PE-router to another PE-router.
C. A route map can be specified for each VRF to attach additional route targets to routes exported from a PE-router to a CE-router.
D. A route map can be specified for each VRF to attach additional route targets to routes exported from one PE-router to another PE-router.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
How does the import route map affect the VRF import process?
A. The import route map overrides the route target import filter.
B. A route must pass either the route target import filter or the import route map to be imported.
C. The import route map overrides the route target import filter and controls the import of routes.
D. A route has to pass the route target import filter first and then the import route map to be imported.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A route has to pass the route target import filter first and then….
Due to MPLS Student Guide Version 2.1 Page 6-5

QUESTION 196
What is the correct configuration to limit the route export to only the loopback address of 10.1.1.1?
A. ip vft VPN_A !output omitted export map NMS ! route-map NMS match ip address 1 set extcommunity rt 123:100 additive ! access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1 0.0.0
B. ip vft VPN_A !output omitted export map NMS ! route-map NMS match ip address 1 set extcommunity rt 123:100 no-export ! access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1 0.0.0 access-list 1 permit any
C. ip vft VPN_A !output omitted export map NMS !
route-map NMS
match ip address 1
set community rt 123:100 additive
!
access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1 0.0.0
D. ip vft VPN_A !output omitted export map NMS ! route-map NMS match ip address 1 set community rt 123:100 no-export ! access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1 0.0.0 access-list 1 permit any

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Which statement about an overlapping VPN is true?
A. A site participates in more than one VPN.
B. A site has a link to both the intranet and the Internet.
C. The VPN contains both private and public address spaces.
D. The VPN contains two or more overlapping address spaces.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To support connectivity requirements, the MPLS/VPN architecture supports the concepts of sites, where a VPN is made up of one or multiple sites. A VPN is essentially a collection of sites sharing common routing information, which means that a site may belong to more than one VPN if it holds routes from separate VPNs. Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (Ciscopress) page 169
QUESTION 198
How would you implement an overlapping VPN when the sites contained in the overlapping portion of the two simple VPNs contain an overlapping address space?
A. Combine the overlapping VPN with a central service VPN.
B. Implement a NAT service to provide unidirectional address translation.
C. Implement a dual NAT service with a registered address to be implemented and exported between the two central sites.
D. Disable routing updates between the overlapping spaces and use a DNS implementation.
E. Disable routing updates between the overlapping spaces and use static routing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 199
What is the most typical use of an overlapping VPN?
A. Service providers supporting managed CE services.
B. Service providers supporting carrier-over-carrier MPLS implementations.
C. Simple intranet VPN implementations.
D. Companies that use MPLS VPNs to implement both intranet and extranet services.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: There are two typical uses for overlapping VPNs: 1) Companies that use MPLS VPNs to implement both intranet and extranet services might use overlapping VPNs. In this scenario, each company participating in the extranet VPN would probably deploy a security mechanism on its customer edge (CE) routers to prevent other companies participating in the VPN from gaining access to other sites in other customer VPN 2) A security-conscious company might decide to limit visibility between different departments in the organization. Overlapping VPNs might be used as a solution in this case Reference: Cisco Press – Implementing Cisco MPLS study guide p.6-20
QUESTION 200
Which statement is true about overlapping VPNs?
A. Sites that participate in more than one VPN import routes with RTs from any VPN in which they participate and export routes with RTs for all VPNs in which they participate.
B. Sites that participate in more than one VPN import routes with RTs for all VPNs in which they participate and export routes with RTs for none of the VPNs in which they participate.
C. Sites that participate in more than one VPN only import routes with RTs for all VPNs in which they participate.
D. None of the above statements are correct regarding overlapping VPNs.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sites that participate in more than one VPN import routes with RTs from any VPN in which they participate
in more than one VPN import routes with RTs from any VPN in which they participate and export routes
with RTs fro all VPNs in which they participate.

QUESTION 201
How would you implement an overlapping VPN when the sites contained in the overlapping portion of two simple VPNs contain an overlapping address space?
A. Combine the overlapping VPN with a central service VPN.
B. Implement a NAT service to provide unidirectional address translation.
C. Implement a dual NAT service with a registered address to be imported and exported between the two central sites.
D. Disable routing updates between the overlapping spaces and use a DNS implementation.
E. Disable routing updates between the overlapping spaces and use static routing
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 202
What is the most typical use of an overlapping VPN?
A. Service providers supporting managed CE Services
B. Service providers supporting carrier-over-carrier MPLS implementions
C. Simple intranet VPN implementations
D. Companies that use MPLS VPNs to implement both intranet and extranet services

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: There are two typical uses for overlapping VPNs: 3) Companies that use MPLS VPNs to implement both intranet and extranet services might use overlapping VPNs. In this scenario, each company participating in the extranet VPN would probably deploy a security mechanism on its customer edge (CE) routers to prevent other companies participating in the VPN from gaining access to other sites in other customer VPN 4) A security-conscious company might decide to limit visibility between different departments in the organization. Overlapping VPNs might be used as a solution in this case Reference: Cisco Press – Implementing Cisco MPLS study guide p.6-20
QUESTION 203
Which MPLS VPN implementation allows selected sites in one simple VPN to communicate with selected sites of a second VPN?
A. central services VPN
B. managed CE router services VPN
C. overlapping VPN
D. managed PE router services VPN

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204

In reference to the diagram depicting the flow of routing updates in an overlapping VPN, which statement is true?
A. Sites A1 and A2 will import all networks with RTs 123:750 and 123:1000.
B. Sites B1 and B2 will export all networks with RTs 123:760 and 123:1000.
C. Sites A1 and A2 communicate with Sites B1 and B2 via A-Central and B-Central.
D. Site A-Central exports RTs 123:750 and 123:1000.
E. Site B-Central is exporting and importing RT 123:1000 so it can communicate with sites A1 and A2.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
What is the impact of complex VPN topologies such as Central Services VPN on the VRF tables in the PE-routers?
A. Complex VPN topologies might require more than one VRF per VPN.
B. Complex VPN topologies might require more that one VRF per interface.
C. Complex VPN topologies might require the use of multiple routing protocols to separate VPN address spaces.
D. Complex VPN topologies might require the use of the public address space to ensure there is no overlap in the address spaces.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not D: D is incorrect. In the same VPN, no matter complex or not, there should not be overlapping
address. Does public address solve this problem?Probably, but you need to plan in advance (buy these
addresses then use them), the same can be achieved with private addresses if you DO plan in advance.

QUESTION 206
What is the difference between a managed CE router VPN and a central services VPN?
A. In a managed CE router VPN, only customer loopback addresses are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.
B. In a managed CE router VPN, only default customer routes are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.
C. In a managed CE router, VPN, all customer routes are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.
D. In a managed CE router, only customer loopback address and default customer routes are marked to be imported into the network management VPN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Which two factors should be considered when calculating the cost of downtime?
(Choose two.)

A. Number of compromised Servers
B. Server downtime (in Hours)
C. Time (in hours ) to rebuild servers
D. Average Revenue per hour
Answer: B,D
QUESTION 2 Once you have concluded the discovery process, you will set up a meeting with the final decision maker and present the value proposition,. Which two items would you include in your value proposition? (Choose Two.)
A. Qualitative information about how Cisco can help to increase revenue and reduce costs
B. A high-level review of the Cisco Security portfolio and how it differs from competitive offerings
C. A detailed review of the proposed technological enhancements that are provided in the security solution design
D. An analysis of the security-market business trends and related Cisco Solution offerings
E. A review of customer security pain points and business needs that you learned about during the discovery process
Answer: A,E
QUESTION 3 In which two ways does a Cisco solution directly reduce the cost of operation?( Choose two.)
A. By Minimizing the number of vendors that supply security
B. By reducing overall management complexity
C. by improving competitive advantage
D. By avoiding information theft
E. By addressing security pain points
Answer: A,B
QUESTION 4 Which government regulation opens up an opportunity to sell a Cisco Security Solution to companies that collect financial information?
A. AS/NZS 4360
B. BS 7799/ISO 17799
C. SOX
D. GLB Act
E. HIPAA
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 When building a security policy for an organization, which of these steps should you take first?
A. Risk Management
B. Risk Assessment
C. Threat Avoidance
D. End-user Training
E. Threat Identification
Answer: E
QUESTION 6 You are meeting with a customer who is concerned about remote employees connecting to the network with infected systems and spreading infection across the corporate network. How should you position the Cisco SDN with this computer?
A. The Cisco Self-defending Network Includes NAC, which evaluates devices that may not have the latest antivirus software or operating system patch and either denies access to those devices or quarantines them
B. The Cisco Self-defending Network Includes integration, which enables a more proactive response to threats with grater operational efficiency through the consolidation of multiple security services on the devices
C. The Cisco Self-Defending Network is adaptive, distributing security technologies throughout every segment of the network to enable every network element as a point of defense
D. The Cisco Self-Defending Network provides technologies that have intelligent insight into what is running on computers, so there is no possible way for remote employees to connect to the network with infected systems
Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What are three benefits of the Cisco SDN that will be recognized by business decision makers? (Choose three.)
A. Lowers TCO by using the existing infrastructure
B. Helps to meet regulatory requirements
C. Protects against insecure or contaminated devices
D. Helps to manage IT and operational risk
E. Effectively enforces security and confidential policies company-wide
F. Provides network availability and reliability
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 8
You are meeting with an enterprise customer that has a multivendor network.
Which Cisco Security product should you position with this customer?

A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution Basic
B. Cisco Security MARS
C. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager
D. Cisco PIX Device Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION 9 In which two ways does application security protect against threats being introduced from within web-enabled applications (Choose two.)
A. Application Security examines message-level information to ascertain the “intent” of the applications
B. Application security provides controls that limit the transmission of confidential data or policies
C. Application Security Intelligently Analyzes network payload
D. Application security stops attacks as far as possible from their intended destination and the core of the network
Answer: A,C
QUESTION 10
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?

A. through better security management products
B. Through dedicated security appliances
C. By using the existing infrastructure
D. By reducing the number of people to train
Answer: C
QUESTION 11 How does the Cisco Security Agent work in conjunction with third-part antivirus software?
A. Cisco Security Agent checks the status of third-party antivirus software and makes a decision about compliance
B. Cisco Security Agent Checks the status of third-party antivirus software and forward it to the third-party antivirus policy server
C. Cisco Security Agent checks the status of third-part antivirus software and forwards it to the policy server (ACS)
D. Cisco Security Agent enhances the security by sandboxing the applications and the system in addition to the antivirus protection offered by the antivirus software
Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which government regulation specifies which patient information must be kept private, how companies must secure the information and the standards for electronic communication between medical providers and insurance companies?
A. Basel II
B. GLB Act

C. HIPAA
D. USA PATRIOT Act
Answer: C
QUESTION 13 The Cisco SDN is a strategy to protect the business processes and the network of an organization by identifying, preventing and adapting to security threats. What are three principal characteristics of the SDN? (Choose three.)
A. Application Security
B. Adaptation
C. Intelligence
D. Collaboration
E. Protection
F. Integration
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION 14
.com suffered from a critical security breach and experienced considerable downtime. They decided to reassess the security policy and rebuild the network infrastructure. Which three business problems does the self-defending Network Initiative address? (Choose three.)
A. Asset Exposure
B. Legal liability
C. Suboptimal Product positioning
D. Damage to customer confidence
E. Inadequate time-to-market
F. Lack of robustness
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 15 Your Customer wants to ensure business continuity by allowing legitimate transactions to the website while redirecting illegitimate transactions. Which Cisco SDN solution offering would satisfy this requirement?
A. Cisco NAC framework
B. Cisco Secure ACS
C. Cisco Guard DDOS Mitigation Appliances
D. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three technologies allow the Cisco SDN to adapt to new threats as they arise?
(Choose three.)

A. Antivirus
B. Application awareness
C. Behavior Recognition
D. Firewalling
E. Network Control
F. VPN
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION 17 You are meeting with a financial customer who is concerned about Internet worms, viruses and other threats. A worm or virus would cost millions of dollors in lost productivity and malware or spyware could result in information theft. How should you position Anti-X defenses with this customer?
A. Anti-X defenses intelligently analyze network payload so that application security tools can control port 80 misuse by rogue applications
B. Anit-X defense provide broad attack-mitifation capabilities and distribute defenses throughout the network, including to critical system endpoints
C. Anti-X defense enable proactive response to threats by aggregating and correlating security information
D. Anti-X defenses render malware and spyware harmless by managing patches more proactively Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Which security Management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco Network Assistant
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Security MARS
E. Cisco Security Agent
F. Cisco Trust Agent
Answer: D
QUESTION 19 Which government regulation was implemented to promote world financial stability by coordinating definitions of capital and risk management across countries?
A. BS 7799/IOS 17799
B. SOX
C. HIPPA
D. Basel II
E. USA PATRIOT Act
Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A Cisco Outbreak Prevention Solution provides customers with many benefits. Within this solution, which type of Cisco network security offering acts as the first line of defense to proactively isolate infections by preventing worms or viruses from infiltrating endpoints?
A. NIPS

B. HIPS
C. Cisco IOS infrastructure security
D. Cisco Antivirus Software
Answer: B
QUESTION 21 Which three of these are key elements of the Adaptive Threat Defense? (Choose three.)
A. Multilayer intelligence
B. A blend of IP and security technologies
C. Active Management and mitigation
D. Dynamic adjustment of risk ratings
E. Feature consistency
F. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION 22 Which two threat-defense features allow a network to correlate events, mitigate events and audit policies? (Choose two.)
A. Proactive threat response
B. Control of data transmission
C. Application Security
D. Network Containment and Control
E. Anti-X denfeses
Answer: A,D
QUESTION 23 Which business enables provides a defense against damages and losses (Such as financial, legal, commercial, image, branding, property and people), which directly affect the ability of .com to do business?
A. Government Regulations
B. Protection
C. Ubiquitous access
D. Contribution to profitability
Answer: B
QUESTION 24 In terms of the network life-cycle, what should you consider when evaluating the TCO of a security solution?
A. Planning and design phase
B. Implementation and operation phases
C. The Entire network life-cycle
D. Operation Phase
E. Planning Phase
Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which statement best describes the functionality of the Cisco Security Agent?

A. It enforces authorization policies and privileges
B. It isolates noncompliant machines
C. It prevents malicious behavior before damage can occur
D. It performs vulnerability testing and threat remediation
Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which feature of Cisco Security MARS uses NetFlow Data?

A. Hostpot identification
B. Anomaly detection
C. Automated mitigation capabilities
D. Context Correlation
Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three elements should an enterprise security policy specify? (Choose three.)

A. Risk and how to manage the risks
B. Network Inventory
C. User roles and responsibilities
D. Software versions of the security products
E. Contingency plan in case of compromise
F. Funds allocated to security projects
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION 28
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?

A. Some security decision are usually in their hands
B. They should understand the probability of every risk
C. They need to be aware of every threat
D. They should avoid responsibility for their actions
Answer: A
QUESTION 29 Which principal Characteristic of the Cisco SDN incorporates technologies that re inherent in the secure operation of network devices, including control plane policing and CPU/Memory thresholding?

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QUESTION 52
While troubleshooting a printing issue you notice that the print queues have jobs that are stuck and cannot be deleted. What built in feature would allow you to clear all print queues and start over?
A. Queue Utility
B. Options & Supplies
C. Reset Printing System
D. Print Sharing Preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
What built-in Mac OS X utility can be used to determine if a Mac’s wireless chipset supports Wake on Demand?
A. Network Utility
B. System Profiler
C. Airport Admin Utility
D. Network System Preferences

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Which built-in application can be used for troubleshooting connectivity with a digital SLR camera?
A. iMovie
B. Console
C. Photo Booth
D. Image Capture

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
Similar to the iPhone support for Exchange email, you can configure only one Exchange account in Snow Leopard Mail.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 56
Manually configuring Mail to use Exchange email is very similar to configuring a(n) ________ account.
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. NNPP
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
To configure iCal in Snow Leopard to connect to a Microsoft Exchange server with auto-discovery, the user needs a valid ________ and ________.
A. calendar url / password
B. server path / port setting
C. email address / password
D. admin username / password

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
If a user would like Address Book to sync with a valid Google or Yahoo account, what information will the user need? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. password
B. email address
C. server port settings
D. LDAP server address
E. CalDav server address

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 59
Which of the following is an available option in the Three Finger section of the Trackpad Preference pane in Snow Leopard?
A. Scroll
B. Dragging
C. Swipe to Navigate
D. Swipe Up/Down for Expos?

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
A customer notices that the battery menu bar icon on her MacBook (13-inch Early 2008) displays the alert “Service Battery.” What is the first step to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Reset the SMC .
B. Replace the battery.
C. Replace the power adapter.
D. Remove and reseat the battery.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
Your customer wants to quickly build a list of all applications and extensions installed on his Mac with Leopard before upgrading to Snow Leopard. Which of the following would be the best choice to do this?
A. Finder
B. Console
C. System Profiler
D. Directory Utility

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
You are troubleshooting an application which bounces in the dock for a few seconds, then stops without launching or displaying an error message. What built-in utility is best for displaying application and system messages that are not shown to a user?
A. Logger
B. Console
C. Terminal
D. System Profiler

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Which built-in utility can display a hard drives capacity, connection and bus type, number of files and folders, and amount of free space?
A. Finder
B. Console
C. Disk Utility
D. System Profiler

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Joe’s iMac starts, but hangs before it reaches the login screen. Unfortunately, he does not have a recent backup of his data. You would like to help Joe verify the volume, and repair it only if necessary. What is the best way to accomplish this task?
A. Hold the shift key down to Safe Boot the iMac.
B. Start up in single-user mode and run the /sbin/fsck -fy command.
C. Start the iMac from the Snow Leopard install DVD and use the Terminal.
D. Start the iMac from the Snow Leopard install DVD and use the Disk Utility.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
You would like to copy a 4 GB file from your MacBook Pro to a co-worker’s Mac Pro. Which method requires the least configuration?
A. Use target disk mode.
B. Setup Bluetooth File Exchange.
C. Use an ethernet cable and enable file sharing.
D. Create a Computer-to-Computer wireless network.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 65
A power adapter originally supplied with a MacBook Pro can charge a MacBook’s main battery while it is powered on.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following can permanently damage an LCD display?
A. Rubbing the display.
B. Using a screen saver.
C. Not using a screen saver.
D. Turning brightness up too high.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
Examine the exhibit. What is the correct name for this type of pixel anomaly?

A. Dark dot defect
B. Stuck sub-pixel
C. Bright dot defect
D. Vertical TAB fault

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Which of the following statements describes how CCFL backlighting is similar to LED backlighting when troubleshooting backlighting issues in Apple displays?
A. Both types of displays use an inverter board.
B. Both types of displays are diagnosed identically.
C. Both types of displays are powered by a low DC voltage source.
D. Both types of displays have components that are individually replaceable.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The best piece of information you can obtain to properly determine the correct AppleCare name for any Mac is ___.
A. The EMC number
B. The serial number
C. The MAC address
D. The model number

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
A customer brings a Power Mac G5 to your service center for repair. After finding the serial number, which THREE of the following sources will display the proper AppleCare name for that Power Mac G5? SELECT THREE
A. GSX
B. Console
C. Service Source
D. System Profiler
E. About This Mac
F. Apple Name Tool
G. Apple Support Page
Correct Answer: ACG
QUESTION 71
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about locating her Mac’s serial number?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service News
D. User’s manual
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about upgrading his Mac Pro’s hard drive?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service manual
D. Apple DIY website
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Deflection coil
D. Ribbon cable
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 74
Examine the exhibit. What type of AirPort Extreme (802.11n) port does the number “2” identify?

A. USB
B. Power
C. FireWire
D. Ethernet

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is NOT one of the security features available with the AirPort Extreme (802.11n) Base Station?
A. Bonjour
B. WAN Privacy
C. Closed Network
D. Password protection
E. WEP or WPA encryption
F. Timed MAC address access controls

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
A customer setting up a small business with a wireless network wants to ensure that both the PC’s running older hardware, and the Macs have secure access to the wireless network using encryption. What security feature on the AirPort Extreme (802.11n) Base Station would provide that encryption?
A. DSSS
B. WAN privacy
C. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP)
D. Access control by MAC address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which THREE of the following probing questions are most appropriate to ask the customer when troubleshooting AirPort issues? SELECT THREE
A. Are just wireless computers affected?
B. What is the computer’s processor speed?
C. Can the customer print to a networked printer?
D. Are both wired and wireless computers affected?
E. Are any hubs, routers, or other computers connected to the network?
F. What is the URL of the website the customer is attempting to access?
Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 78
If you are unable to find the password for an AirPort Extreme or Express Base Station, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
If an AirPort Extreme Base Station stopped responding, has network accessibility issues, or needs to be reverted back to default factory configuration, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
Which of the following is NOT a valid Bluetooth troubleshooting tip for Macs?
A. Check for signal interference.
B. Make sure Bluetooth is turned on.
C. Update Bluetooth software on the Mac.
D. Verify Bluetooth peripheral hardware batteries are charged.
E. Make sure the Bluetooth peripheral is at least 20 meters away from the Mac.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 81
You are attempting to power a Mac mini (original) with an 85 Watt power adapter. Will this work?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
You are attempting to power a Mac mini (Mid 2007) with an 85 Watt power adapter. Will this work?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
You are troubleshooting an iMac (Mid 2007) that does not power on. You notice that all diagnostic LEDs remain off when a known-good power cord is connected to the iMac and to a known-good power outlet. What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty logic board
C. Faulty LCD panel
D. Faulty video card
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Examine the exhibit. Which of these is a valid memory configuration for a Mac Pro?

A. Configuration A: Two DIMMs on top riser card, four DIMMs on bottom riser card.
B. Configuration B: Four DIMMs on top riser card, two DIMMs on bottom riser card.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
In order to read ANY of the diagnostic LEDs in a Mac Pro, you must press the DIAG_LED button on the logic board.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 86
What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?
A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
What is the main function of Server Monitor?
A. It provides detailed status of Xserve hardware functionality.
B. it executes a full suite of diagnostics on all internal Xserve hardware.
C. It monitors the Mac OS X Server operating system and reports on any unauthorized users.
D. It provides the video driver software to support connection of an Apple Cinema display to an Xserve running Mac OS X Server.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
The LED on a MacBook MagSafe power adapter doesn’t illuminate at all when it’s plugged into the MacBook and you know the adapter is connected to a known good power source. What is most likely the cause of this symptom?
A. The MacBook has a faulty main battery.
B. The MagSafe adapter needs to be reset first.
C. The MacBook requires an SMC firmware update.
D. A MagSafe adapter connector pin is stuck down.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
A MacBook Pro powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and restart the MacBook Pro, yet you still see no image on either display. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
To ensure proper fan and temperature control in the Power Mac G5, you must run the thermal calibration routine found on the ______ disc whenever you replace a processor or logic board with a new processor or logic board.
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Fan Control Installer
D. Mac OS X Installer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already checked user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external display to the eMac’s VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the external display. Which of the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
A customer iBook G4 forgets the time and date when the main battery is completely drained and there is no AC adapter connected for several hours. Is this behavior normal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
Which of the following PowerBook G4 models does NOT support hot-swapping the main battery?
A. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
B. PowerBook G4 (15-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
You are about to replace a MacBook Air logic board. Which of the following is the most important step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Disconnect the main battery.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the processor. Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How much power is the system currently using?
A. 663 W
B. 1150 W
C. 1850 W
D. 6000 W
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How many additional line cards of the same type that are currently in the system can you safely install and remain redundant in the worse power usage if there is a power supply failure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum long-term normal operating temperature of the Cisco CRS-1, ASR 9000 Series Routers, and XR 12000 Series Routers?
A. 40C (104F)
B. 50C (122F)
C. 55C (131F)
D. 65C (149F)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?
A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.
B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.
C. The modular services card (MSC) could not be exchanged if one failed.
D. The fan tray could not be exchanged if one failed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
How many planes are there in the Cisco CRS-3 switch fabric?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
What is the cell size of the cells that traverse the switch fabric on the Cisco CRS-3?
A. 128 bytes
B. 136 bytes
C. 144 bytes
D. 200 bytes
E. 288 bytes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Where are client interfaces terminated on the Cisco CRS-3?
A. the modular services card
B. the physical layer interface module(s)
C. the switch fabric interface terminator
D. the Service Processor 40
E. the Service Processor 140

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
In order to determine the hardware and firmware revision of a linecard, what is the correct command that should be invoked?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show version
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show platform
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show platform
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC#show diagnostic summary
E. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:CRS-MC(admin)#show diag details
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
In which mode can you check the power usage of a chassis?
A. in EXEC mode
B. in admin mode
C. in both EXEC and admin mode
D. in ROMMON mode
E. in environmental mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

If you have ROMMONs and FPDs with the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes” and you ran the upgrade hw-module fpd all location all command, what did you upgrade?
A. upgraded only the FPD for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes”
B. upgraded all of the FPDs on all cards with an FPD regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings
C. upgraded only the FPD and ROMMON for the cards that the Upg/Dng field marked “Yes”
D. upgraded all of the FPDs and ROMMONs on all cards with an FPD or ROMMON regardless of the Upg/Dng field markings
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two of the following are correct commands to activate the PIE file <hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1>? (Choose two.)
A. install add tftp://172.20.165.36/hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1 activate
B. install activate tftp://172.20.165.36/hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1
C. install add disk0:hfr-mgbl-p-4.0.1 activate
D. install activate disk0:hfr-mgbl-p.pie-4.0.1

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which command will correctly deactivate asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install remove disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (config)#install deactivate smu location disk0:
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin-config)#deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 (admin)#install deactivate disk0:asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0
E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1 #asr9k-mpls-p-4.1.0 disk0:deactivate sync
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which answer best summarizes the difference between p and px images, hfr-mini-p.vm-4.1.1 and hfr- mini-px.vm-4.1.1, respectively?
A. P images can only support legacy hardware, while px images can only support new CRS-3 hardware.
B. P images can use an SMU to operate as x86 images.
C. P images can only support Power PC hardware, while px images can support both Power PC and Intel hardware in the same chassis.
D. P and px images can both be installed on the same ROMMON version.
E. P and px images are roughly the same because they are built to operate on the same system.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which Cisco IOS XR command sequence will load a specific configuration?
A. (config)#load disk0:name.cfg
B. #copy disk0:name.cfg running-confirguration
C. #copy tftp://255.255.255.255/name.cfg
D. #load commit changes <name>
E. (config)#load commit <name>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which of the following functions can be configured in the Administration Config mode? (Choose two)
A. BGP routing
B. MPLS Traffic Engineering
C. SDR hostname
D. Secure Shell login
E. nonowner SDR

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 16
Which two of the following statements regarding task-based authorization are true? (Choose two.)
A. The user group concept in Cisco IOS XR Software relates to a group of users with common characteristics.
B. All of the user groups are precreated by default.
C. In addition to the predefined task groups, Cisco IOS XR Software provides the ability to custom create task groups consisting of individual tasks.
D. User groups and task groups cannot inherit from other user groups and task groups.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a default IPv4 route for a Cisco CRS-1 router. Which Cisco IOS XR command will accomplish this task?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15(config-static)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.52.204.161
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15(config-static-afi)#0.0.0.0/0 10.52.204.161
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15(config)#router static 0.0.0.0/32 10.52.204.161
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:R15#ip default-network 0.0.0.0 10.52.204.161 255.255.255.255
E. it is not possible to configure static routes in Cisco IOS XR Software
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the main function of LPTS?
A. filter routing updates
B. maintain the Internal Forwarding Information Base (IFIB)
C. classify transit packets
D. guarantee reliable transport service for network management requests
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Where is the LPTS policer applied?
A. egress line-card egress queue
B. egress line-card CPU
C. route processor CPU
D. distributed RP CPU
E. ingress line card
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20
Referring to the diagram and configuration on Routers XR-1 and XR-2,

which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Router XR-1 can never be a designated router or designated intermediate system.
B. The transmission of IS-IS packets will be suppressed on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/2 on Router XR-1.
C. The received IS-IS packets from Router XR-2 will be suppressed from being processed.
D. Router XR-1 and Router XR-2 will form a neighbor adjacency, and Router XR-2 will become the designated router or designated intermediate system.
E. Router XR-1 will use the incremental shortest path first algorithm when there are minimal topology changes.
F. Router XR-1 can form a neighbor adjacency over interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/2 but will not advertise 10.1.1.0/24 in its link-state packets (LSPs).

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 21
What is the correct command to copy the contents of the harddisk:/showtech folder to an FTP server?
A. copy harddisk:/showtech location 0/RSP0/CPU0 ftp:
B. copy harddisk:/showtech ftp:
C. copy /recurse harddisk:/showtech location 0/RSP0/CPU0 ftp:
D. copy /recurse harddisk:/showtech ftp:
E. copy ftp: harddisk:/showtech

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What are the two commands to show all log entries except BGP or configuration-related ones? (Choose two.)
A. show log | excl [BGP,CONFIG]
B. show log | excl BGP | excl CONFIG
C. show log | excl (BGP,CONFIG)
D. show log | excl “BGP|CONFIG”

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
Which Cisco IOS XR only command will show the status of IPv4 interfaces that have been configured under the OSPF process?
A. show ospf interface
B. show ipv4 ospf interface
C. show ip ospf interface
D. show ospf interface all
E. show ospfv3 interface
F. show ospf address-family

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which command should be used to view only the running configuration of OSPF in Cisco IOS XR Software?
A. show router ospf
B. show run router ospf
C. show configuration ospf
D. show ospf configuration | running-config
E. show ospf process

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which is-is router interface configuration command will configure the authentication password for IS- IS Hello (IIH) messages without actually sending the password with the IIH over the network?
A. hello-password text clear secretkey
B. hello-password hmac-md5 clear secretkey
C. hello-password text encrypted secretkey

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QUESTION: 1 What is one example of typical business requirements that are driving the design of installed base data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. virtualization
C. greater collaboration
D. physical space
Answer: C
QUESTION: 2 What documents are not typically an output that is deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. troubleshooting procedures
D. migration plan

Answer: C
QUESTION: 3 What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources

Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 What is a typical output of the design planning phase that characterizes an existing data center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. Layer 2 default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 6 Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B, E, G
QUESTION: 7 Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users

Answer: C, F, H
QUESTION: 8 Which protocols are Cisco recommended for connecting the main data center to a remote data center?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC

Answer: B
QUESTION: 9 When migrating an existing data center network to a unified fabric network, which transitions should you expect to see?
A. IOS to Nexus networking equipment
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Chanel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Answer: C
QUESTION: 10 Which three protocols are effective in minimizing the use of STP in the data center design? (Choose three.)
A. FCoE
B. vPC
C. vDC
D. FabricPath
E. 802.1ad
F. STP

Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 11
In a medium size Data Center, which three routing protocols would you use?
(Choose Three.)

A. EIGRP
B. ISIS
C. OSPF
D. RIPv2
E. HSRP

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 12 Layer 2 forwarding of multicast traffic with vPC is based on which modified protocol?
A. CGMP
B. PIM SS
C. Auto-RP
D. IGMP snooping
E. Destination-based trees

Answer: D
QUESTION: 13 Which protocol is required in order for FabricPath to support switches or hosts that dual-attach through classical Ethernet?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. LISP
D. OTV
E. VSS
F. TRILL

Answer: B
QUESTION: 14 In a geographically diverse data center environment, which high-availability feature allows data centers to simultaneously serve the same content to all sites?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. SLB D.GSLB E.FCoE

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15 Given the requirements, which Cisco Nexus product is Cisco recommended? A rich feature set that makes it well suited to top-of-rack, middle-of-row, or end- of-row access- layer applications. Data center racks with standards-based 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet and FCoE features, and virtual machine awareness features that allow IT departments to consolidate networks. A combination of high port density, lossless Ethernet, wire-speed performance, and extremely low latency that makes the switch family well suited to meet the growing demand for 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
A. 1000v
B. 1010
C. 2000
D. 3000
E. 4000
F. 5500

Answer: F
QUESTION: 16
Which three control plane operations are used by vPC? (Choose three.)

A. ARP cache
B. MAC address learning
C. CGMP snooping
D. LACP
E. BPDUs

Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 17 In the data center architecture, which layer performs load balancing between data centers?
A. Core layer
B. Access layer
C. Aggregation layer
D. Collapse core

Answer: A
QUESTION: 18 Which innovation in the Cisco NX-OS Software brings an entirely new Layer 2 data plane by encapsulating the frames entering the device with a header that consists of a routable source and destination address?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. Routing
D. RSTP
E. LISP

Answer: A
QUESTION: 19 When designing a data center environment with ECMP and IP routing between the data center network segments, which design would be the most suitable?
A. Layer 3 data center core
B. Layer 3 data center core with Layer 2 extension
C. Layer 2 data center core
D. Layer 2 data center core with Layer 3 extension

Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
What design will effect traffic flows in the Data Center Core layer?

A. The domain needed to extend a VLAN from one switch to another is determined at the core layer
B. With a 3 layer (Access, Aggregation, Core) design the Layer 2 domain must be configured across the Core for VLAN extension to occur
C. Extending Layer 2 through a core causes path blocking by STP and has the risk of uncontrollable broadcast issues related to extending Layer 2 domains, and therefore should be avoided
D. Server-to-server traffic typically travels between aggregation modules by way of the core, while backup and replication traffic remains within the aggregation module

Answer: C
QUESTION: 21 When designing a collapsed core data center, which two technologies are used to virtualize the core and aggregation layers? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. LISP
C. HSRP
D. VDC
E. VRF

Answer: D, E

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QUESTION 1
How did you prepare for this exam? (Choose all that apply.)
A. none of the above
B. Apple leader-led technician training course
C. self-study AppleCare Technician Training purchased from Apple
D. on-the-job training / apprenticeship
E. self-taught
F. Apple Mac OS X Server Essentials leader-led course
G. other Apple materials or courses
H. non-Apple courses or books
I. Apple Mac OS X Help Desk Essentials leader-led course

Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 2
In Mac OS X v10.3, you CANNOT use the Finder’s onnect to Server?command to select ________.
A. your iDisk
B. AFP servers
C. WebDAV servers
D. SSH servers

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
The NetBoot Filters feature in Mac OS X Server v10.3 lets you ________.
A. allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their hardware address
B. deny NetBoot access to select computers, based on their IP address
C. allow NetBoot access to select computers, based on their IP address
D. look up the IP address of a computer, based on its host name

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which command is included with the Mac OS X Developer Tools, but NOT with a default installation of Mac OS X v10.3?
A. ditto
B. CpMac
C. du
D. pwd
E. open
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which can you NOT do using the Kerberos application in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Change the password you use to get a ticket.
B. Renew a ticket.
C. Force a network service to accept a ticket.
D. View a ticket.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
To find out which firmware version a Macintosh with Mac OS X v10.3 has, you can ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. use System Profiler
B. choose About This Mac
C. start up in verbose mode
D. start up in Open Firmware
E. use the Open Firmware utility

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
In Mac OS X Server v10.3, what tool lets you share print queues?
A. Printer Setup Utility
B. Print & Fax preference pane
C. Server Admin
D. Workgroup Manager

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
The Lookup pane in Network Utility is used to ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. find the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network
B. determine which ports on a computer are closed
C. determine which ports on a computer are open
D. resolve domain names to IP addresses
E. resolve IP addresses to domain names
F. display routing table information

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Which statements are true about Open Directory? (Choose all that apply.)
A. An Open Directory server can function as a Windows Primary Domain Controller.
B. Open Directory does NOT provide load balancing.
C. You manage Open Directory using Open Directory Assistant.
D. Open Directory runs on Mac OS X Server only.
E. Open Directory is extensible via plug-ins.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
In Mac OS X Server v10.3, you can configure Open Directory to be an Open Directory ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. proxy server
B. master server
C. replica server
D. relay server
E. shadow server

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
Which three options can you enable on a site-by-site basis in Server Admin? (Choose THREE.)
A. challenge-response authentication
B. QuickTime streaming
C. allow document MIME type changes
D. CGI execution
E. performance cache
F. WebDAV

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 12
Which of these computers can start up from a NetBoot image hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.3? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Power Macintosh G3 (Blue & White)
B. iMac G3 (Tray Loading)
C. iBook
D. iMac (Slot Loading)
E. Power Mac G5
F. Power Mac G4
G. Xserve
H. Power Macintosh G3 (233 MHz, beige model)

Correct Answer: CDEFG
QUESTION 13
What is the MAXIMUM number of computers you can import into a computer list?
A. 3,000
B. 10
C. 700
D. 99
E. 2,000
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 14
WebMail ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. is a POP client
B. is configured in the Mail services settings in Server Admin
C. does not have its own SMTP server
D. is based on SquirrelMail
E. is an IMAP client
F. is used to administer the mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.3
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 15
What is one reason to prefer an AFP share point over an NFS share point for storing home directories?
A. NFS volumes must be mounted manually.
B. NFS share points do not support group-level Read & Write permissions.
C. AFP volumes are easier to search than NFS volumes.
D. AFP provides user-level authentication access security.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server v10.3, which three options can you configure for FTP services? (Choose THREE.)
A. Enable Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MD5 (CRAM-MD5).
B. Specify a maximum number of downloadable files per session.
C. Enable anonymous access.
D. Specify a maximum number of authenticated users.
E. Enable MacBinary and disk image auto-conversion.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 17
Which method below will NOT help you confirm that you have set up TCP/IP correctly?
A. Verify that you can successfully send mail from a configured mail account.
B. Open Internet Explorer and view an external webpage.
C. Use the Ping feature in Network Utility.
D. Transfer a file using Bluetooth File Exchange.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You have defined managed preferences for the Guest Computers account in Workgroup Manager. Those preferences apply to ________.
A. computers that are members of computer lists that have Guest access to the server
B. any computer from which a user connects to the server with Guest access
C. any computer that is not a member of a named computer list on the server
D. computers named on the Guest Computers list, only

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
When a Mac OS X v10.3 administrator user attempts to drag a file to the Applications folder, a message tells him, he item ile.app?could not be moved because pplications?cannot be modified.?To correct this situation the administrator user should ________.
A. log in with the Master Password
B. reinstall Mac OS X
C. click the Repair Permissions button in Disk Utility
D. restart the computer and log in again
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Open Directory is compatible with ________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. LDS on a UNIX server
B. NetInfo running on Windows 2000
C. Samba running on Windows
D. Active Directory service on a Microsoft Windows server
E. locally stored BSD configuration files
F. OpenLDAP or other LDAP service on third-party servers

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 21
Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. ditto
B. ls
C. system_profiler
D. open

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which statements are true of Kerberos? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Kerberos uses tickets.
B. Kerberos requires LDAP.
C. Kerberos requires service discovery.
D. Kerberos is a way to perform authentication.
E. Your computer presents your user name and password to each server.

Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 23
What does the Console utility do?
A. Displays log files.
B. Enables the root user to access hidden files.
C. Controls monitor setup.
D. Allows any user to access the command line.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
The function of journaling in the Mac OS Extended file system is to ________.
A. provide the user with a journal that lists recently created files and directories
B. make the file system case-sensitive
C. provide support for file forks
D. make the file system compatible with the Windows (MS-DOS) format
E. help protect the file system integrity in the case of power outages or unforeseen system failures

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button and examine the graphic, then answer the question below. In the graphic, the Staff Mac OS X Server hosts a shared directory domain containing account information that is used by the three client computers, A, B, and C. Which statements are true of this network? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Server Assistant application was used on the Staff Mac OS X Server to bind computer B to its parent domain.
B. The Directory Access application was used on the Staff Mac OS X Server to bind computer A to its

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Which THREE of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention? SELECT THREE
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Wireless wrist strap
F. Static-shielding bags
Answer: C, D, F
Question: 2
You are preparing to service a MacBook. To reduce the risk of damage from ESD, you clear the area of plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene, and have static-shielding storage bags available for ESD-sensitive components. While you are working you should also remember to ________________ and _______________. SELECT TWO
A. ground yourself and the equipment you are working on
B. always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces
C. discharge the display to protect the other ESD-sensitive components
D. handle any ESD-sensitive components by the connectors, rather than by the edges
E. ask other technicians to avoid touching you when you are working on ESD-sensitive components

Answer: A, E
Question: 3
You are removing the main battery from a MacBook Pro (17-inch, Early 2009). Which of the following is a best practice when handling this battery?
A. Handle the battery with one hand, pressing between the soft side and the hard side.
B. Re-cover any punctures or tears in the soft mylar covering with Kapton tape.
C. Handle the battery any way; it does not matter.
D. Hold the battery carefully by its edges only.

Answer: D
Which part or parts of a CRT display should NOT be touched until after the display is disconnected from its power source and the CRT is properly discharged? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Yoke assembly
B. Anode aperture
C. High voltage cable
D. Front of CRT display
E. Flyback transformer
F. Outer plastic housing

Answer: A, B, C, E
Question: 5
Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take when you begin working inside a MacBook Pro (13-inch, Mid 2010)?
A. Reset the SMC.
B. Remove the hard drive.
C. Disconnect the optical drive.
D. Disconnect the main battery.

Answer: D
Question: 6
Which safety issue applies to newer Apple portable models?
A. Fragile bottom case
B. High voltage display
C. Heavy internal frame
D. Soft battery enclosure
E. Sharp logic board edges

Answer: D
Which THREE of the following are valid CRT safety rules? SELECT THREE
A. Touch the computer’s metal chassis.
B. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap.
C. Connect the AC power cord.
D. Remove any metal jewelry.
E. Wear safety goggles.
F. Don’t work alone.

Answer: D, E, F
Question: 8
You are troubleshooting an iMac (Early 2008) that does not power on. You notice that all diagnostic LEDs remain off when a known-good power cord is connected to the iMac and to a known-good power outlet. What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty optical drive
C. Faulty LCD panel
D. Faulty video card

Answer: A
Question: 9
A customer asks if there is a diagnostic that he can use to help troubleshoot a hardware problem with his MacBook Pro. Which of the following solutions should you suggest?
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Terminal
D. Console

Answer: B
Apple Service Toolkit uses ____ to check Macs with Mac Resource Inspector and other diagnostic utilities.
A. NetBoot
B. Open Firmware
C. Target Disk Mode
D. Apple Remote Desktop

Answer: A
Question: 11
Which of the following scenarios would be most appropriate to use Apple Service Diagnostic?
A. You want to check a Mac for accidental damage.
B. You want to verify product functionality after a repair.
C. Your customer wants to run diagnostics on his Mac Pro.
D. You need to verify that all installed applications have been updated.

Answer: B
Question: 12
MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt

Answer: A
Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.

Answer: C
Question: 14
What is the proper way to calibrate the main battery in a MacBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the Battery Calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box; no further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.
D. Charge the battery fully. Wait 2 hours. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Wait 5 hours. Charge it fully again.
E. Charge the battery halfway. Wait 2 hours. Finish charging the battery. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.

Answer: D
Question: 15
You can use a higher wattage power adapter with an Apple portable computer, but you cannot use one with less wattage without potential operating issues.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Question: 16
Which of the following is NOT a valid power saving technique in recent Mac computers?
A. Disconnect all peripherals.
B. Activate automatic display sleep.
C. Activate automatic hard disk sleep.
D. Use wireless networks instead of wired networks.
E. Set up locations optimized for different environments.

Answer: D
Question: 17
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (13-inch, Late 2010) logic board. Which of the following is the most important step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the battery.

Answer: B
Question: 18
You are preparing to replace faulty RAM inside a Mac mini (Mid 2010). What should be used to open the bottom cover?
A. Putty knife
B. Philips #00 screwdriver
C. Mac mini (Mid 2010) Logic Board Removal Tool
D. Your hands, no tools are required for this procedure

Answer: D
What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?
A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.

Answer: B
Question: 20
You are about to begin disassembly of an iMac (27-inch, Mid 2010) to replace the LCD display. Which TWO of the following tools are required to do this? SELECT TWO
A. Multimeter
B. Suction cups
C. Service stand
D. Anti-static, lint-free gloves
E. Torx T-15 driver with 5 inch shaft

Answer: B, D
Question: 21
Examine the exhibit.
A. This tool is used to avoid flexing the logic board.
B. This tool is used to avoid ESD damage to the logic board.
C. It is impossible to remove these components without this tool.
D. This tool is used to properly align the processor with its socket.

Answer: A
Question: 22
Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a multimeter when troubleshooting a Mac?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure high voltage going to a CRT.
C. Measure AC current going to an optical drive.
D. Measure digital signals on the main processor.

Answer: A
Question: 23
Examine the exhibit.

This specialized tool is required for the removal of which component from the Mac mini (Mid 2010)?
A. Fan
B. Memory
C. Bottom Cover
D. Antenna Plate
E. Logic Board Assembly

Answer: E
Question: 24
What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam support to avoid damage?
A. EMI clips
B. Video card
C. Large heat sink
D. Battery connector

Answer: A
Question: 25
Examine the exhibit.

What is this message?
A. Kernel Panic
B. Software Update
C. Firmware Update
D. Power-On Self-Test

Answer: A
What is the indication that a Mac has completed a successful power-on self test (POST)?
A. Startup Chime.
B. A series of beeps.
C. The Login Window starts.
D. The Desktop, Dock, and menu bar load.

Answer: A
Question: 27
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. Remove the processor tray.
B. Remove the hard drive carriers.
C. Remove the front inlet fan assembly.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.

Answer: A
Question: 28
The Mac Pro (Early 2009) has SMC functionality split between a primary SMC on the backplane board, and a secondary SMC on the processor board. What service issue should a technician be aware of when servicing the Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. SMC firmware must always match on both boards.
B. Three internal buttons must be pressed in order to reset both SMCs.
C. It is required to remove the memory riser card in order to reset the SMC.
D. Processor trays are interchangeable between similar Mac Pro (Early 2009) units.

Answer: A
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for scratches on the display coatings or cracks in the glass. You should also ____________________ and __________________. SELECT TWO
A. open the hard disk drive to check for scratches or dust inside
B. look for cracks, dents or scratches on the exterior of the system
C. connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output
D. check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage
E. ask the customer to describe in detail how he abused his computer to the point that it no longer functions

Answer: B, D
Question: 30
After identifying some accidental damage and pointing it out to the customer, the customer says “Apple’s warranty should cover this kind of problem.” How should you respond?
A. Apple will only cover the internal damage, not the cosmetic damage, so the charge will be less.
B. You’re right, Apple’s warranty does cover this kind of accidental damage, so the repair will be free.
C. Apple’s warranty does not cover this, but the AppleCare Protection Plan might, but only if you buy it now.
D. Apple’s warranty specifically calls out accidental damage as an instance where system failures are not covered.

Answer: D
Question: 31
Which of the following is NOT a valid Bluetooth troubleshooting tip for Macs?
A. Check for signal interference.
B. Make sure Bluetooth is turned on.
C. Update Bluetooth software on the Mac.
D. Verify Bluetooth peripheral hardware batteries are charged.
E. Make sure the Bluetooth peripheral is at least 20 meters away from the Mac.

Answer: E
Examine the exhibit.

What AirPort Extreme port does the number 3 identify?
A. USB
B. LAN
C. WAN
D. Power
E. FireWire

Answer: C
Question: 33
If you are unable to find the password for an AirPort Extreme or Express Base Station, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Answer: A
If an AirPort Extreme Base Station stopped responding, has network accessibility issues, or needs to be reverted back to default factory configuration, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Answer: B
Question: 35
Which THREE of the following probing questions are most appropriate to ask the customer when troubleshooting AirPort issues? SELECT THREE
A. Are wired computers affected as well?
B. Are just wireless computers affected?
C. How much RAM do you have installed?
D. What is the computer’s processor speed?
E. What is the resolution of the computer’s display?
F. Are any hubs, routers, or other computers connected to the network?

Answer: A, B, F
Question: 36
Which TWO of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no video’ condition? SELECT TWO
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You may hear fan or drive noise.
C. You cannot connect to the Internet.
D. The power button or power indicator lights up.
E. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.
Answer: B, D

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QUESTION 57
Why might a library item NOT function correctly if the Copy to Site feature in the Assets panel is used to copy the library item to a new site? (Choose TWO)
A. Template pages cannot be updated using library items.
B. Linked pages defined in the library item may not be valid in the new site.
C. The library item contains links to images that have not been copied to the new site.
D. <body> tag of the library item might conflict with the properties already set for the page.
E. Must first select the Modify > Library > Update command to update the current site with the new library item.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 58
What activities can be performed while getting and putting files using background file transfers? (Choose TWO)
A. preview in live data view
B. generate site-wide reports
C. delete remote files or folders
D. edit external cascading style sheets
E. preview in Browser on a testing server

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 59
What are patterns that define character combinations within the Find and Replace panel called?
A. ECMAScript
B. Special Characters
C. Search Parameters
D. Keyboard Shortcuts
E. Regular Expressions

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
What is the purpose of previewing files through a web server?
A. determines the site URL
B. provides full testing of local links
C. enables debugging for JavaScript
D. tests server-side includes and dynamic processing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
Using an image editor, what is the common technique used to reduce the file size of a .gif image?
A. use a web safe color table
B. reduce the number of colors
C. use a transparent background
D. smooth out gradients in an image editor

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
What happens when the dialog box asking to upload the dependent files of a web page is ignored?
A. upload will be cancelled after 60 seconds
B. only the web page is uploaded within 60 seconds
C. web page and dependent files will be uploaded within 60 seconds
D. prompts for each of the dependent files of the page after 60 seconds
E. upload will not take effect until whether to upload dependent files or not is selected

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
When creating a new site that is similar to another site already managed by Dreamweaver, what feature of site management allows ease of making a copy of the original site?
A. Clone
B. Export
C. Duplicate
D. Copy to New Site

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
What feature can be used to insert small blocks of code that is updated later without manually editing each instance of the same piece of code?
A. Snippets
B. Templates
C. Library items
D. Assets panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Tag libraries allow a user to import tags from what type of file?
A. .cfm
B. .php
C. .txt
D. .xml

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
What operation allows the user to change all areas of a document created from a template?
A. make the body tag editable
B. detach the page from the template
C. make a separate template for the page
D. start over and use library items instead

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
What is an example of a site root relative path?
A. resources/books.html
B. /resources/books.html
C. ../resources/books.html
D. file:///Macintosh HD/resources/books.html

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
What are the four types of template objects?
A. optional, custom, editable, repeating
B. repeating, editable, editable tag attribute, custom
C. editable tag attribute, optional, repeating, editable
D. editable parameter, editable tag attribute, editable, repeating

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
Why will a <div> styled with “position:relative” NOT appear in the “Layers Panel” in Dreamweaver?
A. <div> style cannot be used this way
B. position:relative is not a permitted style
C. as a block tag, a <div> cannot be affected by position:relative styles
D. Dreamweaver only regards elements styled with position:absolute as “layers”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Where is the default images folder specified for a site?
A. Files panel
B. Assets panel, Images category
C. Site Definition dialog box, Basic tab
D. Site Definition dialog box, Advanced tab

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
What is NOT a function that the tag selector can perform?
A. editing
B. selecting
C. removing
D. duplicating

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
What is a property of an Image Placeholder?
A. name
B. z-index
C. location
D. visibility

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
What is the purpose of the Frames panel?
A. edit a frame’s properties
B. add, delete, or merge frames
C. view and modify the HTML for the frameset
D. select a frame in the document enabling editing to its properties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
A Microsoft Word 2003 document contains headings and body text formatted with these default styles: Heading 1, Heading 2, Heading 3, and Normal; as well as individual words and phrases formatted as bold or italic. In order to preserve this formatting in HTML when pasted into Dreamweaver, what option should be selected in the Copy/Paste category of the Preferences dialog?
A. Text Only
B. Text with Structure
C. Text with Structure Plus Full Formatting
D. Text with Structure Plus Basic Formatting

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
What options are provided in the Table dialog box to make data tables more meaningful to web users with disabilities? (Choose THREE)
A. Label
B. Header
C. Caption
D. Summary
E. Access Key
F. TextVersion

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 76
How is it possible to simulate viewing pages at different screen resolutions in Dreamweaver?
A. Go to Edit > Preferences > View and set your screen resolution.
B. Change the window size at the bottom of the document window.
C. Change the resolution of the operating system and then preview web pages.
D. Right-click (CTRL-click Mac) on the document and select the Screen Resolution option.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 77
What elements are NOT stored in the Assets panel?
A. URLs
B. colors
C. images
D. reports

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
What method is used to open linked documents within Dreamweaver on a local hard drive?
A. Double-click the link.
B. Select the link and select File > Open Linked Page.
C. Press Ctrl (cmd-click Mac) and single-click the link.
D. Select the link and select Modify > Open Linked Page.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
What code is added to a web page when Set Color Scheme is invoked from the Commands menu?
A. <link href=”styles.css” rel=”stylesheet” type=”text/css”>
B. <script language=”JavaScript” type=”text/JavaScript”>
C. <body bgcolor=”#FF9900″ text=”#333333″ link=”#FFFF00″ vlink=”#FFCC66″ alink=”#666600″>
D. a { font-family: Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 11px; color: #07387A; text-decoration: none; } a:hover { color: #990000; }

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Where can a list of favorite links be saved?
A. Site Cache
B. Links panel
C. Assets panel
D. Site Definition

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 81
What can Dreamweaver do when synchronizing files?
A. optionally delete orphaned files locally
B. delete a few FrontPage extensions remotely
C. optionally delete local files not present remotely
D. optionally delete remote files not present locally

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
What is the primary purpose of a staging server?
A. Design and story board a site.
B. Test a site’s ability to withstand DOS (denial of service) attacks.
C. Test a site in an environment closely resembling the production environment.
D. Test server-side includes and image maps, which cannot be tested using a single machine.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
What functions use the site cache to speed up access to updated site information? (Choose TWO)
A. displaying the Site Map
B. managing links to external sites
C. managing the Check-In/Check-Out system
D. managing links to documents within the site
E. verifying connections to ODBC data sources

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 84
A request for the URL:
http://www.mysite.com/resources/faq.html r
esults in a 404 server error. What could cause such an error?

A. no faq.html file in the resources directory
B. web server does not have read permission for the resources directory
C. server cannot process the request because it is temporarily overloaded
D. server took longer than expected to return the faq.html page and timed out

Correct Answer: A

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Adobe 9A0-803. Adobe 9A0-803 exam in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Adobe 9A0-803 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Adobe 9A0-803 exam day nears.

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