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QUESTION 71
The project baseline is _______.
A. Original plans plus the approved changes
B. Important in the project initiation phase
C. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
D. Original plans and the approved major changes
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project baseline: original plans plus the approved changes.

QUESTION 72
Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.

QUESTION 73
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Procurement Management is groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services,
or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

QUESTION 74
You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do with the old original scope?
A. Save the old versions
B. No need to save old version
C. Scrap the old version
D. Old version is not required Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
All the version you should keep in version control system.

QUESTION 75
Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?
A. Quality baseline
B. Quality management plan
C. Process improvement plan
D. QA checklist Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The quality baseline documents the quality objectives for the project.

QUESTION 76
Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Function of the project manager is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBS template
C. sow acceptance
D. Rework Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.

QUESTION 78
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. sow
C. Project Charter
D. Project Scope Statement
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the WBS.

QUESTION 79
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?
A. 10
B. 12

C. 4
D. 5 Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual. In this case 5*(5-1)/2 = 10

QUESTION 80
Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. P’sk breakdown structure
C. Organizational breakdown structure
D. Resource breakdown structure Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The resource breakdown structure organizes all resources in a hierarchical structure, allowing for cost tracking also.
QUESTION 81
If a project with a CPI of 0.8, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming more resources than anticipated.
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then estimated.
CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)

QUESTION 82
Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?
A. Control Scope
B. Manage project team
C. Quality control
D. Manage Scope statement Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scope, schedule, and Control Costs can all result in corrective action, but not preventive action.

QUESTION 83
_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.
A. Project plan
B. sow
C. WBS
D. Strategic planning Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project plan is the road map for the execution of the project.

QUESTION 84
You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory
A. Hierarchy of needs
B. Expectancy theory
C. Achievement theory
D. Al1 of the above Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy theory

QUESTION 85
Which of the following are input of close project process?
A. Project management plan
B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. Al1 of the above Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
All are inputs of close project process.

QUESTION 86
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project
B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
QUESTION 87
Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. The P’oject contract
D. Project closing document Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.

QUESTION 88
Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.
A. Has become part of the business processes
B. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
D. None of the above Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
inclusion mode: Has become part of the business processes. A contract cannot contain _____________.

QUESTION 89
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project
B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope initiation is:
Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.

QUESTION 90
Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood
A. Project Manager
B. Sender
C. Project coordinator
D. Sponsor Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receipt and message is understood, and the receiver needs to ensure that the sender received the acknowledgement.
QUESTION 91
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F’xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. “‘s^ ‘s nc* ‘elated to price Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined

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QUESTION 101
You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see “two-way/DROTHER” listed as the state for neighbor 10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1 1 1 is not a DR or BDR
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan.
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
In which of these phases is a customer’s network assessed to determine its system readiness?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A concern has been expressed that the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration statements can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switch port port-security
B. switch port port-security tagging
C. switch port accessvlan
D. switch port doublE.tag snooping
E. switch port mode access

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. Cisco Works Unrestricted
B. Cisco Works SNMS
C. Campus Manager D. Resource Management Essentials

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
A. theip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. The ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. The neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. The framE.relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 116
Which statement about importing and exporting Adobe Photoshop files from Adobe Illustrator is true?
A. When a Photoshop file is opened in Illustrator all clipping paths are imported.
B. When you export Illustrator files to Photoshop layers they remain vector objects.
C. A Photoshop file can be placed into Illustrator with its layers all available for editing.
D. A Photoshop file with multiple layers can be opened in Illustrator, and have the layers either converted to objects or flattened.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Which statement about layers in Adobe Illustrator is true?
A. Hidden layers are automatically deleted when you flatten an Illustrator document.
B. You CANNOT flatten artwork into a layer that is locked, or a layer that is a template.
C. When merging layers, items will be merged into the layer or group that you selected first.
D. Layers can only merge with other layers that are on a lower hierarchical level in the Layers palette.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
You are applying a stroke and fill to a clipping mask. Which statement is true?
A. The stroke and fill are drawn above the clipped objects.
B. The stroke and fill are drawn below the clipped objects.
C. The stroke is drawn below the clipped objects; the fill is drawn above the clipped objects.
D. The stroke is drawn above the clipped objects; the fill is drawn below the clipped objects.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
When should you assign registration color?
A. when there are printer’s marks
B. when guides are used to align objects in a document
C. when an object should print only on the K (black) separation plate
D. when there are printer’s marks that are hidden while printing separations
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 120
You want gradients between two spot colors to print correctly. What should you do?
A. convert them to process colors
B. specify different screen angles for each color
C. specify the same screen angles for each color
D. apply the gradient to both colors and use white

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
You want to set crop marks directly in your artwork and specify a user defined area that is larger than your artwork but smaller than the artboard. Which command and/or option should you use?
A. Object > Crop Area > Make
B. Filter > Create > Crop Marks
C. Trim Marks in the Marks & Bleed options in the Print dialog box
D. Registration Marks in the Marks & Bleed options in the Print dialog box

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 122
Your artwork contains overlapping objects. In which situation may trapping be unnecessary when producing color separations?
A. The artwork contains only spot colors.
B. The objects all share a common color.
C. The artwork contains only process colors.
D. The separations are produced from a PDF file.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 123
What is the location of the default settings that determine the resolution when complex mesh objects are rasterized?
A. Create Gradient Mesh
B. Transparency Flattener Presets
C. Document Raster Effects Settings
D. Artboard settings in the Document Setup dialog box

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 124
Which rasterization setting can reduce the appearance of jagged edges in the rasterized image, but can reduce the crispness of fine lines and small text?
A. Anti-alias
B. Resolution
C. Background
D. Create Clipping Mask

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 125
You want to flatten all transparency for raster objects when printing.
Which Transparency setting in the Document Setup dialog box should you use?
A. set Raster/Vector Balance to 1
B. set Output Resolution to 72 ppi
C. set Raster/Vector Balance to 100
D. set Rasterization Resolution to 72 ppi

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 126
When setting the rasterization quality for a file in the Document Rasterization Settings dialog box, you set the background to transparent. By selecting Background Transparent, which setting in this dialog is no longer necessary?
A. Anti-alias
B. Resolution
C. Color Model
D. Create Clipping Mask

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 127
Which palette allows you to check what areas of your artwork are affected by transparency?
A. Transparency palette
B. Document Info palette
C. Graphic Styles palette
D. Flattener Preview palette

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 128
Which are two major features of Adobe Illustrator? (Choose two.)
A. Multi-page documents can be created.
B. Precise paths can be created with the pen tool.
C. Portions of an imported image can be extracted.
D. Multiple layers can be created to organize artwork.
E. An imported bitmapped image can be converted to a vector image.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 129
In which situation should you use Adobe Illustrator instead of Adobe Photoshop?
A. when you need to edit individual pixels in a GIF file
B. when you need to slice images created for use on the Web using ImageReady
C. when you need to remove a flaw in an image that was scanned from an old picture
D. when you need to trace a complex drawing that you scanned with the intention of creating a series of bezier curves that will remain in a vector format

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 130
Which is a benefit of the slicing feature in Illustrator?
A. Artwork can be sliced and divided into any geometric shape with the slice tool.
B. An image map of artwork can be created to be exported into separate files for an HTML table.
C. Artwork can be divided into auto slices with guides and URLs can be assigned to the auto slices.
D. An HTML table of object-based slices, text-based slices, auto slices, and user slices can be created.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 131
What can you do while viewing the Actions palette in Button mode?
A. edit actions
B. toggle dialog on/off
C. play sets of actions
D. play an action with a single click

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which statement is true about files saved in the Illustrator (.ai) file format?
A. They can be opened only in Adobe Acrobat.
B. They can be opened only in Adobe InDesign.
C. They can be opened and edited in Adobe Acrobat.
D. They can be opened and edited in Adobe InDesign.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
In which situation should you use Adobe Illustrator instead of Adobe Photoshop?
A. when you need to edit a scanned image that is too dark
B. when you need to edit a screen capture displaying the user interface of an application
C. when you need to combine a series of images taken with a digital camera using options to mask, edit color, and add gaussian blurs
D. when you need to create a logo that will need to be resized often in a page layout program and printed on output devices of different resolutions
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
Which statement is true about the native file format used by Illustrator?
A. Illustrator files support both raster and vector images.
B. ICC profiles can be embedded into all file types exported by Illustrator.
C. SWF (Flash) files can be placed directly into native Illustrator documents.
D. Illustrator files can be opened directly in Adobe Photoshop, while preserving all editable type.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 50
When designing, why would a network architect use active performance monitoring instead of passive performance monitoring?
A. To collect history and event statistics (specific to network devices)
B. To decrease Router CPU utilization on end systems (both user and server)
C. To maintain accurate network statistics (independent of end systems)
D. For performance verification (independent of application servers and users)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Assume that Telnet users of your company are experiencing delays caused by cyclic congestion spikes. Traffic analysis shows minimal use of UDP. Which technology can be used to solve this problem?
A. Committed Access Rate
B. Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Deficit Round Robin
D. Weighted RED
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
When you decide on Campus QoS Design elements, which two statements correctly identify considerations to be taken into account?
A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue.
B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue.
C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service.
D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 53
During periods of congestion, which two impacts are of traffic shaping on traffic flows? (Choose two)
A. More packets dropped
B. Fewer packets dropped
C. Less bandwidth consumption
D. Increased delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 54
WRED is short for Weighted Random Early Detection. Which two descriptions are correct concerning WRED? (Choose two)
A. WRED allows thresholds to be applied to give higher priority applications access to limited buffer resources.
B. WRED throttles TCP-based applications to avoid congestion within the queue servicing the traffic.
C. WRED can inform remote devices that there is congestion on the network by setting the pause bit within the ToS field, instructing end devices to throttle their transmissions.
D. WRED provides bandwidth guarantees for packets within a queue, and tells the scheduler the order in which queues should be served.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 55
You are a network technician. A service provider is providing a QoS-based transport service. Three classes have been defined in the core, including an Expedited Forwarding (EF) class for VoIP traffic.
Which tool will you use at the ingress for the EF class?
A. CB-WFQ
B. WRED
C. Shaping
D. Policing
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
A service provider is offering four classes of service, with each class mapped to a separate queue. Some customers complain about receiving out-of-order packets, which cause application degradation.
Which QoS policy activity most likely causes these out-of-order packets?
A. WRED
B. Policing
C. Traffic shaping
D. Remarking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
You are a network technician. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network are equal cost, and Router1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route are displayed on the diagram.
Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?
Exhibit: A. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router 1.

B. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router 3.
C. Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the Router 4- 3 link.
D. Router 1 will not use Router 4 and 3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Users at the your Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer-to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
B. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
C. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
D. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame Relay link, what should be used in the CPE?
A. Fragmentation
B. Prioritization
C. Classification
D. Traffic shaping
Correct Answer: D

Image result for 352-001
QUESTION 60
Fair queuing is a scheduling algorithm used in computer and telecommunications networks to allow multiple packet flows to fairly share the link capacity. How does Fair Queuing divide bandwidth?
A. Between all destinations relative to traffic load
B. Between classes of service based on traffic load
C. Equally between all classes of service
D. Equally between all flows
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two)
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees.
B. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
C. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.
D. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 62
RSVP is short for Resource Reservation Protocol. Which statement is true about the RSVP protocol?
A. It is initiated uni-directionally along the data path downstream from each requesting node.
B. It is only for avoiding packet drop on collision-prone media (such as Ethernet).
C. It is only shared by pairs of peers participating in delay-sensitive, real-time applications like VoIP.
D. It is reserved bi-directionally by each originating node.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Which description is true about RSVP reservations?
A. Dynamic, allocated when requested, and removed at the end of each session for which they were requested
B. Static, and must always be installed after power-up
C. Static, and cannot be removed once they are first requested by a delay-sensitive, real-time application
D. Dynamic, and depend on the amount of delay-sensitive, real-time data passing through

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
LLQ is short for Low Latency Queue .VoIP traffic is mapped to (LLQ) over a slow speed link. Which kind of delay will seriously affect the quality of voice for this link?
A. Encoding delay
B. Packetization delay
C. Propagation delay
D. Serialization delay

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
Which control plane problem can be prevented by implementing QoS, and how to eliminate the problem?
A. BGP instability, by prioritizing Precedence 6 traffic (per RFC 791)
B. OSPF instability, by remarking to Precedence 6 (per RFC 791)
C. OSPF instability, by using WRED to prioritize Precedence 6 routing updates (per RFC 791)
D. BGP instability, by means of traffic shaping updates (per RFC 791) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Header compression is the most cost-effective way to increase link efficiency for VoIP traffic.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
C. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
A. Packet loss of 2 percent or less
B. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
C. One-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. Jitter of 30 ms or less

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
You are the Cisco Network Designer . Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Gold
B. QoS must be set to Platinum
C. QoS must be set to Silver
D. WMM must be enabled

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 70
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Your company is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 14
D. 5

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71

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QUESTION 110
You have adjusted the settings for a Raw image. You want to apply those settings to another image in
Bridge. What should you do?
Options:

A. In the adjusted image, choose Edit > Copy, then select another image and choose Edit > Paste
B. In the adjusted image, choose Edit > Develop Settings > Copy Camera Raw Settings, then select another image and choose Edit > Develop Settings > Paste Camera Raw Settings
C. Choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor
D. Choose Tools > Photoshop > Process Collections in Photoshop

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You have adjusted the settings for a Raw image. You want to apply those settings to another image in
Bridge. What should you do?
Options:

A. Bridge
B. Photoshop
C. After Effects
D. Camera Raw

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
You want to assign keywords to your image files in Bridge. Where will you find the list of available
keywords?
Options:

A. Keywords Panel
B. Tools > Append Metadata
C. In the Keywords options of the Preferences dialog box
D. In the Filter Panel, expand the Keywords

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
You have created a Collection of multiple files that you plan to use in a project. You want to see only the
Photoshop files in that Collection. What should you do?
Options:

A. Select Photoshop document in the Filters panel
B. Apply the keyword Photoshop to each file
C. Choose Tools > Photoshop > Batch
D. Choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
You want to use Bridge to perform a one-time search for all images in the current folder that contain the
keyword “night” and were shot at an ISO Speed Rating faster than 800.Which feature would perform this
search precisely and with the least amount of setup?
Options:

A. The Find command
B. The Quick Search field
C. A Smart Collection
D. The Filter panel

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
You handle hundreds of incoming TIFF files during a normal workweek, and you need to automatically process only the files exceeding a certain file size. Why is a script a better solution than an action? Options:
A. Scripts are not limited by file size
B. Scripts are not limited by the number of files processed
C. Scripts support conditional (if/then) statements
D. Scripts work on any file format supported by Photoshop
E. Scripts are not limited by file size
F. Scripts are not limited by the number of files processed
G. Scripts support conditional (if/then) statements
H. Scripts work on any file format supported by Photoshop

Correct Answer: CG
QUESTION 116
You want an action to open a dialog box and wait for input from the user, and without recording the dialog
box settings in effect when you create the action. Which method will achieve the goal?
Options:

A. After you record opening the dialog box, click Cancel.
B. After you record opening the dialog box, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) to change the Cancel button to Reset, and click that button.
C. Choose Insert Menu Item from the Actions panel menu and select the command you want the action to choose
D. After you record opening the dialog box, choose Insert Stop from the Actions panel menu.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
What does the Compatibility option in the Batch dialog box do? Options:
A. Makes files compatible with the appropriate color spac
B. Makes actions compatible with previous versions of Photoshop
C. Makes file names compatible with supported operating systems
D. Makes file formats compatible with supported operating systems

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
You would like to write a script that you can run in Photoshop. Which scripting language can you use in
Photoshop that will run on both Windows and the Mac OS?
Options:

A. VB Script
B. AppleScript
C. JavaScript
D. Ajax
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
Where do you choose the Photomerge command in Photoshop? Options:.
A. File > Automate
B. File > Export
C. File > Scripts
D. The Actions panel

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
You want to start from a folder of TIFF images, batch rename them, convert them to sRGB, and fit each within 600 by 600 pixels. Why should you use Batch processing instead of the Image Processor? Options:
A. Running a Batch action supports TIFF images
B. Running a Batch action supports batch-renaming
C. Running a Batch action supports conversion to sRGB
D. Running a Batch action supports conversion to sRGB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
You have selected several images in Bridge. Which command allows you to convert multiple files to
another format without first creating an action?
Options:

A. Tools > Photoshop > Batch
B. Tools > Photoshop > Photomerge
C. Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor
D. Tools > Photoshop > Process Collection in Photoshop

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 122
Which feature will allow you to have an event, such as opening or saving a file, trigger a Photoshop
action?
Options:

A. Actions
B. Scripting
C. Adjustments
D. Batch actions

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
You’ve standardized your workflow around Adobe RGB (1998). How do you configure the Color Settings dialog box so that you’re always alerted when an RGB image you open contains a profile that’s different than the RGB working space in the Color Settings dialog box?

Options:
A. In the Working Spaces section, make sure Adobe RGB (1998) is selected in the RGB pop-up menu.
B. In the Color Management Policies section, choose Convert to Working RGB from the RGB pop-up menu.
C. In the Color Management Policies section, select the Ask When Opening check box in the Profile Mismatches check box.
D. In the Color Management Policies section, select the Ask When Opening check box in the Missing Profiles check box.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 47
A network administrator needs to be notified if someone attempts to tamper with or shut down the VPN connection on an iPad or iPhone. Which product should the administrator use to configure the notification alert?
A. Mobile Email Monitor
B. Mobile Device Management
C. Network Prevent
D. Mobile Prevent

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which command attempts to find the name of the drive in the private region and to match it to a disk media record that is missing a disk access record?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdctl
C. vxreattach
D. vxrecover

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
What is the correct configuration for BoxMonitor.Channels that will allow the server to start as a Network Monitor server?
A. Packet Capture, Span Port
B. Packet Capture, Network Monitor
C. Packet Capture, Network Tap
D. Packet Capture, Copy Rule

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is testing the DLP installation by placing .EML files into the drop folder, but has been
unsuccessful in generating any incidents. The administrator is checking the Advanced Server Settings
page to see if it can help diagnose the issue.
What could be causing this problem?

A. BoxMonitor.IncidentWriter setting needs to be set to Test
B. BoxMonitor.FileReader needs to be set to default
C. BoxMonitor.IncidentWriterMemory is set too high
D. BoxMonitor.Channels contains an incompatible entry

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
An administrator needs to remove an agent and its associated events from a specific Endpoint Server. Which Agent Task does the administrator need to perform to disable its visibility in the Enforce UI?
A. Delete action from the Agent Summary page
B. Disable action from Symantec Management Console
C. Change Endpoint Server action from the Agent Overview page
D. Delete action from the Agent Health dashboard

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
An administrator pulls the Services and Operation logs off of a DLP Agent by using the Pull Logs action. What happens to the log files after the administrator performs the Pull Logs action?
A. they are stored directly on the Enforce server
B. they are transferred directly to the Enforce Server and deleted from the DLP Agent
C. they are created on the DLP Agent then pulled down to the Enforce server
D. they are temporarily stored on the DLP Agent’s Endpoint server

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 53
A company needs to disable USB devices on computers that are generating a number of recurring DLP incidents. It decides to implement Endpoint Lockdown using Endpoint Prevent, which integrates with Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and Symantec Management Platform. After incidents are still detected from several agents, the company determines that a component is missing.
Which component needs to be added to disable the USB devices once incidents are detected?
A. Control Compliance Suite
B. Workflow Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Risk Automation Suite

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A compliance officer needs to understand how the company is complying with its data security policies over time. Which report should the compliance officer generate to obtain the compliance information?
A. Policy Trend report, summarized by policy, then quarter
B. Policy Trend report, summarized by policy, then severity
C. Policy report, filtered on quarter, and summarized by policy
D. Policy report, filtered on date, and summarized by policy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 197
What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Destination IP address
B. SIC revoke certificate event
C. Number of concurrent IKE negotiations
D. Most accessed Rule Base rule

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 198
How do you use SmartView Monitor to compile traffic statistics for your company’s Internet Web activity during production hours?
A. View total packets passed through the Security Gateway.
B. Configure a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway.
C. Use Traffic settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day.
D. Select Tunnels view, and generate a report on the statistics.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 199
What happens when you run the commanD. fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?
A. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
B. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked with the need to change the Security Policy.
C. Connections from the specified source are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
D. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 200
An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R76 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).
Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.
If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?
A. The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the day.
B. The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R75 Security Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.
C. The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.
D. The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because itis VPN traffic. Disable all
VPNconfiguration to the partner site to enable proper logging.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 201
Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to operate correctly?
A. 256
B. 514
C. 258
D. 257

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 202
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp and would like to view network activity using SmartReporter. You select a standard predefined report. As you can see here, you can select the london Gateway.

When you attempt to configure the Express Report, you are unable to select this Gateway.

What is the reason for this behavior? Give the BEST answer.
A. You must enable the Eventia Express Mode on the london Gateway.

B. You must enable Monitoring in the london Gateway object’s General Properties.
C. You have the license for Eventia Reporter in Standard mode only.
D. You must enable the Express Mode inside Eventia Reporter.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 203
In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A. Rule 0
B. Blank field under Rule Number
C. Cleanup Rule
D. Rule 1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 204
A third-shift Security Administrator configured and installed a new Security Policy early this morning. When you arrive, he tells you that he has been receiving complaints that Internet access is very slow. You suspect the Security Gateway virtual memory might be the problem. Which SmartConsole component would you use to verify this?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. This information can only be viewed with the command fw ctl pstat from the CLI.
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Analyzer

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 205
You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the problematic host. You want to block this for an hour while you investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do
you achieve this?
A. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
B. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
C. Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 206
In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs. What can you do to keep old log files, when free space falls below 45 MB?
A. Do nothing. The Security Management Server automatically copies old logs to a backup server before purging.
B. Use the command fwm logexport to export the old log files to another location.
C. Configure a script to run fw logswitch and SCP the output file to a separate file server.
D. Do nothing. Old logs are deleted, until free space is restored.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 207
How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?
A. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.
B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.
C. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.
D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 208
True or FalsE. SmartView Monitor can be used to create alerts on a specified Gateway.
A. False, alerts can only be set in SmartDashboard Global Properties.
B. True, by choosing the Gateway and selecting System Information.
C. False, an alert cannot be created for a specified Gateway.
D. True, by right-clicking on the Gateway and selecting Configure Thresholds.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 209
Which R76 SmartConsole tool would you use to verify the installed Security Policy name on a Security Gateway?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 210
Which R76 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy install?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 211

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QUESTION 355
Which of the following label operations can be performed by a P router that is not a penultimate router in the MPLS VPN path?
A. Pop
B. Purge
C. Push
D. Swap

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 356
If labels are being distributed in an MPLS network but no labels are being allocated for local routes, what could be the problem?
A. There is an error with the conditional label distribution configurat on.
B. CEF is disabled on the LSR.
C. There are no LDP neighborships established to the LSR.
D. CEF is not enabled on an input interface.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 357
If you use the configuration statement “mpls mtu 1512” how many labels in a label stack are being allowed for?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 358
In an MPLS domain that carries BGP traffic it is best to use host routes without summarization for BGP next hop addresses. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 359
How is the TTL field in the label header generated?
A. It is set to a number equal to the number of hops in the MPLS path plus 1.
B. It is copied from the TTL field in the IP header on ingress.
C. It is copied from the TTL field in the IP header on egress.
D. It is set to 255 when enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 360
What does PHP stand for?
A. Packet Hierarchical Priority.
B. Previous Hop Pushing.
C. Packet Header Priorities.
D. Penultimate Hop Popping.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 361
What is true about a VPNv4 address?
A. It contains an RD and an IPV4 address.
B. It is 96 bits long.
C. They are unique within the local PE.
D. They are propagated using the core IGP.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 362
What is the correct order following initialization for the following frame mode MPLS label functions:
A. Every LSR completes its LIB, LFIB and FIX data structures
B. Each LSR assigns a label to every FEC.
C. IP routing protocols build their routing tables.
D. LSR’s announce their labels to their peer LSR’s.
E. B, D, A, C
F. B, C, D, A
G. C, A, B, D
H. C, B, D, A

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 363
What is NOT true about VC-merge in ATM MPLS networks?
A. It can cause jitter or delay across the network.
B. It increases buffer requirements.
C. It buffers cells for a whole frame before forwarding them.
D. It allows you to use per-interface label allocation.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 364
TDP is the default labeling protocol but LDP has to be used when peering to non-Cisco devices. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 365
Which IGP IP routing protocols support MPLS traffic engineering?
A. RIP v2
B. IS-IS
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 366
Which of the following router types has to perform an IP routing table lookup when forwarding a packet over an MPLS network if PHP is active?
A. Egress PE router
B. P router
C. Penultimate P router
D. CE router

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is certain that option A (Egress PE router) needs to perform an IP lookup, but CE router, being the
receiver does not apply (not D).

QUESTION 367
PE to CE routing protocols supported are, RIPv2, OSPF and EBGP. Which of the following situations would best suit the use of EBGP?
A. Stub sites which are not concerned with convergence.
B. For very large customer networks that presently use OSPF.
C. Where many routes may be originated by the customer.
D. For complex multihomed scenarios.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 368
If a customer using BGP as a PE to CE routing protocol is connected to two VPN’s there is a problem
because the customer router will not be able to route between the two VPN’s due to the provider AS
number being the same for both, which is rejected in standard BGP.
What is a BGP facility that can provide a workaround to this problem?

A. AS-transparent
B. AS-passthrough
C. No-ascheck
D. Allowas-in

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 369
In MPLS VPN’s which protocol propagates VPN labels?
A. RSVP
B. MP-BGP
C. CR-LDP
D. PIM V2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 370
How many route targets can be attached to an advertised route?
A. 0
B. Many
C. 2
D. 1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 371
Which of the following routing protocols can support multiple processes?
A. RIPv2
B. EBGP
C. OSPF

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 372
What does VRF stand for?
A. VPN routing and forwarding instance.
B. VPN route filter.
C. VPN routing formatter.
D. VPN routing function.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 373
What is the name of the entity that indicates VPN membership within an MPLS VPN?
A. PE
B. Route target
C. VPNv4 address
D. Route distinguisher

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 374
What is the function of the “S bit” in the MPLS header?
A. It is a service bit which when set indicates this label is active.
B. It is a bottom of stack bit which when set indicated that this is not the last label in the stack.
C. It is a bottom of stack bit which when set it indicates that this is the last label in the stack.
D. It is a service bit which when set indicates this label is not active.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 375
In VPN terms what is the name given to an MPLS device that interfaces with a customer site router?
A. CE
B. PE
C. CPE
D. P

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 376
Which command would you include in a configuration for a basic LC-ATM interface on a Catalyst ATM switch?
A. (config)#int atm 0/0 (config-if)#mpls ip
B. (config)#int atm 0/0 point-to-multipoint (config-if)#mpls ip
C. (config)#int atm 0/0 point-to-point (config-if)#mpls ip
D. (config)#int atm 0/0 tag-switching (config-if)#mpls ip

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 377
The TTL field in the MPLS header is used to prevent loops forming. How many bits are allocated to that field?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 378
In MPLS frame mode where in the packet is the label inserted?
A. Between layers 3 and 4.
B. Between layers 4 and 5.
C. Between layers 2 and 3.
D. Between layers 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 379
A Label Switch Path (LSP) tunnel is ______?
A. Bidirectional
B. Multidirectional
C. Unidirectional

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 225
The Cisco CallManager dial plan architecture is set up to handle two general types of calls. What are they? (Choose all that apply.)
A. External calls through a SAA Gateway
B. External calls through a PSTN gateway or to another Cisco CallManager cluster
C. Internal calls From the source router to the PBX-1
D. Internal calls to Cisco IP phones registered to the Cisco CallManager cluster itself-
E. Internal calls from the IP SoftPhone to the 7200 VXR2
F. External calls through the last downstream CallManager phone set.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 226
From the list below, what protocol is designed to provide end-to-end network transport functions for applications transmitting real-time data, such as audio, video, or simulation data, over Multicast or Unicast network services.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436

A. CAM
B. IPTV
C. STP
D. RTP
E. DMVRP
F. PIM
G. IS-IS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 227
Which statement represents the definition of an MGCP endpoint?
A. The interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks.
B. Any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, ect).
C. IP hones
D. The gatekeepers in a VoIP network.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A typical MGCP gateway environment connects on one side with a public switched telephone network (PSTN), and on the other side with an IP network. Specialized call agent applications control the flow of media data across the distributed environment. Call agents determine the route that data follows as it flows through the system. Multiple call agents can control call processing and data transfer. These call agents use a separate protocol to synchronize with each other and to send coherent commands to modules under their control. MGCP assumes a connection model where the basic constructs are endpoints and connections. Endpoints are sources or sinks of data and could be physical or virtual. Examples of physical endpoints are:
*
An interface on a gateway that terminates a trunk connected to a PSTN switch (e.g., Class 5, Class 4,
etc.). A gateway that terminates trunks is called a trunk gateway.
*
An interface on a gateway that terminates analog POTS connection to a phone, key system, PBX, etc. A
gateway that terminates residential POTS lines (to phones) is called a residential gateway.
An example of a virtual endpoint is an audio source in an audio- content server. Creation of physical
endpoints requires hardware installation, while creation of virtual endpoints can be done by software.

QUESTION 228
What are the three components in an MGCP environment? (Choose three)
A. Gateway Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
B. Gatekeeper
C. Endpoint
D. Call agent
E. Proxy server

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A typical MGCP gateway environment connects on one side with a public switched telephone network (PSTN), and on the other side with an IP network. Specialized call agent applications control the flow of media data across the distributed environment. Call agents determine the route that data follows as it flows through the system. Multiple call agents can control call processing and data transfer. These call agents use a separate protocol to synchronize with each other and to send coherent commands to modules under their control. Each call agent usually controls a set of gateway applications, including at least one media gateway. Media gateways convert media signals to an appropriate format depending on whether the signals are directed to a circuit switched network format or a packet switched network. Media gateways primarily perform audio signal translation functions in accordance with call agent commands. Note: Gateways connected to an SS7 controlled network must also include at least one signaling gateway for controlling SS7 signaling. The MGCP connection model consists of endpoints and connections. Endpoints represent physical or virtual sources through which data can flow (for example, PSTN ports on a media gateway). Call agents combine sets of endpoints under their control to create point-to-point or multipoint connections. Connections provide data paths for transferring and processing the data that flows through the gateway environment. In the MGCP model, call control intelligence resides in the call agents, not in the media gateways. In effect, the MGCP standard defines a master/slave relationship between call agents and media gateways, where gateways execute commands sent by the call agents. MGCP is a client-server protocol. The CA handles all aspects of setting up calls to and from endpoints. CAs or control servers provide the feature capabilities that a particular endpoint will be able to use. Endpoints connected to different CAs will likely have a different set of features they can use. Since all of the call control features are in the control server, each control server vendor decides which features are most important, and therefore different control server vendors differ in “essential features.” MGCP relies on a control server, or call agent (CA), to control call progression, tones to apply, and call characteristics. MGCP endpoints carry out instructions from the CA, which controls how calls proceed.
QUESTION 229
With regard to MGCP, what is a call?
A. It is the path between two telephones. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
B. It is the RTP sessions between the endpoints.
C. It is a connection between an endpoint and the call agent.
D. It is two or more endpoints sharing the same Call ID and the same media stream.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 230
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. You are deploying an IP telephony solution using MGCP.
The call agent expects the gateway to use UDP port 2427 but an application on the Certkiller network is
already using that port. You want to use port 4662 instead.
Which command would allow you to change the UDP port that the call agents and gateway communicate
on?

A. Router(config)# mgcp UDP 4662
B. Router(config)# mgcp gateway 4662
C. Router(config)# mgcp call-agent 4662
D. Router(config-dial-peer)#application MGCPAPP 4662
E. Router(config)# mgcp default-package gm-package 4662

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 231
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller .com. Numerous Certkiller users complain that they are unable to
complete calls through the MGCP network. You want to verify the extent of the problem by reviewing a
count of the successful and unsuccessful control commands.
Which command should you use?

A. show mgcp
B. show mgcp count
C. show mgcp statistics
D. show call active voice
E. show call history voice

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 232
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. You want to verify the registration of the gateway with the
call agent.
Which show command should you use?

A. show mgcp Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
B. show call agent
C. show gateway mgcp
D. show endpoint mgcp
E. show call active voice

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 233
What identifies an MGCP endpoint?
A. A two part identifier that consists of thetelephone number and local name of the user.
B. A two part identifier that consists of thetelephone number and remote name of the user.
C. A two part identifier that consists of the domain name of the user and the IP address of the gateway.
D. A two part identifier that consists of the local name of the user and the domain name of the gateway.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 234
DRAG DROP Assume a SIP voice network. Drag each characteristic to the type of SIP call setup the characteristics best describes.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Explanation:
“Server reports back to a UA with destination coordinates” is a function of the a Redirect Server (p. 6-94 of
CVoice version 4.1 class books). Reference pages 6-91 – 6-94 of CVoice version 4.1 class books.

QUESTION 235

For Scalability and ease of management, the decision has been made to centralize the location of all SIP
endpoints in servers.
When phone A wants to call Phone B. it asks Certkiller A how to find Phone B.
What kind of device is Certkiller A?

A. Proxy
B. Redirect
C. Registrar
D. User agent client
E. User agent server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SIP ServersSIP servers include:

1.
Proxy server-the proxy server is an intermediate device that receives SIP requests from a client and then forwards the requests on the client’s behalf. Basically, proxy servers receive SIP messages and forward them to the next SIP server in the network. Proxy servers can provide functions such as authentication, authorization, network access control, routing, reliable request retransmission, and security.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

2.
Redirectserver-Providesthe client with information about the next hop or hops that a message should take and then the client contacts the next hop server or UAS directly.

3.
Registrar server-Processes requests from UACs for registration of their current location. Registrar servers are often co-located with a redirect or proxy server. Redirect server: A redirect server is a server that accepts a SIP request, maps the address into zero or more new addresses and returns these addresses to the client
QUESTION 236
What is the function of a SIP location server?
A. Resolves active endpoint addresses
B. Routes service requests
C. Acquires active endpoint addresses
D. Resolves text addresses to IP addresses

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The correct answer should be “Resolves active endpoint addresses” based on the following from CVoice version 4.1 class books on pages 6-84 and 6-89. A Location Server is defined (on page 6-84) as: An abstraction of a service providing address resolution services to SIP proxy or redirect servers. A location server embodies mechanisms to resolve addresses. On page 6-89 a Registrar Server is described as a server that acquires addresses for the location server.
QUESTION 237

Given the SIP network shown in the diagram identify which three actions are initiated by the UAC (user agent client)? (Choose three)
A. Initiates a SIP requests.
B. Originated the BYE method to indicate call termination.
C. Originates the ACK method to indicate that it has receives a response to its invitation.
D. Contacts the user when a SIP invitation is receives.
E. Returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
Explanation:
1.4.4 SIP Invitation A successful SIP invitation consists of two requests, INVITE followed by ACK. The INVITE (Section 4.2.1) request asks the callee to join a particular conference or establish a two-party conversation. After the callee has agreed to participate in the call, the caller confirms that it has received that response by sending an ACK (Section 4.2.2) request. If the caller no longer wants to participate in the call, it sends a BYE request instead of an ACK.

QUESTION 238

Which characteristic is true about SIP protocol messages?
A. Binary
B. Text-based
C. Numeric
D. Encrypted

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Format
All SIP messages are either requests from a server or client or responses to a request. The messages are
formatted according to RFC 822,
“Standard for the format of ARPA internet text messages.” For all messages, the general format is:

1.
A start line

2.
One or more header fields

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

3.
An empty line
4.
A message body (optional)
Each line must end with a carriage return-line feed (CRLF).

QUESTION 239
Upon which protocol model is the SIP protocol based?
A. HTML
B. H.323
C. Q.931
D. MGCP
E. HTPP/WWW

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 240
With regard to SIP and SDP, which of the following statements is true?
A. SIP is similar to RAS and SDP is similar to RTP
B. SIP is similar to RTP and SDP is similar to RAS
C. SIP is similar to H.225 and SDP is similar to H.245
D. SIP is similar to H.245 and SDP is similar to H.323
E. SIP is similar to H.323 and SDP is similar to H.225

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 241
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. You are configuring a connection to a SIP proxy server. Which command would you use to specify the IP address of the server?
A. sip-ua sip-server ipv4:1.2.3.4
B. sip-ua sip-server target:1.2.3.4
C. dial-peer voice 1 voip session target sip:1.2.3.4
D. dial-peer voice 1 voip session target sip-server:1.2.3.4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 242
Which of the following call control models are based on decentralized call control? (Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. H.323
D. Q.931
E. MGCP

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 243
You are meeting with a customer that has deployed IP telephony at their headquarters location. They would like to roll out IP telephony to their regional office as well. They are now using the G.711 codec at headquarters. They want to be able to maximize the number of calls carried without impacting voice quality or forcing a WAN upgrade. Which codec would be appropriate for their WAN?
A. G.726
B. G.723.1
C. G.711
D. G.729B

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 244
Examine the output. ccm-manager mgcp ! mgcp 5036 ! voice-port 1/0/0 ! voice-port 1/0/1 ! dial-peer voice 1 pots application MGCPAPP port 1/0/0 ! dial-peer voice 2 ports application MGCPAPP
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
port 1/0/1 ! Your customer has sent you their MGCP gateway configuration. They are unable to get the gateway to communicate with the call agent. What command needs to be inserted to resolve the problem?
A. ccm-manager mgcp 172.16.1.1
B. mgcp call-agent 172.16.1.1
C. application MGCPAPP 172.16.1.1
D. mgcp 5036 172.16.1.1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 245
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
request method initiates a SIP call setup.
What will your reply be?

A. ACK
B. INVITE
C. OPTIONS
D. REGISTER
E. DISCOVER

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 246

hostname CK1 ! interface serial 0/0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.248
!
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
controller t1 framing esp clock source line linecode b8zs ds0-group 1timeslots 1-24 type e&m-wink-start ! voice-port 1/0:1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 404555…. session-target ipv4:172.16.1.6 ! dial-peer voice 2 ports destination-pattern 201555…. port 1/0:1 hostname CK2 ! interface serial 0/0 ip address 172.16.1.6 255.255.255.248 ! controller t1 framing esp clock source line linecode b8zs ds0-group 1timeslots 1-24 type e&m-wink-start ! voice-port 1/0:1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 201555…. session-target ipv4:172.16.1.1 ! dial-peer voice 2 ports destination-pattern 404555…. port 1/0:1 Use the figure above to answer this question. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are digits manipulated in R1 so they are presented correctly at CK2 ?
A. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, the digits 404-555 are stripped off prior to matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
B. When extension 202-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, the digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and CK2 receives only 1200.
C. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, the outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
D. When extension 201-555 1000 dials 404-555-1200, CK1 collects the 1200 and Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 247
How is CAS different on E1 and T1?
A. T1 has more signaling channels.
B. E1 CAS signaling is out-of-band while T1 is in-band.
C. E1 uses robbed-bit signaling.
D. T1 uses the D channel for CAS signaling.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 248
When impendence is mismatched in a two-wire to four-wire circuit, what is the common result?
A. glare
B. jitter
C. echo
D. clipping

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 249
In the connection between a Cisco router and an E&M port on a PBX, which side is generally the Cisco side?
A. loop start
B. trunk circuit
C. switch port
D. signaling unit

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Analog trunk circuits connect automated systems, such as a private branch exchange (PBX) and the network, such as a central office (CO). The most common form of analog trunking is the E&M interface. E&M Signaling is commonly refer to as “ear & mouth” or “recEive and transMit”, but its origin comes from the term earth and magnet. Earth represents electrical ground and magnet represents the electromagnet used to generate
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
tone. E&M signaling defines a trunk circuit side and a signaling unit side for each connection similar to the data circuit-terminating equipment (DCE) and data terminal equipment (DTE) reference type. Usually the PBX is the trunk circuit side and the telco, CO, channel-bank, or Cisco voice enabled platform is the signaling unit side. Note:Cisco’s analog E&M interface functions as the signaling unit side, so it expects the other side to be a trunk circuit.
QUESTION 250
You are the network technician at Certkiller .com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know
which signal types are used by E&M.
What will your reply be?

A. wink start, delay start, and loop start
B. wink start, loop start, and immediate start
C. wink start, delay start, and immediate start
D. delay start, and loop start, and immediate start

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 251

In an effort to consume less bandwidth across the WAN, the decision was made at Certkiller to change the voice packet size. They changed from two voice frames per packet to one voice frame per packet. What effect did this have on Certkiller ‘s voice traffic?
A. Per call bandwidth consumption decreased and end-to-end delay increased.
B. Per call bandwidth consumption increased and end-to-end delay decreased.
C. Per call bandwidth consumption decreased and end-to-end delay decreased.
D. Per call bandwidth consumption increased and end-to-end delay also increased.
E. There was no effect on voice traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 252
You have been forwarded some questions by a prospective VoIP customer who would like to know the
Cisco default sample size for the G.729 codec.
What is it?

A. 40 ms
B. 30 ms
C. 20 ms
D. 10 ms

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Codec Sample Interval (ms) This is the sample interval at which the codec operates. For example, the
G.729 coder operates on sample intervals of 10 ms, corresponding to 10 bytes (80 bits) per sample at a bit rate of 8 Kbps. (codec bit rate = codec sample size / codec sample interval).
QUESTION 253
What component can be used to compensate for jitter?
A. FIFO queuing
B. Ethernet hubs
C. DSP algorithms
D. Playout delay buffer
E. Transmission medium

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 254
You are the network engineer at Certkiller .com. Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and a branch
office in Delaware. Users at headquarters must be able to call users at the branch office and users at the
branch office must be able to call headquarters.
How many dial peers must you configure to meet these requirements?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. none Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

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The current site requires an asset that is located in another site. What is the most efficient way to access and use that asset?
A. The user is not able to use an asset from one site in another site.
B. Locate the asset and copy it from the other site. Paste the asset into the desired page of the current site.
C. Open the other site containing the needed asset and from its Assets panel, drag the asset onto the open page in the present site.
D. Locate the asset in the other site, right-click (CTRL-click Mac) the asset, choose Copy to Site, then select the new site and click OK.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
When Dreamweaver form validation behavior is attached to a specific form element other than the Submit button, when will the behavior be triggered by default?
A. when the form is reset
B. when the form is submitted
C. when the user selects the form control to which the behavior is attached
D. when the user de-selects the form control to which the behavior is attached

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 108
What features enable source management and communications tracking within a collaborative development environment? (Choose TWO)
A. Snippets
B. Libraries
C. File panel
D. Design notes
E. Check-In/Check-Out

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 109
What happens when a template with three editable regions is applied to an existing page without an attached template?
A. prompts to update the template
B. content of the page is placed within the largest editable region
C. prompts to assign the document body to one of the editable regions
D. prompts what region to unlock and then places the content in that region

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
What feature enables a developer to use a web page layout that was created in a graphic application as a blueprint for the actual web page development in Dreamweaver?
A. Grid
B. Guide Layer
C. Tracing Image
D. Image Placeholder

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
A page has an external style sheet attached that defines the H3 tag as Arial, 14 point, and the color red. The page also has an internal style that defines the H3 tag to use Verdana, 12 point with no color change. How does H3 text appear on the page?
A. Arial, 14 point, red
B. Arial, 12 point, black
C. Verdana, 12 point, red
D. Verdana, 12 point, black

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
What built-in feature allows the web developer to isolate a business address into a single unit that can later be easily edited and automatically updated on every page?
A. Template
B. Placeholder
C. Library Item
D. Tracing Image
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
What is the correct workflow for XSL transformation in Dreamweaver?
A. Create RSS > Generate dynamic page > Output XSL as XML
B. Create RSS from dynamic page > Generate XSL > Output XML as web page
C. Create XML > Create XSL file using XML > Use XSL transformation in dynamic web page
D. Create XML > Include XML into dynamic page > Server transforms XSL to RSS for viewing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 114
How can a custom style be removed from a linked external style sheet?
A. Delete it in the CSS panel.
B. Detach the style sheet that contains the style.
C. Select the paragraph text and choose No Style from the CSS Styles panel.
D. Create a new tag-based style for the same tag and overwrite the existing one.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
What is an advantage of using the POST method rather than the GET method for an HTML form?
A. POST method is more efficient.
B. Form data is not exposed to the user.
C. No validation of form data is possible with the GET method.
D. Only PERL scripts can work with the GET method to process forms data.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 116
What is the purpose of placing an image at the end of an HTML document and setting height and width attributes to a value of 1?
A. Cache the image.
B. Define table borders.
C. Create an image map.
D. Create a thumbnail image.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
In CSS, what is used as a prefix for ID Selectors?
A. %
B. ,
C. #
D. $

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
What must separate each item in a list of terms and definitions before applying a Definition List?
A. indent
B. line break
C. tab delimiter
D. paragraph break

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 119
When setting the action of an HTML form to use the mailto command and sending the form data to an email address, what Enctype setting is necessary to present this data in a readable format in the body of the email?
A. text
B. plain
C. text/plain
D. “multipart/form-data

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
How is Dreamweaver configured to add multiple consecutive spaces within the output of a web page using the Spacebar?
A. It is not possible to add multiple consecutive spaces using the Spacebar.
B. Select the HTML Tab > Character pull down menu > Non Breaking Space.
C. Open the site definition window and select Allow multiple spaces from the Design Notes category.
D. Select Preferences > General category. Check the box labeled Allow multiple consecutive spaces.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
From which Insert bar tabs can a table be inserted? (Choose TWO)
A. Text
B. HTML
C. Layout
D. Forms
E. Common

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 122
What change will make this style’s .CSS file correct?

A. Remove the <style> and </style> tags.
B. Change “font-family” to “font” on Line #5
C. Change “text-align” to “text-position” on Line #7
D. Change the <style> tag to <jscript> and </style> to </jscript>.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
While working in Design view in Dreamweaver, two vertical guides are dragged onto the page. How is the exact distance between the two guides determined?
A. Choose View > Guides > Show Distance
B. Place your mouse pointer between both guides, right-click, and choose Show Distance
C. Shift + Click both guides to select them both and the distance will automatically be shown
D. Place your mouse pointer between both guides and press the Control key (Windows) or Command key (Macintosh)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
What Visual Aid displays the margin, border, and padding of CSS elements?
A. Layer Outline
B. CSS Layout Outlines
C. CSS Layout Box Mode
D. CSS Background Layout Background

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 125
Given the following code, what occurs in a browser that supports Cascading Style Sheets (CSS)?
<html>
<head>
<title>Shelob’s Lair</title>
<meta http-equiv=”Content-Type” content=”text/html; charset=iso-8859-1″>
<link href=”A.css” rel=”stylesheet” type=”text/css”>
<link href=”B.css” rel=”stylesheet” type=”text/css”>
</head>

A. A.css overrides B.css
B. B.css completely overrides A.css
C. conflicting styles in B.css overrides those in A.css
D. conflicting styles in A.css overrides those in B.css

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 126
While in Design view, what methods may be used to attach a hyperlink to highlighted text? (Choose TWO)
A. Modify > Text > Hyperlink
B. Code > HTML > Hyperlink
C. Property inspector > Point to File
D. Property inspector > Browse for File
E. Property inspector > Create Hyperlink

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 127
An image is inserted in a page from a folder outside of the current site using the Image command. What option is set to automatically copy that image to a folder in the site without generating a warning message?
A. Select the image in the Files panel and then click Put Files.
B. Define the default images folder in the Site Definition dialog box.
C. Use General category of the Preferences dialog box and deselect the option to show a dialog when inserting objects.
D. Right-click (CTRL-click Mac) on the image in the Files panel and then choose Insert image without dialog from the context menu.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 128
What does the following statement do? if(!myFlag)(x=y;)
A. sets x=y if myFlag exists
B. sets x=y if myFlag is true or 1
C. sets x=y if myFlag is false or 0
D. sets x=y if myFlag is equal to x

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
What actions can be performed when multiple, NON-consecutive, cells are selected? (Choose TWO)
A. Split cells
B. Delete row
C. Merge cells
D. Adjust font face
E. Adjust background color

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 130
When the Preload rollover image check box is checked (as shown above), the Preload Images behavior is added to which tag?

A. <a>
B. <img>
C. <body>
D. <head>
Correct Answer: C

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