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QUESTION 31
Which valid automated response option should an administrator choose for Email Prevent?
A. Modify the message subject or add specific RFC-2822 headers
B. Add metadata to email headers of confidential email
C. Modify the body of email messages containing confidential data
D. Process confidential email re-routed to a specified email list

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
How should an administrator apply a policy to Network Discover scans?
A. Assign the policy group to the scan target
B. Choose the correct policy in the scan target
C. Assign the policy to the Network Discover Server
D. Choose the correct scan target in the policy destination

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
A DLP administrator needs to modify a Network Discover scan that has started.
How should the administrator ignore files larger than 20 MB for the remaining shares?

A. Pause the scan, edit the scan target filters to ignore files greater than 20 MB, resume the scan
B. Modify the server settings for the Discover server running the scan, adjust the maxfilesize.level setting to greater than 20 MB, restart the Discover server
C. Stop the Vontu Monitor Controller Service, go to Manage > Discover Scanning > Discover Targets, set a new filter, restart the service
D. Create a new scan with updated file size filters and start the scan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator needs to implement the use of a scanner, but is unfamiliar with the general, high-level process associated with scanners. Which action occurs in step 3?
A. the scanner reviews and confirms configuration parameters
B. the scanner connects to target and reads the content and metadata
C. the scanner process is started by a user or scheduled event
D. the scanner packages filtered content and posts the data to Discover server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
A DLP administrator is attempting to use Encryption Insight to detect confidential information in encrypted files but has been unsuccessful. It is determined that the process was unable to retrieve the appropriate PGP key because the user key was using the incorrect encryption mode. What is the correct encryption mode that must be used by the user key?
A. Client Key Mode
B. Server Key Mode
C. Client Server Key Mode
D. Guarded Key Mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
While performing a VxVM operation, you discover that the disk group configuration has become corrupt.
You want to check the changes in the VxVM configuration data and automatically record any configuration
changes that occur.
What would you do in this situation?

A. Use the vxconfigd daemon to monitor changes to the VxVM configuration.
B. Use the vxrelocd daemon to monitor monitors changes to the VxVM configuration.
C. Use the vxconfigbackupd daemon to monitors changes to the VxVM configuration.
D. Use vxdctl daemon to monitors changes to the VxVM configuration.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
A DLP administrator has determined that a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server. Which action should the administrator take to successfully scan the remote file server?
A. restart the discover scan
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2008 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
An administrator is applying a newly created agent configuration to an Endpoint server. Upon inspection, the new configuration is unassigned in the Endpoint Server Details. What is a possible cause for the new configuration failing to be assigned?
A. the system default settings were saved to the new agent configuration
B. the server that the new agent configuration was applied to needs to be recycled
C. the new agent configuration was saved without applying it to the Endpoint server
D. the new agent configuration was copied and modified from the default agent configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
You have encapsulated the disk for swap partitions and created mirrors under the VxVM control. Which files in /etc get modified when the root disk is encapsulated?
A. vfstab and file system
B. vfstab and rootdisk
C. mnttab and file system
D. volboot and file system

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
You have a system that has two disks–disk01 and disk02, which are mapped into the system configuration during boot as disks c0t0d0s2 and c0t1d0s2, respectively. A failure has caused disk01 to become detached. What would you do to view the status of the failed disk01?
A. Use the vxdg list command
B. Use the vxdg s list command
C. Use the vxprint command
D. Use the vxdisk list command

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 4096
D. Unlimited

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
A DLP administrator is writing one policy to block sensitive data from being copied to removable media. The administrator is applying two response rules to the policy: ‘Endpoint Prevent: Notify’ and ‘Endpoint
Prevent: Block’.

Why are some copies blocked while others are only notified?
A. There are different conditions for the different response actions
B. The monitor and ignore filters are defined incorrectly
C. The DLP administrator needs to fine tune the throttling options
D. The Directory Group Matching (DGM) profile has users in different groups

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
An incident response team has determined that multiple incidents are resulting from the same user action of copying sensitive data to USB devices.
Which action should the incident response team take to fix this issue so only one incident per action is detected?
A. Create separate policies for the different detection methods
B. Combine multiple conditions into one compound rule
C. Change which ‘Endpoint Destinations’ are monitored
D. Change the monitor/ignore filters in the agent configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
Which option should be used to optimize the performance of a network share Discover scan?
A. Ensure that the target file system is defragmented regularly
B. Use an incremental scan to only include previously unscanned items
C. Configure credential prefetching to reduce delay in authentication
D. Disable antivirus scanning for network shares on the detection server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
What is the most efficient method for designing filters to remove unwanted traffic?
A. policy-based exceptions
B. IP-based filtering per protocol
C. L7 filtering per protocol
D. sampling per protocol

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
An administrator running a company’s first Discover scan needs to minimize network load. The duration of the scan is unimportant. Which method should the administrator use to run the Discover scan?
A. ignore smaller than
B. ignore larger than
C. throttling
D. date last accessed

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 146

You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a
manual Static NAT rule as follows:

“web_public_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web server’s public IP address.
“web_private_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web site’s private IP address. You
enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.
When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet you see the error “page cannot be
displayed”. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?

A. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the Web server’s private IP address.
B. There is no ARP table entry for the protected Web server’s public IP address.
C. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
D. There is no NAT rule translating the source IP address of packets coming from the protected Web server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 147
You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp’s Check Point Firewall. You need to allow two NAT rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give the BEST answer.
A. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (bidirectional NAT).
B. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using Manual NAT (bidirectional NAT).
C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.
D. No, it is not possible to have more than one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares it against the first rule in the Rule Base, then

the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 148
You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a second Gateway.

What is TRUE about the new package’s NAT rules?
A. NAT rules will be empty in the new package.
B. Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.
C. Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package.
D. Only rule 1 will appear in the new package.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
What is the default setting when you use NAT?
A. Source Translated on Client side
B. Source Translated on both sides
C. Destination Translated on Client side
D. Destination Translated on Server side

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 150
A marketing firm’s networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 151
Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?
A. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.
B. Limit grouping to rules regarding specific access.
C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.
D. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 152
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rules
B. Grouping rules by date of creation
C. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
D. Grouping functionally related rules together
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 153
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base
B. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules
C. Grouping rules by date of creation
D. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 154
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
B. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
C. Placing more restrictive rules before more permissive rules
D. Grouping authentication rules with QOS rules

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 155
You would use the Hide Rule feature to:
A. View only a few rules without the distraction of others.
B. Hide rules from read-only administrators.
C. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack.
D. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.
in the Install On check box. What should you look for?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 156
You are a Security Administrator using one Security Management Server managing three different firewalls. One firewall does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is a possible cause?
A. The firewall has failed to sync with the Security Management Server for 60 minutes.
B. The firewall object has been created but SIC has not yet been established.
C. The firewall is not listed in the Policy Installation Targets screen for this policy package.
D. The license for this specific firewall has expired.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 157
Your shipping company uses a custom application to update the shipping distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateway’s Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Since you are responsible for multiple sites, you want notification by a text message to your cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following would work BEST for your purpose?
A. SmartView Monitor Threshold
B. SNMP trap
C. Logging implied rules
D. User-defined alert script
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 158
A client has created a new Gateway object that will be managed at a remote location. When the client attempts to install the Security Policy to the new Gateway object, the object does not appear

in the Install On check box. What should you look for?
A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) not configured for the object.
B. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Security Gateway option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the Security Gateway object.
C. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway option from the Network Objects dialog box.
D. Anti-spoofing not configured on the interfaces on the Gateway object.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 159
A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard connections to the stand-alone installation of R76. After running the command fw unloadlocal, you are able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes. Which of the following change is the most likely cause of the block?
A. A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R76 Gateway.
B. The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN Gateway.
C. The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it.
D. The Allow Control Connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 160
When configuring anti-spoofing on the Security Gateway object interfaces, which of the following is NOT a valid R76 topology configuration?
A. Specific
B. External
C. Not Defined
D. Any

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 161
You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The POP3 rule is disabled.
B. The POP3 rule is hidden.
C. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R75.
D. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
Which rule is responsible for the installation failure?
A. Rule 3
B. Rule 5
C. Rule 6
D. Rule 4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
Which command allows Security Policy name and install date verification on a Security Gateway?
A. fw ver -p
B. fw stat -l
C. fw show policy
D. fw ctl pstat -policy

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 164
You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?
A. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
B. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.
C. Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users.
D. Restore the entire database, except the user database.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
B. dbexport/dbimport
C. Database Revision Control
D. Policy Package management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 166
Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. What occurs with the remote
Gateway after reboot?
A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
C. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security Management Server is not available.
D. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 167
How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped or accepted by a rule in the Security Policy?
A. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.
B. Pop-up alert script
C. SNMP trap alert script
D. User-defined alert script

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 168
Which of the following is NOT useful to verify whether or not a Security Policy is active on a Gateway?
A. fw ctl get string active_secpol
B. cpstat fw -f policy
C. Check the Security Policy name of the appropriate Gateway in SmartView Monitor.
D. fw stat

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 169
Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?

A. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B. 1, 2, 8, 10, 11
C. 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
D. 2, 4, 7, 10, 11

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 170
You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R76 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration of your Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf
C. upgrade_export command
D. SecurePlatform backup utilities

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 171
You plan to create a backup of the rules, objects, policies, and global properties from an R76 Security Management Server. Which of the following backup and restore solutions can you use?
A. 2, 4, and 5
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 172
Which R76 feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier Security Policy versions without changing object configurations?
A. Policy Package management
B. Database Revision Control
C. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
D. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 173
What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?
A. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.
B. Define two log servers on the R76 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.
C. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.
D. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R76 Gateway object.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 174
You receive a notification that long-lasting Telnet connections to a mainframe are dropped after an hour of inactivity. Reviewing SmartView Tracker shows the packet is dropped with the error:
Unknown established connection
How do you resolve this problem without causing other security issues? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Increase the service-based session timeout of the default Telnet service to 24-hours.
B. Increase the TCP session timeout under Global Properties > Stateful Inspection.
C. Create a new TCP service object on port 23 called Telnet-mainframe. Define a service-based session timeout of 24-hours. Use this new object only in the rule that allows the Telnet connections to the mainframe.

D. Ask the mainframe users to reconnect every time this error occurs.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 175
Which SmartConsole tool would you use to see the last policy pushed in the audit log?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.
D. SmartView Server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 176
SmartView Tracker logs the following Security Administrator activities, EXCEPT:
A. Object creation, deletion, and editing
B. Rule Base changes
C. Administrator login and logout
D. Tracking SLA compliance

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 177
What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker menu?
A. Exported log entries are not viewable in SmartView Tracker.
B. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel.
C. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log.
D. Current logs are exported to a new *.log file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
By default, when you click File > Switch Active File in SmartView Tracker, the Security Management Server:
A. Purges the current log file, and prompts you for the new log’s mode.
B. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file.
C. Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file.
D. Prompts you to enter a filename, and then saves the log file.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
You are working with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole component can be used to monitor changes to rules or object properties made by the other administrators?
A. Eventia Tracker
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Eventia Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 180

Which SmartView Tracker mode allows you to read the SMTP e-mail body sent from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company?
A. Display Capture Action
B. This is not a SmartView Tracker feature.
C. Display Payload View
D. Network and Endpoint Tab

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 181
You can include External commands in SmartView Tracker by the menu Tools > Custom Commands.
The Security Management Server is running under SecurePlatform, and the GUI is on a system running Microsoft Windows. How do you run the command traceroute on an IP address?
A. There is no possibility to expand the three pre-defined options Ping, Whois, and Nslookup.
B. Go to the menu Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Windows command tracert.exe
to the list.
C. Use the program GUIdbedit to add the command traceroute to the Security Management Server properties.
D. Go to the menu, Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Linux command traceroute to the list.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 182
Where is the easiest and BEST place to find information about connections between two machines?
A. On a Security Gateway Console interface; it gives you detailed access to log files and state table information.
B. On a Security Management Server, using SmartView Tracker.
C. All options are valid.
D. On a Security Gateway using the command fw log.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
To reduce the information given to you in SmartView Tracker, what can you do to find information about data being sent between pcosaka and pctokyo?
A. Apply a source filter by adding both endpoint IP addresses with the equal option set.
B. Use a regular expression to filter out relevant logging entries.
C. Double-click an entry representing a connection between both endpoints.
D. Press CTRL+F in order to open the find dialog, and then search the corresponding IP addresses.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 184
Which of the following can be found in cpinfo from an enforcement point?
A. Policy file information specific to this enforcement point
B. The complete file objects_5_0.c
C. VPN keys for all established connections to all enforcement points
D. Everything NOT contained in the file r2info

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 185
Which R76 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway?
A. SmartView Server
B. SmartView Tracker
C. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.
D. SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 186
You have detected a possible intruder listed in SmartView Tracker’s active pane. What is the fastest method to block this intruder from accessing your network indefinitely?
A. In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Suspicious Activity Rules.
B. Modify the Rule Base to drop these connections from the network.
C. In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Block Intruder.
D. In SmartDashboard, select IPS > Network Security > Denial of Service.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 187
Which of the following can be found in cpinfo from an enforcement point? Where can an administrator specify the notification action to be taken by the firewall in the event that available disk space drops below 15%?
A. SmartView Tracker > Audit Tab > Gateway Counters
B. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > Threshold Settings
C. This can only be monitored by a user-defined script.
D. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > Thresholds

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 188
Where can an administrator configure the notification action in the event of a policy install time change?
A. SmartDashboard > Policy Package Manager
B. SmartView Monitor > Gateway Status > System Information > Thresholds
C. SmartDashboard > Security Gateway Object > Advanced Properties Tab
D. SmartView Monitor > Gateways > Thresholds Settings

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 189
Where are custom queries stored in R76 SmartView Tracker?
A. On the Security Management Server tied to the GUI client IP.
B. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system shared by all users of that local PC.
C. On the Security Management Server tied to the Administrator User Database login name.
D. On the SmartView Tracker PC local file system under the user’s profile.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 190
How do you view a Security Administrator’s activities with SmartConsole?
A. SmartView Tracker in the Network and Endpoint tabs
B. Eventia Suite
C. SmartView Tracker in the Management tab
D. SmartView Monitor using the Administrator Activity filter

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 191
Which SmartView Tracker selection would most effectively show who installed a Security Policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network?
A. Network and Endpoint tab
B. Custom filter
C. Management tab
D. Active tab

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 192
You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log. How do you view Security Administrator activity?
A. SmartView Tracker in Network and Endpoint Mode
B. SmartView Tracker in Management Mode
C. SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the Security Management Server’s Operating System.
D. SmartView Tracker in Active Mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 193
How do you view a Security Administrator’s activities with SmartConsole? Which of the following R76 SmartView Tracker views will display a popup warning about performance implications on the Security Gateway?
A. Audit Tab
B. All Records Query
C. Active Tab
D. Account Query

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 194
While in SmartView Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 minutes, but cannot remember all the steps. What is the correct order of steps needed to set up the block?
1) Select Active Mode tab in SmartView Tracker.
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder.
3) Select Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker.
4) Set Blocking Timeout value to 60 minutes.
5) Highlight connection that should be blocked.
A. 3, 5, 2, 4
B. 1, 5, 2, 4
C. 1, 2, 5, 4
D. 3, 2, 5, 4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 195
SmartView Tracker R76 consists of three different modes. They are:
A. Log, Track, and Management
B. Log, Active, and Management
C. Network and Endpoint, Active, and Management
D. Log, Active, and Audit

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 196
One of your remote Security Gateway’s suddenly stops sending logs, and you cannot install the Security Policy on the Gateway. All other remote Security Gateways are logging normally to the Security Management Server, and Policy installation is not affected. When you click the Test SIC status button in the problematic Gateway object, you receive an error message. What is the problem?
A. There is no connection between the Security Management Server and the remote Gateway. Rules or routing may block the connection.
B. The time on the Security Management Server’s clock has changed, which invalidates the remote Gateway’s Certificate.
C. The Internal Certificate Authority for the Security Management Server object has been removed from objects_5_0.C.
D. The remote Gateway’s IP address has changed, which invalidates the SIC Certificate.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 70
Which application provides the most detail about system process in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Process Viewer
B. System Profiler
C. Activity Monitor
D. CPU Monitor Expanded Window

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
Network administrators can create and distribute specific VPN configurations, which users can add to their system by _______________
A. copying and pasting the internet Connect application preferences at User Name>Library>Preferences>com.interconnect.plist
B. choosing import Configurations from the File menu of the internet Connect application
C. choosing Save and Open Configurations from the File menu of the internet Connect application
D. clicking the import button in the internal Modem window of the internet Connect application

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator user named bob? Can view the details of a kernel panic in _____________
A. /Library/Logs/kp/log
B. /Library/Logs/panic/log
C. /Users/BOB/Library/Logs/kp.log
D. /Users/bob/Library/Logs/panic.log

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
You have defined managed preferences for the Guest Computers account in Workgroup Manager. Those preferences apply to________________
A. computers named on the Guest Computers list, only
B. any computer from which a user connects to the server with Guest access
C. any computer that is not a member of a named computer list on the server
D. computers that are members of computer lists that have Guest access to the server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 74
You are creating an SMB share point on a server with Mac OS X Server v10.3.
Users on client computers will create files and folders on the share point. Which statements are true of newly created files and folders?
A. You can assign permissions on shared files.
B. Share files permissions are defined by the umask.
C. You can set shared files to inherit permissions from the parent folder.
D. Owner and Group always get Read & Write permissions to shared files.
E. The permissions you set for files and folders only apply to Mac OS X client computers.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 75
What is the MAXIMUM number of computers you can import into a computer list?
A. 3,000
B. 2,000
C. 700
D. 99
E. 10

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
How do you add password protection to a website?
A. Use HTTPS instead of HTTP.
B. Define a realm for the website.
C. Ensure that the owner of the website’s Documents folder is the user ww?
D. Select password? In the sites pane of server admin,and enter a password.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
When a Mac OS X v10.3 administrator user attempts to drag a file to the Applications folder, a message tells him the item file.app? could not be moved because applications? Cannot be modified.? Correct this situation the administrator user should___________
A. reinstall Mac OS X
B. log in with the Master Password
C. restart the computer and log in again
D. click the Repair Permission button in Disk Utility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which three computers meet Apple’s minimum requirements for installing Mac OS X Serever v10.3? (choose Three)
A. eMac / 128 MB RAM / 6GB available disk space
B. Xserve /1 GB RAM / 12 GB available disk space
C. IBook G4 / 256 MB RAM / 6GB available disk space
D. PowerBook G4 / 256 MB RAM / 2 GB available disk space
E. IMac (Flat Panel) /384 MB RAM /4 GB available disk space
F. IMac (Slot Loading) / 64 MB RAM / 6 GB available disk space
G. Power Mac G5 / 128 MB RAM /3 GB available disk space
H. Power Mac 8500 with G3 processor upgrade / 256 MB RAM / 5 GB available disk space

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 79
Which can you NOT do using the kerberos application in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. View a ticket
B. Renew a ticket
C. Force a network service to accept a ticket
D. Change the password you use to get a ticket

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
You are offering FTP services over the internet to users who may be behind a firewall. You should advise users to enable passive FTP if they are behind a firewall that_______________
A. request SFTP
B. has FTP tunneling disabled
C. does not allow FTP connections
D. does not allow all FTP connection modes

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
Using Directory Access, you can configure your computer to __________
A. use a specific WINS server for SMB service discovery
B. be a member of more than one Windows workgroup
C. disable Finder Connect Server feature
D. use Apple Talk to discover SMB services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
In what order does Mac OS X v10.3 search for resources such as fonts?
A. ~/Library, / Library,/System/Library
B. /Library,~/Library,/System/Library
C. /System/Library,~/Library,/Library
D. ~/Library,/System/Library,/Library
E. /Library,/System/Library,~/Library

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
Booting Mac OS X v10.3 in verbose mode is most useful as a troubleshooting tool when______________
A. the system repeatedly crashes during startup
B. you repeatedly encounter application crashes
C. the computer cannot communicate with a printer
D. you repeatedly encounter system crashes after logging in

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server v10.3, which three options can you configure for FTP services (choose THREE)
A. Enable anonymous access.
B. Enable Mac Binary and disk image auto-conversion.
C. Specify a maximum number of authenticated users.
D. Specify a maximum number of downloadable files per session.
E. Enable Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MDS (CRAM-MDS)

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 85
Which tool do you use to configure an Open Directory Master?
A. Server Admin
B. Directory Access
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Open Directory Admin

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
After the mach_init and BSD init processes execute successfully, init runs the rc scripts located in___________to perform basic system initialization tasks.
A. /etc
B. /var
C. /init
D. /Sustem/Library
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which three user actions can be logged and monitored in Apple File Service? (choose THREE)
A. file creation
B. file deletion
C. folder creation
D. CPU utilization
E. Ownership changes
F. Permissions changes
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 88
Exhibit Study the exhibit, and then answer the question below: In the graphic, the Staff Mac OS X Server hosts a shared directory domain containing account information that is used by the three client computers,A,B,and

C. Which statements are true of this network? (choose all that apply)
A. The Directory Access application was used on the Staff Mac OS X Server to bind computer A to its parent domain.
B. The Server Assistant application was used on the Staff Mac OS X Server to bind computer B to its parent domain.
C. Users defined only in the Local domain of computer C can log in to the Staff Mac OS X Server.
D. Users defined in the Shared domain of the Satff Mac OS X Server can log in to computer A.
E. Users defined only in the Local domain of the Staff Mac OS X Server cannot log in to computer C.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 89
In Mac OS X v10.3 you CANNOT use the Finder’s connect to Server? Command to select_______________
A. WebDAV servers
B. SSH servers
C. AFP servers
D. Your iDisk

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
By default in Mac OS X v10.3 you can use the Finder to___________(choose all that apply)
A. burn a CD
B. CREATE A DISK IMAGE FILE
C. See every file in your home directory
D. To archive multiple items simultaneously using the Archive menu item
E. Empty the trash security, so that data-recovery software cannot restore the files

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 91
The Repair Disk Permissions feature of Disk Utility can ONLY repair permissions__________(choose all that apply)
A. on a volume with Mac OS X system software installed
B. If the computer is booted from the Mac OS X install disc
C. Of top-level directories, such as /System and/Users only
D. Of user-created files, by restoring them to a previously saved state
E. Of system files, by restoring their permissions to the default configuration

Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 92
If a user or a service that uses kerberos experiences authentication failures, which of these steps should you try to solve the problem?
A. Change the IP address of the users computer.
B. View the users kerberos ticket using Console
C. Make sure that KDC is running on the users system
D. Make sure that the clocks for all computers are synchronized using a network time server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
What is the MAXIMUM number of users you can import at one time, using the import command in Workgroup Manager?
A. 2,000
B. 3,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
E. 99,999

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which statement is true of mailing lists?
A. Mailing lists are a feature of WebMail
B. You can administer mailing lists remotely by email.
C. You can use Workgroup Manager to create mailing lists.
D. Mailing list subscribers must have local accounts on the server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
Which method below will NOT help you confirm that you have set up TCP/IP correctly?
A. Use the Ping feature in Network Utility
B. Transfer a file using Bluetooth File Exchange.
C. Open internet Explorer and view an external webpage.
D. Verify that you can successfully send mail from a configured mail account

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Which THREE are useful steps in troubleshooting an issue where a webpage won’t load? (choose THREE)
A. Use Network Utility DNS Scan command to locate DNS servers on the network.
B. Verify the network settings in the Network pane of System Preferences.
C. Use Network Utility Ping command to test direct IP connectivity.
D. Use Network Utility Lookup tool to test known DNS servers.
E. Use System Profiler to review the Network Activity report.
F. Use Network Monitor to review the Activity Report.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 97
Using Open Directory you can___________________
A. enable virtual hosting
B. only authenticate kerberozied services
C. manage access to domain name services
D. set up multiple LDAP domains on your network
E. configuration Mac OS X Server v10.3 to provide group directory services

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
On your server that has Mac OS X Server v10.3, you configure a firewall that allows web service for the IP address range 10.1.7.6/16 only. Which of these
addresses will be DENIED access to the web server? (choose all that apply)
A. 10.1.7.6
B. 10.2.7.6
C. 10.1.7.8
D. 10.1.9.6
E. 17.1.7.6

Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 99
In Mac OS X Server v10.3 you can configure Open Directory to be an Open Directory_______________ (choose all that apply)
A. relay server
B. proxy server
C. master server
D. replica server
E. shadow server

Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 100
After enabling the web proxy server in Mac OS X Server v10.3, you can____________(choose all that apply)
A. block user access to specific external sites
B. specific a maximum proxy cache size in MB
C. specify which sites to keep cached for faster access
D. specify the folder location for the web service’s proxy cache
E. no longer change the performance caching settings
F. no longer add realms to restrict access to internal sites
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 101
To set up your computer that has Mac OS X v10.3 to receive faxes, in the print & Fax pane of System preferences__________________
A. click the Start Faxing button
B. click the Faxing button, then click the receive faxes on this computer’s checkbox
C. click the Faxing button, then select your fax modem from the list of available fax modems
D. click the Set Up printing and Faxing button, click the Add button, then select your fax modem from the list of available fax modems

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
In Mac OS X Server v10.3 print quotas __________(choose TWO)
A. can be configured for computer accounts in Workgroup Manager
B. can be configured for group accounts in Workgroup Manager
C. can be configured for user accounts in Workgroup Manager
D. can be enabled for a print queue in Server Admin
E. cannot be enforced on printers shared over LPR.
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 286
What is true about TDP and LDP?
A. They can coexist in an MPLS network providing peers use the same type.
B. They are compatible between peers of differing type.
C. They are functionally equivalent but incompatible.
D. An MPLS network must use only one type throughout.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 287
How many bits are there in the label field of an MPLS label?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 16
D. 20

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 288
In multicast IP routing what entity is assigned a unique FEC?
A. An IGP prefix in conjunction with a class of service.
B. An egress router.
C. An IGP prefix.
D. A destination multicast address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 289
When using a hub and spoke VPN topology and EBGP as the PE to CE protocol it is necessary to implement allowas-in on the PE router that connects to the customer hub site. True or false?
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 290
How many interfaces can be associated to a VRF?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. Many

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 291
Which of the following correctly configures simple per-VRF OSPF?
A. router ospf 11 vrf purple redistribute bgp 1 network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0
B. router ospf 11 address-family ipv4 purple redistribute bgp 1 subnets network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0
C. router ospf 11 vrf purple redistribute bgp 1 subnets network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0
D. router ospf 11 ip vrf purple redistribute bgp 1 subnets network 171.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 292
What is true about using EBGP between the PE and CE routers?
A. Redistribution to MP-BGP is still required.
B. Customer BGP attributes are not maintained across the VPN.
C. All customer BGP attributes are maintained across the VPN.
D. Redistribution to MP-BGP is not required.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 293
If several MPLS VPN customer sites run BGP and want to use the same AS number throughout there would normally be a problem since standard BGP operation is to reject incoming external routes that contain the local AS number in their AS-path. What is a BGP facility that provides a workaround to this problem?
A. AS-cutthrough
B. AS-override
C. AS-passthrough
D. AS-transparent

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 294
How many labels are required as a minimum for an MPLS VPN?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 295
What is true about the use of RIP between the PE and CE routers?
A. A separate routing context is configured for each VRF running RIP.
B. RIP parameters for each VRF can be configured globally.
C. It supports RIPv1 and RIPv2.
D. Routes have to be redistributed to and from BGP.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIPv1 CAN be used but NOT supported officially by Cisco.

QUESTION 296
How would you display the routing table for a VRF named “yellow”?
A. sh ip vrf-route yellow
B. sh ip route vrf yellow
C. sh ip route yellow
D. sh ip route mp-bgp
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 297
Which is NOT a possible function of BGP in an MPLS VPN environment?
A. The exchange of traditional global IPV4 routes.
B. The distribution of labels throughout the P network.
C. The exchange of VPN routes with a customer using either EBGP or redistribution to another protocol.
D. The exchange of VPNv4 routes.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 298
When must the BGP next-hop-self option be set in an MP-IBGP session between PE’s?
A. When BGP between the PE’s is also carrying standard communities.
B. When All routers run in the same AS.
C. When EBGP is running between the PE and CE routers.
D. When EBGP is not running between the PE and CE routers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 299
Which of the following label operations can be performed by an edge LSR?
A. Pop
B. Push
C. Swap
D. Purge

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 300
What is true about a CE router?
A. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other routers.
B. It participates in customer routing protocols.
C. It runs provider backbone IGP.
D. It has to run BGP.
E. It has no direct customer connectivity.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 301
In a PE the VRF tables are populates by?
A. Routing information from the associated CE router.
B. MP-BGP information from other PE’s.
C. The core IGP.
D. BGP-4 information from P routers.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 302
VPNv4 addresses are exchanged between ______?
A. PE and P routers
B. PE routers
C. PE and CE routers
D. CE routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 303
Within a PE router one VRF should be assigned per ______ ?
A. PE router
B. Site
C. VPN
D. Group of sites with the same VPN connectivity

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 304
Given the configuration below which type of MPLS connectivity would this normally support? int atm 0/0 atm pvp 37 int atm 0/0.37 point-to-point mpls ip
A. ATM switch to ATM enabled router over an ATM VP.
B. ATM switch to ATM switch over an ATM VP.
C. ATM enabled router to ATM enabled router over an ATM VP.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 305
How does MPLS VPN architecture allow for overlapping address space between customers?
A. The addresses are kept unique by prefixing them with a route distinguisher.
B. The addresses do not class because a separate routing process is used for each customer within the MPLS network.
C. A separate PE router is provided for each customer.
D. Customers have to use registered addresses, they cannot overlap.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 306
What type of VPN could be described as one in which a provider offers virtual point to point links between customer sites?
A. Peer to peer VPN
B. Remote access VPN
C. Overlay VPN

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 307
Which of the following are valid business categorizations for VPN’s?
A. Intranet VPN
B. Internet VPN
C. Extranet VPN
D. Access VPN

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 308
Which command would you use to display information about the TDP session and the addresses and ports being used?
A. show mpls tdp-sessions detail
B. show tag-switching tdp neighbors
C. show tag-switching neighbors
D. show mpls tdp-sessions

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 309
The default control VC an LC-ATM is 0/32 how would you change this to 2/32?
A. (config-if)#tag-switching atm vpi 2 32
B. (config-if)#tag-switching atm control-vc 2 32
C. (config-if)#tag-switching atm control-vc 2/32
D. (config)#tag-switching atm control-vc 2 32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 310
Which command would you use to disable TTL propagation?
A. (config)#no mpls ttl-propagate
B. (config-if)#no mpls ip propagate-ttl
C. (config)#no mpls ip propagate-ttl
D. (config)#no ip mpls ttl-propagate

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 311
What is the effect of the use of the hop-count TLV in cell mode MPLS to the traceroute command?
A. Traceroute still accurately indicates the number of hops in the MPLS path.
B. Traceroute will indicate the ingress router to an MPLS domain once for each hop through the MPLS path and not the core MPLS LSR’s.
C. Traceroute will accurately indicate each router in the MPLS path.
D. Traceroute will not indicate any of the MPLS domain routers including the ingress and egress routers.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Mode MPLS. Page 91 of the reference states “…Although the previous description provides all the necessary functionality for traceroute to work in a Farme-mode MPLS environment, you also need to consider the effects of traceroute across an MPLS network that is constructed with ATM-LSRs in the topology. Chapter 1, “Multiprotocol Lable Switching (MPLS) Architecture Overview,” defines an ATM-SLR as an LSR with a number of LC-ATM interfaces that forward cells between these interfaces using labels carried in the VPI/VCI field. The consequence of this is that TTL is not available in the header of an ATM cell and, therefore CANNOT BE MANIPULATED AT EACH HOP in the network. For this reason, when ATM-SLRs are within the path, the ATM portion of the network is TREATED AS ONE IP HOP.” Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (CCIP edition)
QUESTION 312
Which of the following are names of valid fields in the MPLS header?
A. Label
B. B bit
C. TTL
D. TOS

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 313
What is true about disabling TTL propagation into an MPLS domain? (Select all that apply.)
A. It has to be disabled on all LSR’s in the MPLS path.
B. The TTL field in the label is set to 0.
C. The TTL field in the label is not copied into the IP header on egress.
D. The TTL field in the label is not copied from the TTL field in the IP header on ingress.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not A: Option A is incorrect as it only needs to be turned off at ingress router.

QUESTION 314
What is true about penultimate hop popping?
A. It works on cell and frame mode MPLS networks.
B. It allows double lookup on the egress router which is more efficient.
C. It prevents the need for double lookup on an egress router.
D. It causes the label to be popped one hop earlier.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 315
Which MPLS mode of label retention allows all received labels to be stored not just the ones from a next hop neighbor?
A. Independent
B. Ordered
C. Liberal
D. Conservative

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 316
What is the order of significance for determining the IP address portion of a TDP identifier?
A. The highest interface IP address.
B. The value of the “tag tdp router-id” statement.
C. The highest loopback IP address B, A, C
D. C, A, B
E. B, C, A
F. A, C, B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 317
Which of the following modes of operation would be used for packet (or frame) mode MPLS?
A. per-interface label allocation
B. unsolicited label distribution
C. liberal label retention
D. ordered control

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 318
What is true about OSPF running between PE and CE routers?
A. Extra configuration is required to pass the OSPF route attributes from OSPF to MP-BGP.
B. OSPF route attributes are carried as extended BGP attributes into MP-BGP.
C. Extra configuration is required to pass the OSPF route attributes from MP-BGP to OSPF.
D. Routes redistributed from MP-BGP to OSPF automatically maintain OSPF route attributes.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 319
Which of the following are MPLS applications?
A. Traffic screening/filtering
B. Traffic engineering
C. QOS
D. Web caching

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 320
Which are valid MP-BGP extended community formats?
A. <type>:<ASnumber>:<Value>
B. <type>:<Prefix>:<Value>
C. <type>:<Areanumber>:<Value>
D. <type>:<IP address>:<Value>

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 321
When providing Internet access to VPN customers through global routing two options exist at the PE. What are these two options?
A. VPN leaking
B. Packet popping
C. Use a separate (sub) interface for Internet and VPN traffic.
D. Packet leaking

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 322
In cases where VPN customers use OSPF and have cross domain links to other sites which also connected into the provider network what is true about this situation?
A. The OSPF tag field can be set to prevent cross domain routing loops.
B. This configuration is not supported by MPLS VPN’s.
C. The down bit can be used to prevent cross domain routing loops.
D. The down bit will be reset as routes pass between OSPF domain and may cause routing loops.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 323
Which of the following can be performed by an ATM LSR?
A. Pop
B. Swap
C. Push

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 324
What is true about the SOO extended community?
A. SOO is only needed for multihomed customer sites.
B. SOO can be used as a loop prevention mechanism.
C. SOO is most useful for stub sites.
D. SOO has the effect of creating possible loops.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 325
What is true about the following configuration in a PE router? Router bgp 21 address-family ipv4 vrf yellow neighbor 10.3.2.1 remote-as 44 neighbor 10.3.2.1 active
A. It configures an MP-BGP neighborship to another PE.
B. It configures an EBGP neighborship to a CE.
C. It configures an IBGP neighborship with a CE.
D. It configures an IBGP neighborship to another PE.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 326
Which is a valid route configuration statement?
A. (config-vrf)#route-target 1234:13 import
B. (config-vrf)#rt import 1234:13
C. (config-vrf)#rt 1234:13 export D. (config-vrf)#route-target both 1234:13

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 327
Which BGP address family configuration statement in a PE router correctly specifies an MP-BGP session to another PE router?
A. (config-router)#ip address-family vpnv4
B. (config-router)#address-family vpnv4
C. (config-router)#address-family ipv4 vrf <vrf name>

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 328
What is true about a routing context?
A. It uses global router variables for all routing instances.
B. It allows a routing protocol run in one VRF.
C. It allows different customers on the same PE to run the same routing protocol.
D. Its allows multiple routing instances in a VRF.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 329
What is true about a PE router?
A. It participates in customer routing protocols.
B. It runs provider backbone IGP.
C. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other routers.
D. It has no direct customer connectivity.
E. It has to run BGP.

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 330
Which are function(s) required in the control plane when using multicast IP routing over MPLS?
A. PIM version 2 with MPLS extensions.
B. A label distribution protocol.
C. A packet forwarding protocol.
D. An IP routing protocol.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 331
Only one route target can be associated with each route. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 332
Which of the following describes a VPN in which every site can communicate with a server but not with each other?
A. Central services VPN
B. Overlapping VPN
C. Managed network VPN
D. Simple VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 333
What is the name given to an IP address that is extended with an RD?
A. An IPv4 address
B. A VPNv4 address
C. A VPNv2 address
D. A RDv4 address

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 334
Which of the following is NOT a valid topology?
A. Hub and spoke
B. Partial mesh
C. Circular
D. Multilevel

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 335
Which command would you use to display the contents of the LFIB table?
A. show tag-switching lfiv
B. show mpls label-forwarding-table detail
C. show mpls lfib detail

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 336
What is true about the MTU on an interface when running MPLS?
A. The MTU is automatically decreased on WAN interfaces.
B. Some switches do not support jumbo frames.
C. If the MTU is increased on a LAN interface it can result in jumbo frames.
D. The IP MTU is automatically decreased on LAN interfaces.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 337
BGP derived prefixes are assigned the label that is used for the _______?
A. IBGP peer
B. AS-Path
C. IGP prefix in the routing table
D. Next hop address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 338
What does LDP use to find non adjacent neighbors?
A. Broadcast hello packets
B. Multicast hello packets
C. Specific hello packets
D. Directed hello packets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 339
Following an exchange of LDP hellos, which router will attempts to establish the LDP session?
A. The router with the highest IP address in the LDP identifier.
B. The router which is the first to receive a hello.
C. They will both try.
D. The router with the lowest IP address in the LDP identifier.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 340
Which mode of label distribution advertises labels to all neighbor LSR’s?
A. Independent
B. Liberal
C. Unsolicited
D. On demand

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 341
What is true about per-platform label allocation over per -interface label allocation?
A. It conservers table space.
B. It conserved VPI/VCI’s in an ATM MPLS network.
C. It is more efficient.
D. It is more secure.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 342
Which customer routing protocols will support MPLS VPN’s?
A. RIP V2
B. RIP V1
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. EBGP

Correct Answer: ABDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: RIPv1 CAN be used but NOT supported officially by Cisco.
QUESTION 343
Which are the two major components of MPLS?
A. Administrative plane
B. Data plane
C. Routing plane
D. Control plane

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 344
What is true about the following configuration? ip vrf green rd 100:10 route-target both 100:10 ip vrf blue rd 100:11 route-target both 100:11 ip vrf orange rd 100:12 route target both 100:10 route-target both 100:14
A. Site orange can talk to another site using an RT of 100:14.
B. Site blue cannot talk to site orange.
C. Site orange can talk to site green
D. Site green can talk to site blue.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 345
In cases where VPN customers run OSPF and have areas that are multihomed into a provider network it is
possible for loops to form.
What provision is made to prevent this?

A. Use the OSPF “tag bit” on egress to the multihomed area from the PE.
B. Set the OSPF “down bit” on egress to the multihomed area from the PE.
C. Set the OSPF “down bit” on ingress from the multihomed area to the PE.
D. Use the OSPF “tag bit” on ingress from the multihomed area to the PE.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 346
What is true about the following configuration? ip vrf blue rd 21:222 import map map route-target both 21:222 route-map map permit 10 match ip address 10 access-list 10 permit 172.18.2.0.0.0.0.255
A. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they satisfy the access list.
B. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they have RT 21.222 appended to them.
C. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they satisfy the access list and have only RT 21.222 appended to them.
D. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they satisfy the access list and have at least RT 21.222 appended to them.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 347
What is the name given to the MPLS VPN in terms of the OSPF hierarchy?
A. OSPF virtual link
B. OSPF superbackbone
C. OSPF ABR
D. Area 0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 348
Instead of using a routing protocol between the PE and CE routers it is possible to use static routes in
some cases.
What is true about static routes in MPLS VPN’s?

A. The static routes are on a per VRF basis.
B. You must always specify the outgoing interface.
C. The static routes are not entered into the VRF routing table.
D. The static routes are configured under the bgp address family prompt.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 349
Which are valid formats for a route distinguisher?
A. 10.34.231.4:21
B. 10:34:231:4.21
C. 14567.32
D. 121.32

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not D: option D should not be correct as it is a dot between 121 and 32 not a colon.

QUESTION 350
If a customer who is part of an MPLS VPN is running OSPF, routes are automatically imported from the
OSPF instance in the VRF to BGP for advertisement to other PE’s.
True or false?

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 351
Which of the following devices performs the MPLS function at the interface to a cell mode MPLS domain?
A. Edge LSR
B. ATM LSR
C. LSR
D. ATM edge LSR

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 352
What does cell mode MPLS use as a forwarding label?
A. The AAL5 header
B. The ATM header
C. The label
D. The IP header

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 353
Which of the following describes a VPN in which some sites are part of more than one VPN?
A. Simple VPN
B. Overlapping VPN
C. Central services VPN
D. Managed network VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 354
What is true about peer to peer VPN’s? (Select all that apply.)
A. The customer is isolated from the provider network.
B. The provider routers carry all the customers routes.
C. They are easy to implement.
D. They can provide optimum routing between sites.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Option D is also correct as page 139 states”Routing between the customer sites is always optimal, as the
provider routers know the customers’s network topology and can thus establish optimum inter-site routing.
Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (CCIP edition)

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QUESTION 191
In a VoIP environment when speech samples are framed every 20 ms. a payload of 20 bytes is generated. Assuming a total packet length of 60 bytes, what is the length of the packet header if cRTP is deploued without redundancy checks?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
A. 1 byte
B. 2 bytes
C. 3 bytes
D. 4 bytes
E. 20 bytes
F. 40 bytes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
What does the PBX use to determine the destination of a call?
A. An ISDN ANI packet
B. A blocked/permitted call list
C. An analysis of the dialled digits
D. Historic requests from the specific phone extension

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which of the following are CS-ACELP coding schemes? (Choose two)
A. G.711
B. G.728
C. G.729
D. Q.931
E. G-729A

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
Which of the following is the worst-case compression delay for CD-ACELP?
A. 2.5 ms
B. 5 ms
C. 7.5ms
D. 10 ms
E. 20 ms

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 195
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
What type of connection is considered a call leg?
A. A digital connection
B. A virtual connection
C. A logical connection
D. A physical connection
E. A hardwired connection

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
To which layer of the OSI model does Q.921 signaling equates to in ISDN?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Data-Link
E. Application

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Certkiller has a PBX at corporate HQ and one at a branch office. You to replace the PBX-to-PXB TDM trunk connection with IP connectivity. The PBXs use proprietary signalling method. The following is a partial configuration of the HQ router that connect to the PBX: controller t1 1/0 ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-24 type ext-sig dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1001 session target ipv4:10.10.0.1 dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2001 port 1/0:1 connection trunk 1001 Which command is missing from the above configuration?
A. transparent-ccs in the voice port configuration
B. signal wink-start in the controller t1 configuration
C. auto-cut-through in the pots dial peer configuration
D. codec clear-channel in the voip dial peer configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 198
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller ISDN network has two PBX systems from
different manufactures.
Which protocol allows functionality between these two PBX systems?

A. QSIG
B. Q.921
C. Q.931
D. T-CCS

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which application conveys fax using T.37 fax relay.
What will your reply be?

A. IVR
B. TCL
C. TIFF
D. SNMP
E. SMTP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
What will happen when a network link is oversubscribed?
A. The link goes down.
B. All voice calls suffer.
C. Voice packets are fragmented.
D. Excess voice calls are dropped.
E. Data packets are given priority.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
Certkiller sells managed IP Phone service to businesses in multi-tenant units. Certkiller has POPs in many
cities, so all of their dial peer patterns are based on 10 digit numbers. Users dial 9 for local calls, followed
by the 7 digital local number. The following dial peer has been configured in a New York POP:
dial-peer voice 595 pots

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436

destination-pattern 595
port 1/0:24
A user dials a local number, 9-638-4422.
What command must be configured in the gateway to allow the call to complete?

A. prefix 595
B. forward-digits 7
C. rule 1 9…….595…….

D. forward 9…….595…….

E. num-exp 9…….595…….
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Telephony uses which protocol that does not accommodate re-transmission?
A. RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
B. IP (Internet Protocol)
C. RTP (real time protocol)
D. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
When placing a call from an IP Phone to another IP Phone, how is ringback generated??
A. CallManager generates an RTP stream to play ringback on the originated phone.
B. CallManager sends a command to the originating IP Phone to play ringback locally.
C. The originating IP Phone plays ringback locally until the RTP stream has been established.
D. The phone is connected to an audio file server that generates the inband ringback tones.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
In the VoIP network above, which protocol provides the necessary sequence numbers so voice packets originating at CK1 are played in the correct order to CK5 ?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. RTCP
D. RTP
E. CRTP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
What is the most probable cause of jitter?
A. Variable delay
B. Dropped packets
C. Impedance mismatch
D. Excessive delay

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Jitter in Packet Voice Networks Jitter is defined as a variation in the delay of received packets. At the sending side, packets are sent in a continuous stream with the packets spaced evenly apart. Due to network congestion, improper queuing, or configuration errors, this steady stream can
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
become lumpy, or the delay between each packet can vary instead of remaining constant. This diagram
illustrates how a steady stream of packets is handled.

When a router receives a Real-Time Protocol (RTP) audio stream for Voice over IP (VoIP), it must compensate for the jitter that is encountered. The mechanism that handles this function is the playout delay buffer. The playout delay buffer must buffer these packets and then play them out in a steady stream to the digital signal processors (DSPs) to be converted back to an analog audio stream. The playout delay buffer is also sometimes referred to as the de-jitter buffer.
QUESTION 206
When an IP phone says “Configuration CM List”, what is it doing?
A. downloading a .cnf.xml file via TFTP
B. retrieving the OS79XX.txt files from TFTP
C. downloading the application load from the TFTP server
D. attempting to register with the first two CallManagers onits list of configure CallManagers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 207
Name two sensitivities that Voice traffic has that data traffic is not necessarily affected by.
A. TPI
B. RFI
C. Delay
D. EMI
E. Jitter
F. Noise

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 Your customer would like to investigate converging voice and data on their existing T1 Frame Relay WAN link between New York and Atlanta. The following applications are consuming no more bandwidth than what is in the list on this segment of the network. T1 link 1536 Kbps e-mail 75 Kbps Internet 200 Kbps Oracle 500 Kbps FTP 250 Kbps Total 1025 Kbps The customer has allocated 25% of the WAN link for routing updated and other overhead. Assuming 6 bytes overhead for Frame Relay, no cRTP and using the

A. 729 codec, how many calls could be placed on this link?
B. 2 calls
C. 3 calls
D. 4 calls
E. 5 calls
F. 6 calls

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Based upon a total bandwidth of 1536 Kbps and 1025 Kbps being used by other applications you can only have 4 calls not 5. The reason is that of the 1536 Kbps of bandwidth only 75% of it is available (or 1152 Kbps). 1152 minus 1025 leaves just 127 Kbps available for voice traffic. Assuming that you are using FRF.12, G.729 (stated in this scenario), and no cRTP (also stated in this scenario) then you will need approximately 28.14 Kbps per call with 5% overhead included (26.8 Kbps without overhead). 26.8 x 5 = 134 Kbps and 28.14 x 5 = 140.7 Kbps. Both exceed the 127 Kbps available for voice. To calculate the required bandwidth reference the “Voice Codec Bandwidth Calculator” available on Cisco’s web site (requires a CCO sign-on to access the calculator).
QUESTION 209
You have set up Call Admission Control for a customer between their headquarters and manufacturing facility over their Frame Relay WAN. You are using the
A. 726r16 codec with a 40 byte sample, CRTP without CRC, and 90 kbps configured as the maximum bandwidth for CAC to use. What will happen when 7 calls try to call the remote office?
B. All the calls will go through without any quality issues. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
C. Only 4 calls will go through and the remainder will get a reorder tone.
D. Six calls will go through, and the seventh call will be placed on hold until bandwidth is available.
E. Three calls will cross the Frame Relay WAN link, and four will use the PSTN with AAR.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 210
You have designed a complex dial plan using digit manipulation. Given the following snippet of your configuration file, what action would you expect to result when a call beginning with the digits “5501” is received? dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5501… … prefix port 1/0/0
A. A nine digit number beginning with 5501 will be forwarded.
B. A ten digit number beginning with 5501 will be forwarded.
C. A nine digit number beginning with 5501612 will be forwarded.
D. A ten digit number beginning with 5501612 will be forwarded.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Destination Pattern The destination pattern associates a dialed string with a specific telephony device. It is configured in a dial peer by using the destination-pattern command. If the dialed string matches the destination pattern, the call is routed according to the voice port in POTS dial peers, or the session target in voice-network dial peers. For outbound voice-network dial peers, the destination pattern may also determine the dialed digits that the router collects and then forwards to the remote telephony interface, such as a PBX, a telephone, or the PSTN. You must configure a destination pattern for each POTS and voice-network dial peer that you define on the router. The destination pattern can be either a complete telephone number or a partial telephone number with wildcard digits, represented by a period (.) character. Each “.” represents a wildcard for an individual digit that the originating router expects to match. For example, if the destination pattern for a dial peer is defined as “555….”, then any dialed string beginning with 555, plus at least four additional digits, matches this dial peer.
QUESTION 211
What transport layer protocol does RTP utilize?
A. TCP Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
B. UDP
C. IP
D. ICMP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RTP typically runs on top of UDP to utilize its multiplexing and checksum services. Other transport protocols besides UDP can carry RTP as well. Real-Time Transport Protocol, an Internet protocol for transmitting real-time data such as audio and video. RTP itself does not guarantee real-time delivery of data, but it does provide mechanisms for the sending and receiving applications to support streaming data. Typically, RTP runs on top of the UDP protocol, although the specification is general enough to support other transport protocols.
QUESTION 212
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. VoIP is implemented on the Certkiller network. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what is used to carry VoIP voice packets on this network. What will your reply be?
A. ICMP/IP
B. RTP/TCP
C. RTP/UDP
D. STP/UDP
E. RTP/RCMP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
Which lower layer protocol does the Real-Time Protocol (RTP) use?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. WDP
D. HTTP
E. RTCP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what TCP’s reliable deliver service provides.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
What will your reply be?
A. Connectionless service, flow control, sequenced delivery, and automatic error recovery
B. Flow control, sequenced delivery, automatic error recovery, and transmission window management
C. Unregulated send rate, automatic error recovery, and transmission window management
D. Connectionless service, unregulated send rate, automatic error recovery, and transmission window management

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller , Inc. You want to deploy an IP telephony solution for the
company. The Certkiller network is currently a traditional LAN/WAN based on Frame Relay.
Your CEO has read about the issues of converging both data and voice traffic onto a single network. She
is concerned about the quality of their calls that need to cross the WAN in particularly.
What would you need to implement to ensure QoS for VoIP over Frame Relay?

A. Traffic shaping, priority queuing, Call Admission Control, and Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing
B. Traffic shaping, priority queuing, Call Admission Control, and Weighted Random Early Detection
C. Fragmentation, traffic shaping, priority queuing, Low Latency Queuing, and link efficiency with cRTP.
D. Fragmentation, traffic shaping, priority queuing, Call Admission Control, and Weighted Random Early Detection

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 216
On what is system capacity planning based?
A. On calculations and measurements of packet length distributions.
B. On calculations and measurements of busy hour call volume/estimates.
C. On calculations and measurements of the phone costs from phone bills.
D. On calculations and measurements of the total number of calls placed during a month.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 217
You have a customer that is interested in determining the number of VoIP calls their Frame Relay WAN links can support. Each of their Frame Relay WAN links has 54 kbps of bandwidth available outside all other applications and overhead. How many G.726 calls using the 32 kbps codec and 80 byte sample size can be supported?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 218
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which functions use UDP as their transport mechanism.
What will your reply be? (Choose two)

A. RTP
B. RAS control function
C. call signaling function
D. H.245 control function

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 219
What does gateway require to function as a translating gateway?
A. The capacity to translate the audio.
B. The ability to recognize the call control procedures of both connecting endpoints.
C. The ability to establish separate RTP sessions with the originating and terminating endpoints.
D. The ability to recognize the call control procedures for at least one of the connecting endpoints.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 220
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
compressed RTP does.
What will your reply be?

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436

A. It significantly reduce packet delay
B. It significantly reduce total bandwidth
C. It significantly reduce Frame Relay overhead
D. It significantly reduce the total number of packets

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 221
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. You are implementing Frame Relay traffic shaping on the
Certkiller network. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know why Frame Relay traffic shaping
is important.
What will your reply be?

A. It ensures that excess traffic above the CIR on the link is dropped.
B. It ensures that voice packets are not trapped behind large data packets.
C. It ensures that the priority of the voice packet is higher than the data packets.
D. It ensures that the RTP headed is reduced in size to reduce the overall size of the voice packet.
E. It ensures that excess traffic above the CIR on the link is not dropped, but is buffered and sent when there is capacity on the link.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 222
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and a branch
office in Delaware. The branch office is using a 128 kbps Frame Relay link to connect to headquarters.
You want to ensure good voice quality on this link.
Which two QoS mechanisms should you implement on the Frame Relay interface? (Choose two.)

A. CIR
B. LLQ
C. WFQ
D. WRED
E. Fragmentation

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 223
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller network uses RTCP. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what RTCP does.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
What will your reply be?
A. It provides independent services irrespective of RTP.
B. It provides compression techniques to save bandwidth.
C. It provides in-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. It provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
QUESTION 224
Which statement is true about the MGCP call agent?
A. Acts only as a recorder of call details.
B. Provides only call signaling and call setup.
C. Manages all aspects of the call and voice stream.
D. Monitors the quality of each call after setup.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the MGCP model, the gateways focus on the audio signal translation function, while the Call Agent
handles the signaling and call processing functions.

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QUESTION 1
In order to publish Assessments to AppScan Enterprise Console for the first time, which settings must be configured?
A. In AppScan Source settings, in the Application Server preference page
B. In AppScan Enterprise Server settings, in the Jazz Team Server preference page
C. In AppScan Source settings, in the AppScan Enterprise Console preference page
D. In AppScan Enterprise Server settings, in the Microsoft SQL server preference page
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
When scanning a .NET application, an error is reported. AppScan indicates that source information is not available for a given assembly.
What must be done to fix the error?
A. The .NET application must include manifest data.
B. Visual Studio must be configured for Release Mode.
C. The PDB file for the given assembly must be included in the source directory.
D. AppScan Source for Analysis must be configured to scan assembly project types.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
You are reviewing a cloud storage locker application that is used to store and share user files and backups. You come across Cross-Site Scripting findings with data coming from several different sources. The customer you are working with is just getting started and is looking for highest priority issues only, so you need to focus on those issues that originate from the source that poses the highest risk.
Which source poses the highest risk?
A. SqIDB.getValueO
B. ZipCrypto.extract()
C. ConfigXMLgetConfigValue()
D. FileUpload.getFileContents()
E. TCPNetworkHandler.getByteArray()

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which two languages can be scanned by the AppScan Source CLI?
A. C++
B. Java
C. Fortran
D. Haskell
E. ActionScript

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
You want to scan and bundle the results for a Java application and only have access to one machine. Which two components must be installed on that machine to execute a scan and bundle the results?
A. AppScan Enterprise Server
B. AppScan Source for Analysis
C. AppScan Source for Automation
D. AppScan Source for Remediation
E. AppScan Source for Development

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
When scanning a Java Application, the scan fails with Java errors related to missing components. Which dialog can help fix the compilation issues?
A. Filter Dialog
B. Project Dependencies
C. Scan Rules and Rule Sets
D. JSP Project Dependencies

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which license is required for any AppScan Source deployment?
A. IBM Security AppScan Enterprise Server license
B. IBM Security AppScan Source Core Server license
C. IBM Security AppScan Source for Developer license
D. IBM Security AppScan Source for Automation license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
In AppScan Source for Analysis, you are configuring a Java web application that contains JSPs. The following is a directory tree for your application:

On the JSP Project Dependencies tab. which folder should be selected as the ‘Web Context Root’?
A. Java
B. scripts
C. webapp
D. resources

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
Which two methods can be used to resolve Unresolved Include Expressions?
A. Adding additional Scan Rules

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QUESTION 141
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Which description correctly describes a MAC address flooding attack?
A. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the destination address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
B. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the source address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
C. The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
D. The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
E. Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
F. Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. On all routers in the network, EIGRP has been configured for load balancing across the three links. However, traffic destined for Network B from R1 is only load balanced over paths R1-R2-R5 and R1-R3-R5. What is the cause of the problem?
A. EIGRP will not select more than two links for unequal cost path load balancing.
B. Because the path has a different link type, EIGRP will not select path R1-R4-R5 for load balancing.
C. Because Router R4 is not a feasible successor, EIGRP will not select path R1-R4-R5 for load balancing.
D. EIGRP will not select path R1-R4-R5 for load balancing unless the value of the variance parameter is increased.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP. Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is responsible for sending the community attributes of the router to its EBGP neighbor?
A. neighbor 12.113.176.25 send-community
B. neighbor 12.10.20.2 route-map iBGP_Advertised_Routes out
C. neighbor 12.113.176.25 route-map Advertised_Customer_Networks out
D. neighbor 12.10.20.2 next-hop-self

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode.
Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?
A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which command should you issue first to configure EIGRP for IP?
A. ip eigrp routing
B. router eigrp process-id
C. ip eigrp autonomous-system-number
D. router eigrp autonomous-system-number

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
Refer to the exhibit. What are two important facts in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)
A. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
B. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.
C. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
D. The RP is only seen in version 2 of Sparse-Dense mode.
E. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?
A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 156
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20
A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on routers R1 and R2.
However, R1 does not show R2 as a neighbor and does not accept routing updates from R2. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The no auto-summary command has not been issued under the EIGRP process on both routers.
B. Interface E0 on router R1 has not been configured with a secondary IP address of 10.1.2.1/24.
C. EIGRP cannot exchange routing updates with a neighbor’s router interface that is configured with two IP addresses.
D. EIGRP cannot form neighbor relationship and exchange routing updates with a secondary address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which two statements are true about IS-IS routing? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is more efficient than OSPF in the use of CPU resources.
B. Based on the default timers, OSPF detects a failure faster than IS-IS does.
C. OSPF default timers permit more tuning than IS-IS does.
D. OSPF is more scalable than IS-IS because of its ability to identify normal, stub, and NSSA areas.
E. IS-IS and OSPF are both Open Standard, link-state routing protocols which support VLSM.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Refer to the exhibit. When a profile is configured in the Aironet Desktop Utility, which security option permits the configuration of host-based Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?
A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2 Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)
A. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
B. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
C. Router RTA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 224.0.1.40.
E. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
F. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 192.168.9.4.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?
A. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, Router B will maintain the role of master virtual router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, Router A will maintain the role of master virtual router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S2 contains the default configuration. Switches S1 and S3 both have had the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst issued on them. What will be the result?
A. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to exchange traffic but neither will be able to exchange traffic with Switch S2
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
D. IEEE 802.1D and IEEE 802.1w are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, l and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode.
Recipient A and Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches.
Which statement is true?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
What multicast address is used by GLBP?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.10
C. 224.0.0.100
D. 224.0.0.101
E. 224.0.0.102

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?
A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24
These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured DHCP services on the router as shown. DHCP clients connected to the FastEthernet0/0 interface are working properly. DHCP clients connected to the FastEthernet0/1 interface are not receiving addresses. Which two statements contain recommendations that will solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the FastEthernet0/0 configuration.
B. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the FastEthernet0/1 configuration.
C. A second DHCP pool for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be configured.
D. The network shown in the output under the ip dhcp pool Central command should be changed to network
10.10.0.0 with a mask of 255.255.255.0.
E. An ip dhcp excluded-address global configuration command for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be issued.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?
A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Refer to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit. The RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multilayer switches 1-6. Given the number of configuration steps involved, what is the most efficient way to configure the network while meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?
A. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Allow the switches to elect their own root for each multicast tree.
E. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Specify switch 1 as the root for the RPI Multicast Server. Specify switch 2 as the root for the CMU Multicast Server.
F. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 180
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1?
A. All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will cause the security violation counter to increment.
B. The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be replaced with the new address.
C. The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
D. The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Which statement is true about IPv6?
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use anycast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
An administrator has decided to configure Integrated IS-IS on the network. What must the administrator do to enable the interfaces to distribute IP information using IS-IS?
A. The networks configured on each interface must be associated to the IS-IS routing protocol using the network router configuration command.
B. Each interface must be enabled to support IS-IS with the ip router isis interface configuration command.
C. All configured IP networks will automatically be enabled when IS-IS is configured with the router isis global configuration command.
D. Each network must be identified with the net interface configuration command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which statement is true about IBGP routers?
A. They must be fully meshed.
B. They can be in a different AS.
C. They must be directly connected.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst. Switch S3 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode mst. Switch S2 is running the IEEE 802.1D instance of Spanning-Tree. What will be the result?
A. IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are compatible. IEEE 802.1d is incompatible. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. Neither will be able to pass traffic to Switch S2.
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
D. IEEE 802.1d, IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is enabled on switch SW_A only. Both Host_A and Host_B acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the outcome be if Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?
A. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
B. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
C. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
D. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a what does 07.ac represent?
A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit. Which two Lightweight Access Point statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. An AP that has been upgraded from an autonomous AP to lightweight AP will only function in conjunction with a Cisco Wireless LAN controller.
B. Autonomous APs receive control and configuration information from a WLAN controller.
C. LWAPP increases the amount of processing within the APs, enabling them to support filtering and policy enforcement features.
D. Real time events such as authentication, security management, and mobility are handled by the lightweight AP.
E. Lightweight APs require local configurations using local management.
F. WLAN controllers provide a single point of management.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?
A. The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic will be dropped.
D. The traffic will be forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
LAB
A. 1. Seed metric for EIGRP must have the following characteristics: Bandwidth=512 Kbps
2.
Delay=100

3.
Reliability=255

4.
Load=1

5.
MTU=1500
Seed metric for IS-IS must be set to 50.
Only redistribute Level-1 IS-IS routes into EIGRP.
Redistribute EIGPR routes into IS-IS as Level-1 routes.
Correct
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Blockade# conf t Blockade(config)# router isis Blockade(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50
Blockade(config)# router eigrp 100 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute isis level-1 metric 512 10 255 1 1500 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute connected
Blockade# copy run start
Answer: A
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?
A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?
A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Which statement is true about the implementation of IPv6 in an already existing IPv4 network?
A. IPv6 can be routed using the same routing protocol versions as IPv4
B. A router routing for IPv6 and IPv4 must convert IPv4 packets to IPv6 packets to route them.
C. IPv4 and IPv6 networks can be routed simultaneously.
D. Only OSPF version 3 can be utilized for routing IPv4 and IPv6.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?
A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is
fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?
A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 202
In order for two routers to become EIGRP neighbors, which two values must match? (Choose two.)
A. hello time
B. hold time
C. autonomous system
D. K values
E. delay

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)
A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about trust boundaries in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. A device is trusted if it correctly classifies packets.
B. A device is trusted if it correctly declassifies packets.
C. The outermost trusted devices represent the trust boundary.
D. Classification and marking occur using 802.1ab QoS bits before reaching the trust boundary.
E. Network trust boundaries are automatically configured in IOS version 12.3 and later.
F. For scalability, classification should be done as close to the edge as possible.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
Given the NSAP, 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
A. 39
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green status LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter?
A. The adapter is not receiving power.
B. The adapter is in power save mode.
C. The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured.
D. The adapter is associated to an access point or another client.
E. The adapter is transmitting or receiving data while associated to an access point or another client.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
Based on the exhibited command output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EIGRP network is stable.
B. The router at 10.1.1.3 has not replied to the R1 query packet.
C. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is undergoing recomputation.
D. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is stuck-in-active.
E. R1 has sent a query packet to 10.1.1.2.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
B. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
C. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
D. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and
120.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and

110.

E. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
F. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and
110.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and

120.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Refer to the exhibit. The signal transmitted from the AP is reflected off a wall resulting in multipath interference at the client end. Which statement is true?
A. If signal 1 is in phase with signal 2, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
B. If signal 2 is close to 360 degrees out of phase with signal 1, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
C. Multipath interference is solved by using dual antennas.
D. Multipath interference is less of an issue when using a DSSS technology because multipath is frequency selective.
E. The transmitted signal from the AP arrives at the client at slightly different times resulting in phase shifting.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20
A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 was configured with the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 command.
B. OSPF version 2 has been enabled to support IPv6.
C. The IP address of the backup designated router (BDR) is FE80::205:5FFF:FED3:5808.
D. The output was generated by the show ip interface command.
E. The router was configured with the commands: router ospf 1 network 172.16.6.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
F. This is the designated router (DR) on the FastEthernet 0/0 link.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS.
C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships.
D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths.
E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part.
F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for BGP. EBGP routes received on router R2 show up in the BGP table on routers R1 and R3 but not in their IP routing tables.
What would cause this?
A. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned is on.
B. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned is off.
C. EBGP multihop is not configured on routers R1 and R3.
D. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive the same routes via an IGP.
E. The BGP routers in autonomous system 100 are not logically fully-meshed.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 217
Which two reductions are the correct reductions of the IPv6 address 2001:0d02:0000:0000:0014:0000:0000:0095? (Choose two.)
A. 2001:d02::14::95
B. 2001:0d02:::0014:::0095
C. 2001:0d02:::0014:0:0:0095
D. 2001:d02::14:0:0:95
E. 2001:d02:0:0:14::95
F. FF::0014:0:0:0095

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 218
What happens when an IPv6 enabled router running 6to4 must send a packet to a remote destination and the next hop is the address of 2002::/16?
A. The packet is tagged with an IPv6 header and the IPv6 prefix is included.
B. The IPv6 packet is encapsulated in an IPv4 packet using an IPv4 protocol type of 41.
C. The IPv6 packet has its header removed and replaced with an IPv4 header.
D. The IPv6 packet is dropped because that destination is unable to route IPv6 packets.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 219
When configuring EIGRP to run across a 56 Kbps serial PPP link, what command do you need to put under the serial interface to ensure proper convergence of EIGRP routes?
A. bandwidth 56
B. bandwidth 56000
C. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 56
D. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 56000

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 220
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is configured with the ip summary-address command.
B. The route to 10.2.0.0/16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
C. R1 is configured with the variance command.
D. A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system.
E. The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with the ip default-network 0.0.0.0 command.
F. R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 221
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Examine the above configuration. What does the route map named test accomplish?
A. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
E. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
F. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X?
A. E-B-A
B. E-B-A and E-C-A
C. E-C-A and E-D-A
D. E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?
A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 228
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 149
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the psuedo-node on the LAN
C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information
F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Refer to the exhibit. What are two important facts in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)
A. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
B. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.
C. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
D. The RP is only seen in version 2 of Sparse-Dense mode.
E. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)
A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which IS-IS NET represents a locally administered private address?
A. 39.0040.0010.0c99.1112.00
B. 45.0004.0000.0d35.4554.00
C. 47.0010.0000.0a11.3564.00
D. 49.0001.0000.0c12.3456.00

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?
A. IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
B. The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
C. Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
D. An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 158
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20
A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161
Which three conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose three.)
A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B. The EBGP neighbor ebgp-multihop option is set to the default value.
C. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
D. BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors.
E. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
F. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement.

Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which packet type is used to acknowledge LSPs on point-to-point links and to request missing pieces of information in the IS-IS link-state database?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. hello
D. database query
E. database description packet (DDP)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for IPv6?
A. A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and the host appends its locally configured IPv4 address to create a unique IPv6 address.
B. A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its MAC address to create its unique IPv6 address.
C. A host will contact its local router to receive its unique IPv6 address.
D. The local DHCP server will detect a new host has been added to the LAN segment and automatically send a unique IPv6 address to the new host.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?
A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. network 10.10.10.0
C. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
D. no synchronization

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
What are three reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three).
A. to hide certain networks from the rest of the organization
B. for easier implementation
C. to control network overhead on the wire
D. for simple security
E. to prevent adjacencies from forming

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links.
Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Switch S1 is the root bridge.
B. Switch S2 is the root bridge.
C. Switch S3 is the root bridge.
D. Port 1/2 on switch S1 is a nondesignated port.
E. Port 1/2 on switch S2 is a nondesignated port.
F. Port 1/2 on switch S3 is a nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which address type does the IPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify?
A. unspecified
B. aggregable global unicast
C. link local
D. site local unicast
E. multicast

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Which statement about route filtering is true when it is used to control routing updates?
A. Only outbound routes can be filtered.
B. Routes to be filtered are selected by using distribute lists.
C. Routes to be filtered are selected using only extended access lists.
D. Routes to be filtered are selected by using the distribute-group command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2?
A. Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway.
B. Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway.
C. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP.
D. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs.
E. Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
F. Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?
A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit. The command switchport mode access is issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT1. What will be the result?
A. The command will be rejected by the switch.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will no longer be bundled.
C. Dynamic Trunking Protocol will be turned off on interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14.
D. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will only allow traffic from the native VLAN.
E. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will continue to pass traffic for VLANs 88,100,360.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. Switch Cat2 is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3. Given IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch Cat2 forward multicast traffic?
A. all ports
B. none of the ports
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4
E. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
F. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. HSRP has been configured and Link A is the primary route to router R4. When Link A fails, router R2 (Link B) becomes the active router. Which router will assume the active role when Link A becomes operational again?
A. The primary router R1 will reassume the active role when it comes back online.
B. The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of its own failure.
C. The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of Link B failure.
D. The third member of the HSRP group, router R3, will take over the active role only in event of router R2 failure.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?
A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
A company has a BGP network and a BGP route of 196.27.125.0/24 that should be propagated to all of the devices. The route is not now in any of the routing tables. The administrator determines that an access list is the cause of the problem. The administrator changes the access list to allow this route, but the route still does not appear in any of the routing tables. What should be done to propagate this route?
A. Clear the BGP session.
B. Use the release BGP routing command.
C. Use the service-policy command to adjust the QOS policy to allow the route to propagate.
D. Change both the inbound and outbound policy related to this route.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of RIP routes into OSPF. Given the exhibited configuration commands, which statement is true?
A. Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 1 (E1) with a metric of 30.
B. Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 2 (E2) with a metric of 20.
C. Redistributed routes will maintain their original RIP routing metric.
D. Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 and will be treated as unreachable and not advertised.
E. Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 but will not be treated as reachable and will be advertised.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers?
A. weight
B. local preference
C. origin
D. AS_path
E. next hop

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 188
Which command sequence is required to configure the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
D. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2, and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement can be derived from the exhibit?
A. The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured.
B. The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured.
C. The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured.
D. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24.
E. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24.
F. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)
A. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
B. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
C. Router RTA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 224.0.1.40.
E. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
F. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 192.168.9.4.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
Which statement is true about IBGP routers?
A. They must be fully meshed.
B. They can be in a different AS.
C. They must be directly connected.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
What happens when an EtherChannel interface is configured with a range of allowed VLANs that is contrary to the range configured on the other interfaces in the EtherChannel?
A. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are set to auto mode.
B. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are all set to the same trunk type.
C. The ports will form an EtherChannel if the mode is set to on.
D. The ports will not form an EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 195
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two.)
A. Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating multiple subinterfaces on the HSRP routers.
B. Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating HSRP groups on the HSRP routers.
C. Routers configured for HSRP must belong to only one group per HSRP interface.
D. Routers configured for HSRP can belong to multiple groups and multiple VLANs.
E. All routers configured for HSRP load balancing must be configured with the same priority.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 169.254.23.59
B. 223.254.255.254
C. 225.1.1.1
D. 227.43.34.2
E. 238.3.3.3
F. 249.1.2.3

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.)
A. 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B
B. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
C. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B
E. 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B
F. 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E. 5 minutes

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.)
A. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
B. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific routes to the network.
C. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
D. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
E. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF routes to be redistributed to RTC?
A. redistribute ospf 1
B. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1
C. redistribute ospf 1 match external 2
D. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Given the network configuration above and assuming that STP is enabled, which port will be elected the non-designated port?
A. Port 1/1
B. Port 1/2
C. Port 2/1
D. Port 2/2
E. Port 3/1
F. Port 3/2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?
A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest MED
B. highest local preference
C. lowest neighbor IP address
D. lowest origin code
E. shortest AS-path

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network.
Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being advertised?
router bgp 65111 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor 172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112
network 192.168.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 null0
A. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0
B. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255.
C. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0.
D. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255.
E. The auto-summary configuration is missing.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 217
Refer to the exhibit. IS-IS is configured on all routers. What two NET addresses could be used to support an IS-IS adjacency between routers R1 and R2?
A. R1 – 49.0002.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 – 49.0002.2222.2222.2222.00
B. R1 – 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 – 49.0002.2222.2222.2222.00
C. R1 – 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 – 47.0002.2222.2222.2222.00
D. R1 – 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 – 47.0005.2222.2222.2222.00

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 218
Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for IPv6?
A. A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and the host appends its locally configured IPv4 address to create a unique IPv6 address.
B. A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its MAC address to create its unique IPv6 address.
C. A host will contact its local router to receive its unique IPv6 address.
D. The local DHCP server will detect a new host has been added to the LAN segment and automatically send a unique IPv6 address to the new host.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 219
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 220
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 221
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled?
A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2
C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its IPv6 network be?
A. 1723:1100:1::/48
B. FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16
C. AC1F:6401::/32
D. 2002:AC1F:6401::/48
E. 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
You are using multiple routing protocols in different Autonomous Systems (AS). You need to redistribute between the systems. You are using two-way redistribution.
Which action should help you avoid routing loop issues?
A. manually configuring the static routes
B. manually configuring the default gateway
C. manually configuring the administrative K-factor
D. manually configuring the administrative distance

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X?
A. E-B-A
B. E-B-A and E-C-A
C. E-C-A and E-D-A
D. E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
Which two types of routes will be advertised with the EIGRP configuration as shown? (Choose two.)
router eigrp 100 network 10.0.0.0 eigrp stub
A. static
B. receive-only
C. summary
D. stub
E. connected
F. dynamic

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?
A. The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic will be dropped.
D. The traffic will be forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers. However, the IP multicast table displayed in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes.
What should be done to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 228
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message.
An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 address for the host
B. lifetime of the prefix
C. prefixes for the link
D. keepalive timers
E. request for the local host IP address
F. any route advertisements it has received

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 229
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?
A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 230
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 231
During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain.
Which two items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Change the metric-type to 2 in the redistribute command.
B. Configure the redistribute command under router eigrp 1 instead.
C. Change the EIGRP AS number from 100 to 1 in the redistribute command.
D. Add the subnets option to the redistribute command.
E. Change the metric to an EIGRP compatible metric value (bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, MTUs) in the redistribute command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 232
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 233
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 234
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20
A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 235
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?
A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 236
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the distribute-list command in the R1 configuration?
A. R1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the R2 RIP updates.
B. R1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the R2 RIP updates.
C. R1 will filter the 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the R2 RIP updates.
D. R1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 237
A problem was reported that the 10.10.10.0/24 prefix was not injected into the local BGP table on RouterA. The following information is available from RouterA:
configuration: router bgp 65001 network 10.0.0.0 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary
routing table information: show ip route | include 10 O 10.10.10.0/24 [110/11] via 192.168.1.1, 2d00h, Ethernet0/0
Why is this prefix not in the local BGP table?
A. This route is not a BGP learned route.
B. The network command is wrong.
C. The 172.16.1.1 neighbor is down.
D. The prefix 10.10.10.0/24 is not a ‘connected’ route.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 238
Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?
A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 239
Refer to the exhibit. By default, when RTB passes BGP advertisements from RTA about network
192.168.2.0 to RTC, what address will be listed as the next-hop address?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 192.168.1.49
D. 192.168.1.50

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 240
An administrator is redistributing OSPF into RIP. RIP is routing the 128.103.36.0/24 network. OSPF is routing the 128.103.35.32/28 network. Users in the RIP domain cannot reach devices in the OSPF domain. Which two tasks must be done to enable RIP to advertise the routes learned from OSPF into the RIP domain? (Choose two.)
A. Add a static route that points to the RIP domain address space with a /24 network mask and a next hop of 128.103.36.2.
B. Add a static route that points to the OSPF domain address space with a /24 network mask with a next hop of null0.
C. Tune the OSPF default metrics to allow seamless redistribution into RIP.
D. Redistribute configured static routes into RIP.
E. Use a route map statement inserted into a distribute list to control routing updates.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 241
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:0000/56 IPv6 prefix?
A. 200F:0:0:AB/56
B. 200F:0:0:AB00::/56
C. 200F::AB00/56
D. 200F::AB/56

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 242
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 243
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 244
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 245
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 246
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct configuration to enable router P4 to exchange RIP routing updates with router P1 but not with router P3?
A. P4(config)# interface fa0/0 P4(config-if)# neighbor 192.168.10.3 P4(config-if)# passive-interface fa0/0
B. P4(config)# router rip P4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.3 P4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0
C. P4(config)# interface fa0/0 P4(config-if)# neighbor 192.168.10.3 P4(config-if)# passive-interface 192.168.10.34
D. P4(config)# router rip P4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.34 no broadcast P4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 247
In IS-IS routing, when would the use of Level 1 IS routing be required?
A. when routing between end systems and intermediate systems
B. when routing between Level 1 areas in different domains
C. when routing between Level 1 areas in the same domain
D. when routing between intermediate systems in the same area
E. when routing between intermediate systems in different areas

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 248
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 249
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 250
Based on the information in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. RTC will be able to access the 10.0.0.0 network.
B. RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table.
C. RTC will not have the 192.168.10.0 network in its routing table.
D. RTB will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table.
E. RTB and RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in their routing tables.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 251
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?
A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 252
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)
A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 253
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN. This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 254
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)
A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 255
Which two provide inter-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 256
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 220
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12. F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 221
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct output of the command show ip route on router R2?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L1 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L2 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
B. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L2 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
C. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
D. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 7 subnets, 3 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i su 10.1.2.0/23 [115/10] via 0.0.0.0, Null0 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 i L2 10.1.0.0/23 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
E. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L1 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L1 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?

A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree. E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit. The RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multilayer switches 1-6. Given the number of configuration steps involved, what is the most efficient way to configure the network while meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?

A. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Allow the switches to elect their own root for each multicast tree.
E. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Specify switch 1 as the root for the RPI Multicast Server. Specify switch 2 as the root for the CMU Multicast Server.
F. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 228
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 229
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 was configured with the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 command.
B. OSPF version 2 has been enabled to support IPv6.
C. The IP address of the backup designated router (BDR) is FE80::205:5FFF:FED3:5808.
D. The output was generated by the show ip interface command.
E. The router was configured with the commands: router ospf 1 network 172.16.6.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
F. This is the designated router (DR) on the FastEthernet 0/0 link.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 230
Which three route filtering statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. After the router rip and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any RIP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
B. After the router eigrp 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any EIGRP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
C. After the router ospf 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued , the s0/0 interface will not send any OSPF updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
D. When you use the passive-interface command with RIPv2, multicasts are sent out the specified interface.
E. When you use the passive-interface command with EIGRP, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.
F. When you use the passive-interface command with OSPF, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 231
Which two statements are true about IS-IS routing? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is more efficient than OSPF in the use of CPU resources.
B. Based on the default timers, OSPF detects a failure faster than IS-IS does.
C. OSPF default timers permit more tuning than IS-IS does.
D. OSPF is more scalable than IS-IS because of its ability to identify normal, stub, and NSSA areas.
E. IS-IS and OSPF are both Open Standard, link-state routing protocols which support VLSM.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 232
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network and Area 1 has been configured as a NSSA. Which statement is true about the NSSA Area 1?

A. Redistributed RIP and IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 5 LSAs.
B. Only redistributed RIP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
C. Only redistributed IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
D. No redistributed routes can appear in Area 1, only summary routes.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 233
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces. On the basis of the configuration provided on routers R1 and R2, which router will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. router R1
B. router R2
C. both routers R1 and R2
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 234
Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse- dense mode (PIM-SDM).
D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree. E. The multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
E. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 235
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Router R2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
B. Router R2 does not see the upstream router R1 as a PIM neighbor.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router R2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 236
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 237
Scenerio:
Online Incorporated is an online investment firm. The network uses OSPF as its routing protocol, Recently,
system administrators have experienced discrepancles in synchoroizing their accounting servers at
separate locations within OSPF area 0. Link failures have been observed in the network as several adds.
Moves and changes have been applied during the company’ s rapid growth. However,it is the intent that
OSPF be able to converge around these failures. Read through all questions before answering.

Topology:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
PassGuide 642-892
A. Question 1 CRRouter1 has lost connectivity to Router2. The following is Router1’s current route table: 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks
o IA 172.16.30.0/24 [110/11] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0

o IA 172.16.44.0/24 [110/12] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0

o IA 172.16.2.0/30 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.147.5.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 Which expected route is missing from CRRouter1’s route table based on the topology during the
maintenance period?
A. o 10.243.0.0 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
B. o IA 10.243.0.0 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
C. o 10.134.184.0 [110/3] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
D. o IA 10.134.184.0 [110/3] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
E. o IA 3.121.201.44 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
F. o IA 7.2.161.93 [110/3] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
Answer: C

Question 2
Examine the following excerpt from the show ip ospf command on Switch1:

Area BACKBONE(0)
Number of interfaces in this area is 1
Area has no authentication
SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:31.280 ago
SPF algorithm executed 5 times
Area ranges are
Number of LSA 13. Checksum Sum 0x16F0FD
Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of DCbitless LSA 0
Number of indication LSA 0
Number of DoNotAge LSA 0
Flood list length 0
Area 3
Number of interfaces in this area is 2
Area has message digest authentication
SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:34.928 ago
SPF algorithm executed 7 times
Area ranges are
Number of LSA 5. Checksum Sum 0x02FCD3
Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of DCbitless LSA 0
Number or indication LSA 0
Number of DoNotAge LSA 0
Flood list length 0
What is causing the different missing routes throughout the network?

A. Area 3 has been configured as a stub network.
B. Area 3 has been configured as a total stub network.
C. Area 0 and Area 3 have been configured with mismatched LSA numbers.
D. Area 3 has been configured to use the same interfaces as Area 0.
E. Area 0 is discontiguous.
F. Area 3 Is configured with authentication.
Answer: E

Question 3
Which configuration command on Switch1 (with a similar command on Switch2) will provide an immediate solution to the missing route problem?
A. No area 3 stub
B. No area 3 stub no-summary
C. No area 3 authentication message-digest
D. Area 3 virtual-link 7.2.161.93
E. Area 3 virtual-link 172.16.2.2
F. Network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 3
Answer: D
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 238

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Question 1 During routine maintenance,it became necessary to shut down gidabitethernet1/01 on DSW1. ALL other interfaces were up, during this time,DSW1 remained the active device for vlan 102’s HSRP group.You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command in VLAN 102’s HSRP group .what needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A: The DSW1’S decrement value should be configured with a value from 5 to 15
B: The DSW1’S decrement value should be configured with a value from 9 t0 15
C: The DSW1’S decrement value should be configured with a value from 11 to 18
D: The DSW1’S decrement value should be greater than 190 and less 200
E: The DSW1’S decrement value should be configured with a value from 195 to less than 205
F: The DSW1’S decrement value should be configured with a value from 200 to less than 205
Answer: C

Question 2
DSW2 has not become the active device for vlan 103’s HSRP group even though all interfaces are active,as related to vlan 103’s HSRP group,what can be done to make the group function properly?
A: on DSW1 ,disable preempt
B: on DSW1,decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater 150
C: ON DSW2,increase the priority value to a value greater 241 and less than 249
D: ON DSW2,increase the decrement vlue in the track command to a value greater than 10 and less than 50
Answer: C

Question 3
During routine maintenance,it became necessary to shut down GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 and DSW2 .all other interfaces were up, during this time,DSW1 became the active device for VLAN 104’s HSRP group,as related to vlan 104’s HSRP group,what can to be done to make the group function properly
A: on DSW1,disable preempt
B: ON DSW2 decrease the priority value to a value less than 150
C: on DSW1,increase the decrement vlaue in the track command to a value greater than 6
D: ON DSW1,disable the track command
Answer: C

Question 4
If GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW1 is shut down,what will be the current priority value of the vlan 105’s HSRP group on router DSW1?
A:95
B:100
C:150
D:200
Answer: A

Question 5
What is the configured priority value of vlan 105’s HSRP group on DSW2?
A:50
B:100
C:150
D:200
Answer: B

Question 6
During routine maintenance,GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was shut down. All other interfaces were up,DSW2 became the active HRSP device for vlan 101 as desired .however.after GidabiEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated,DSW1 did not become the active device as desired. What needs to be done to make the group for VLAN101 function properly?
A: enable preempt in DSW1’s VLAN 101 HSRP group
B: disable preempt in DSW2’S VLAN 101 HSRP group
C: decrease DSW1’S priority value for vlan 101’s HSRP group to a value that is less than the priority value configured on DSW2’S HSRP group for VLAN 101
D: decrease the decrement value in the track command for DSW1’s vlan 101 HSRP group to a value less than the value in the track command for DSW2’S VLAN 101 HSRP group
Answer: A

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 239
Acme is a small shipping company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of 2 switches;DSW1 and DSW2.The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping,vlan 40 is a new vlan that will be used to provie the shiping personnel access to the server.for security reasons,it is necessary to restrict access to vlan 20 in the following manner; -users connecting to ASW1’S port must be authenticate before they are given access to the network authentication is to be done via a radius server The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date,you have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre=-condition to installing the servers,you must use the available ios switch features

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 Switch 1 provision ws-c3750g-24t ! ip subnet-zero PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. ASW1#conf t ASW1(config)#aaa new-model ASW1(config)#radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123 ASW1(config)#aaa authentication dot1x default group radius ASW1(config)#dot1x system-auth-control ASW1(config)#int f0/1 ASW1(config-if)#switchport mode access ASW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 ASW1(config-if)#dot1x port-control auto ASW1(config-if)#end ASW1#copy run start
DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#ip access-list standard 10 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#match ip address 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#action forward DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 20 DSW1(config-access-map)#action drop DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan filter PASS vlan-list 20 DSW1(config)#end DSW1#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 240
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

line aux 0 line vty 0 15 transport input ssh ! end
A. R2(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R2(config-router)#end R2#copy run start R3(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R3(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 R3(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4 R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start
R4(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R4(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R4(config-router)#end R4#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 241

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 20 priority 61440 DSW1(config)#int g1/0/5 DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 40 cost 1 DSW1(config-if)#no shut DSW1(config-if)#exit DSW1(config)#int g1/0/6 DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 30 port-priority 64 DSW1(config-if)#no shut DSW1(config-if)#end DSW1#copy run start
Verification:
DSW1# show spanning-tree vlan 20
DSW1# show spanning-tree vlan 30
DSW1# show spanning-tree vlan 40

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 242
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

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PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. R3>enable R3#conf t R3(config)#router eigrp 123 R3(config-router)#no eigrp stub receive-only R3(config-router)#eigrp stub R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start
R4>enable
R4#conf t
R4(config)#int s0/0
R4(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.3.0 255.0.0.0
R4(config-if)#no shut
R4(config-if)#end
R4#copy run start
R4# show ip route

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 243
Online Incorporated is an internet game provider. The game service network had recently added an additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, systemadministrators neglected to document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purposes, you will be required to identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of the show spanning-tree command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the questions given below PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Question: 1 Which bridge ID belongs to switch SW-B?
A. 24663.000f.34f5.0280
B. 32768.000d.bd03.0145
C. 32768.000d.65db.0025
D. 32769.000d.65db.0025
E. 32947.000d.bd03.0145
F. 32855.000d.bd03.0145
Answer: A

Question: 2
Which port state is interface Fa0/2 of switch SW-B in for VLANs 1 and 179?
A. Blocking
B. Disabled
C. Discarding
D. Forwarding
E. Learning
F. Listening
Answer: A

Question: 3
Which bridge ID belongs to switch SW-A?
A. 32768.000d.bd03.0308
B. 32769.000d.65db.0102
C. 32874.000d.db03.0308
D. 32815.000d.db03.0308
Answer: B

Question: 4
Which Spanning Tree Protocol has been implemented on switch SW-B?
A. PVST+
B. PVRST
C. MSTP/IEEE 802.1s
D. STP/IEEE 802.1D
Answer: A

Question: 5
Which port role has interface Fa0/2 of switch SW-A adopted for VLAN 87?
A. Alternate port
B. Backup port
C. Designated port
D. Root port
E. Nondesignated port
Answer: C

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 239
The LDP identifier is used to identify a router during LDP session establishment. What size is the LDP identifier?
A. 8 bytes
B. 6 bytes
C. 2 bytes
D. 4 bytes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
From page 33 of reference “The TDP identifier is determined in the same way as the OSPF or BGP
identifier (unless controlled by the tag tdp router-id command) — the highest IP address of all loopback
interfaces is used. That means the identified is a 32-bit ip address which should be 32/8 = 4 bytes long.
Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (CCIP edition)

QUESTION 240
What is true about frame mode MPLS?
A. It uses Conservative label retention.
B. It uses per-platform label allocation.
C. It uses ordered label control.
D. It used per-interface label allocation.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 241
What is a possible use of make-before-break recovery using frame mode MPLS traffic engineering?
A. It overcomes issues of convergence during both link failure and recovery.
B. It overcomes issues of convergence during link recovery.
C. It overcomes issues of convergence during link failure.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 242
Which of the following modes of operation would be used for cell mode MPLS?
A. Unsolicited label distribution.
B. Per-interface label allocation.
C. Ordered control.
D. Conservative label retention.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 243
What are functions of the MPLS control plane?
A. Exchanging label and routing information.
B. Forwarding data packets.
C. Routing lookups.
D. Building and maintaining the label forwarding information base (LFIB).

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 244
Which of the following are used by the MPLS data plane?
A. Routing table
B. LIB
C. LFIB
D. FIC

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 245
What does FEC stand for in respect to MPLS?
A. Following entry cache.
B. Final entry count.
C. Forward to exit control.
D. Forwarding equivalence class.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 246
In MPLS quality of service what entity is assigned a unique FEC?
A. A destination multicast address.
B. An IGP prefix.
C. An IGP prefix in conjunction with a class of service.
D. An egress router.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 247
What is true about a hub and spoke VPN topology?
A. All traffic takes the most direct path.
B. It makes security more difficult.
C. Two hub routers handle the incoming and outgoing route announcements separately.
D. It allows easy traffic logging/accounting.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 248
Which of the following types of static routes can be combined to implement packet leaking in an VPN combined with Internet scenario?
A. A VRF static route pointing to a global next hop.
B. A global static route pointing to a global next hop.
C. A VRF static route pointing to an interface that is part of a VRF.
D. A global static route pointing to an interface that is part of a VRF.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 249
Which of the following routes types has to perform a label pop function when forwarding a packet over an MPLS network if PHP is active?
A. P router
B. Penultimate P router
C. Egress PE router
D. IngressPE router

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 250
Which two are valid design rules for simple VPN of two PE’s each supporting two CE’s on the same VPN?
A. Configure different RD’s for all VRF’s.
B. Configure one import/export RT.
C. Configure the same RD on all VRF’s.
D. Configure one VRF per PE router.
E. Configure one VRF for each site.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 251
Which of the following is the simplest approach to take when configuring EBGP between PE and CE routers?
A. Use different private AS numbers for each site in a VPN.
B. Use the same private AS number for all site in a VPN.
C. Use the same registered AS number for all sites in a VPN.
D. Use different registered AS numbers for each site in a VPN.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 252
MPLS VPN providers can be vulnerable to denial of service attacks by customers generating too many routes and depletting resources in the PE router. Which are valid methods of combating this possibility?
A. Limit the number of prefixes from a BGP neighbor using the neighbor maximum prefix command.
B. Limit the number of routes that can be imported into a VRF using the maximum route command.
C. Limit the size of the VRF routing table using the VRF maximum size command.
D. Limit the number of BGP neighbors in the configuration.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 253
Standard OSPF-BGP redistribution results in OSPF routes that are passing though an MPLS VPN are
inserted into the receiving sites rote tables as external routes. This makes stub areas and route
summarization hard to implement.
How does an MPLS VPN overcome this problem?

A. It uses well known RD’s for the different route types.
B. Route types are allocated to each route in the router ospf configuration.
C. It used BGP extended communities to propagate the OSPF route type.
D. It used the BGP MED to propagate OSPF route type.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 254
What is true about the following configuration? Router bgp 1234 no bgp default ipv4 unicast neighbor 10.3.2.1 remote-as 1234 neighbor 10.3.3.1 remote-as 1234 neighbor 10.3.2.1 active address-family vpnv4 neighbor 10.3.2.1 active neighbor 10.3.3.1 active
A. Neighbor 10.3.3.1 receives both IPv4 and VPNv4 routes.
B. Neighbor 10.3.2.1 receives both IPv4 and VPNv4 routes.
C. Neighbor 10.3.2.1 receives only VPNv4 routes.
D. Neighbor 10.3.3.1 receives only VPNv4 routes.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 255
When redistributing from RIP to MG-BGP and back again it is important to consider the RIP metric as it
passed through the MPLS VPN.
What is true about this function?

A. The RIP metric is automatically carried from BGP to RIP.
B. The RIP metric is automatically carried from RIP to BGP.
C. The RIP metric is automatically passed across the VPN.
D. The BGP multi-exit discriminator is used to carry the RIP metric across the VPN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 256
Which command would you use to display all VRF’s including all relevant route targets and route maps associated with each VRF?
A. sh ip vrf interfaces
B. sh ip vrf
C. sh ip vrf detail
D. sh vrf detail

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 257
Which is a valid combination of configuration statements to set up a simple MPLS VPN on a PE?
A. ip vrf yellow rd 122:23 route-target both 122:23 ip vrf forwarding interface serial 0/0 interface s0/0 ip address 10.3.0.1 255.255.255.252
B. ip vrf yellow route-target both 122:23 interface s0/0 ip vrf forwarding yellow ip address 10.3.0.1 255.255.255.252
C. ip vrf yellow route-target both 122:23 interface s0/0 rd 122:23 ip vrf forwarding yellow ip address 10.3.0.1 255.255.255.252
D. ip vrf yellow rd 122:23 interface s0/0 route-target both 122:23 ip vrf forwarding yellow ip address 10.3.0.1 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: the correct option B lacks route distinguisher configuration (rd 122:23).

QUESTION 258
Which two ethertype values are used to indicate that the packet contains a label?
A. 8848
B. 8847
C. 8281 D. 8888

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 259
When using the SOO extended community attribute in MP-BGP, what does SOO stand for?
A. Start of operation
B. Site overlay object
C. Source of origin
D. Sites of origin

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 260
What is true about a VRF?
A. You can assign only one interface to a VRF.
B. VPN interfaces assigned to a VRF can be physical, logical or sub-interfaces.
C. There is one routing table for all VRF’s in a PE.
D. You can assign an interface to only one VRF.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 261
Which of the following is a valid configuration statement for a route distinguisher?
A. (config-vrf)#route-distinguisher 110:22
B. (config-vrf)#rd 110.22
C. (config-vrf)#rd 110:22
D. (config-if)#rd 110.22

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note the colon (:) between 110 and 22.

QUESTION 262
What is true about a P router?
A. It runs provider backbone IGP.
B. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other routers.
C. It has to run BGP.
D. It has no direct customer connectivity.
E. It participates in customer routing protocols.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 263
What is contained in a MP-BGP update?
A. Extended communities
B. VPNv4 address
C. Label
D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 264
What is the name given to an extended form of BGP that can multiple address families?
A. MP-BGP
B. EXT-BGP
C. EBGP
D. BGP-4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 265
Which BGP facility is used to carry the route target attribute throughout the P network?
A. Confederations
B. Extended BGP communities
C. Route reflectors
D. VPNv4 address

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 266
What type of route target function is used when it is appended to a customer route as it is being converted to a VPNv4 route? Export RT
A. Implied RT
B. Import RT
C. Extended RT

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 267
How many bits are there in total in an MPLS header?
A. 64
B. 24
C. 16
D. 32

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 268
Which protocol is used to carry customer routes between PE routers in an MPLS VPN? OSPF
A. BGP
B. RIP V2
C. EIGRP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 269
Which command would you use to display the capabilities of LC-ATM peer LSR’s?
A. show tag-switching lc-atm detail
B. show tag-switching atm-tdp detail
C. show tag-switching lc-atm capabilities
D. show tag-switching atm-tdp capabilities

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 270
What is true about overlay VPN’s?
A. They do not add overheads due to encapsulation headers.
B. The provider routers have full knowledge of customers routes.
C. They are easy to implement.
D. Optimal routing requires a full mesh of VC’s.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 271
Which of the following describes a VPN in which every site can communicate with every other site?
A. Overlapping VPN
B. Central services VPN
C. Simple VPN
D. Remote access VPN

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 272
Which command of the following commands would you use to display the MTU size on an MPLS interface?
A. show mpls mtu detail
B. show tag-switching parameters interface E0 detail
C. show tag-switching interface E0 detail
D. show mpls detail

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 273
An extended ping running varying packet size falls for packets with a payload of 1497 bytes and above. What could be the problem?
A. The LAN MTU has been automatically decreased to cater for the addition of a label.
B. The WAN MTU has been automatically increased by the length of the label.
C. The packet is being fragmented by the LSR.
D. The MTU has been increased by a label and there are old or low end switches in the network.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 274
After entering the “mpls ip” command for an interface which label distribution protocol will be started?
A. TDP
B. LDP
C. Both

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 275
MPLS can be run over ATM PVC’s, perhaps as a first step in migration to an MPLS infrastructure. What is NOT true about this function?
A. There can be one LSP per ATM PVC.
B. The ATM network does not have to run MPLS.
C. The ATM PVC is considered as a frame mode MPLS interface.
D. LDP runs between adjacent routers either side of the PVC.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ATM is considered to be cell-mode

QUESTION 276
What is true about the “path vector” TLV which is sometimes used to prevent loops in the MPLS domain?
A. It is supported by LDP and TDP.
B. It operates in a similar fashion to BGP’s AS-Patch facility.
C. The TLV holds the ID’s of all ATM LSR’s in the MPLS path.
D. If an LSR receives an LDP update which contains its own ID the update is dropped.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 277
Which IOS table is built when CEF is enabled?
A. FIB
B. LFIB
C. LIB
D. TIB
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 278
What form of label distribution is used by RSVP-TE?
A. Unsolicited downstream
B. Upstream-on-demand
C. Unsolicited upstream
D. Downstream-on-demand

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 279
Cell mode MPLS utilizes the TTL field in the label to assist loop preventions. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 280
The implicit null label is advertised by an MPLS egress router to indicate that PHP should be used. What LDP label value is used for the implicit null?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 281
What is true about IP aggregation on an LSP tunnel?
A. It should not be used in MPLS VPN’s.
B. It breaks the tunnel into two segments.
C. It is transparent to the label switch path tunnel.
D. It can be used in frame and cell MPLS networks.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 282
Which destination IP address is used by LDP hello messages sent to adjacent peers?
A. 224.0.0.6
B. 224.0.0.9
C. 224.0.0.2
D. 224.0.0.5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 283
Which of the following is a valid LDP identifier for a router using per-platform operation?
A. 192.168.1.2:2
B. 134.6.43.1:4
C. 10.0.1.1:1
D. 172.16.1.1:0

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 284
Which are valid modes of MPLS operation?
A. Frame mode
B. Byte mode
C. Cell mode
D. Bit mode

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 285
Which protocols can be used to create MPLS TE tunnels and propagate lables?
A. CR-LDP
B. PIM V2
C. RSVP

D. MP-BGP Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Free practice questions for Cisco 642-611 exam.These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam.You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the Cisco 642-611.

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