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Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 16
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions. The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical. How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
1Y0-250 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues. What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Which command-line interface command could an administrator use to display communication between the LDAP server and the NetScaler system?
A. cat /etc/krb5.conf
B. cat /etc/krb5.keytab
C. cat /tmp/aaad.debug
D. cat /var/log/aaad.debug
E. tail -f /var/log/aaad.debug
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Scenario: An administrator configured an LDAP authentication policy and bound it globally. The only system group configured on the Netscaler is NS_Admins. After reviewing the security logs, the administrator notices that users in the External_Contractors LDAP group are able to log on to NetScaler using SSH; however, members of the External_Contractors group are NOT authorized to run any commands. Which action could the administrator take to prevent the members of the External_Contractors LDAP Group from logging on to NetScaler using SSH without affecting other users?
A. Configure an authorization policy that allows logon only by members of the “External_Contractors” LDAP Group. Bind the new policy globally.
B. Specify (memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
C. Specify (!(memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”)) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
D. Create a new command policy with a DENY action. Create a System Group named “External_Contractors” and assign the new command policy to the External_Contractors group.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic.
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
1Y0-250 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection: The site’s security certificate is not trusted! One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.  Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure
the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
1Y0-250 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state
shows as UP on the production NetScaler. What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message: “Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10; STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.” What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
1Y0-250 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Scenario: After a restart of a single NetScaler, users complain that the logon page has changed. An administrator plans to verify that a startup script exists and contains the necessary command. Where can the administrator find the startup script?
A. /etc
B. /dev
C. /nsconfig
D. /netscaler
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION NO: 129
The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.
B. Only progress forward through the stages.

C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 130
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.
B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person’s abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 132
The five A’s of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess,Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
400-351 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.
B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being “on edge.”
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 137
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 138
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to
conduct an assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 139
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 140
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 142
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 45
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After performing a global gap analysis, the global HR team has identified an initiative to identify at
least three potential candidates for each Senior Director and VP position. In order to build
accountability for implementing this initiative, which of the following pieces of information is NOT
necessary?
A. Source of resources
B. Modes of communication
C. Benefit to the individual and organization
D. Developing S.M.A.R.T objectives
70-534 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following type of listening is occurring when a person is thinking. “Robert has some
legitimate points about the importance of quality and its importance in the company’s growth” while
listening to a ISO-9001 training session?

A. Active
B. Empathic
C. Informational
D. Evaluative
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is NOT a potential difference in benefits practices that Human Resources
should evaluate when developing a global compensation and benefits strategy?
A. Leaves of absences
B. Life insurance benefits
C. Medical coverage
D. Reasons for termination
70-534 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
A gap analysis is performed to measure the skill gap between current executives and the type of
executives in order to have a truly global workforce. Which of the following analysis techniques
does this measure utilize?
A. Ratio analysis
B. Criterion-referenced analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Norm-referenced analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
According to Claus, which of the following HR activities is considered an upstream function?
A. Compensation
B. Employee relations
C. HRIS
D. Staffing
70-534 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following represents a HR strategic activity?
A. Recruitment of staff for new R&D project
B. Implement annual performance appraisal programs
C. Designing an employment brand
D. Provide specific job training programs
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is NOT a potential reason for a company’s decision to fill a position through
an international assignment?
A. Assist in creating alignment with headquarters’ goals and objectives
B. Assist in developing a consistent culture across the corporation
C. Specific person is the most qualified candidate for the job
D. Lack of core skill sets for the position available in the area
70-534 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
In the European Union, many multinational companies have Work Councils that are created to
protect workers interests. A company with 50 employees working across the EU has decided to
create a Work Councils Recently, a court has fined the corporation for laying off 10% of the
employee population in one of its E.U sites without discussing it with its Work Councils. Which of
the following reasons represents the PRIMARY rationale for why this occurred?
A. The company did not follow the collective bargaining agreement
B. The company did not follow the voluntarily-provided program
C. The company did not follow the government-provided program
D. The company did not follow the government-mandated program
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Code: CCD-410
Exam Name: Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH)
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
CCD-410 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In a MapReduce job reducers do not start executing the reduce method until the all Map jobs have
completed. Reducers start copying intermediate key-value pairs from the mappers as soon as they are
available. The programmer defined reduce method is called only after all the mappers have finished.
Note: The reduce phase has 3 steps: shuffle, sort, reduce. Shuffle is where the data is collected by the
reducer from each mapper. This can happen while mappers are generating data since it is only a data
transfer. On the other hand, sort and reduce can only start once all the mappers are done.
Why is starting the reducers early a good thing? Because it spreads out the data transfer from the
mappers to the reducers over time, which is a good thing if your network is the bottleneck.
Why is starting the reducers early a bad thing? Because they “hog up” reduce slots while only copying
data. Another job that starts later that will actually use the reduce slots now can’t use them.
You can customize when the reducers startup by changing the default value of  CCD-410 dumps
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps in mapred-site.xml. A value of 1.00 will wait for all the mappers
to finish before starting the reducers. A value of 0.0 will start the reducers right away. A value of 0.5 will
start the reducers when half of the mappers are complete. You can also change
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps on a job-by-job basis. Typically, keep
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps above 0.9 if the system ever has multiple jobs running at once.
This way the job doesn’t hog up reducers when they aren’t doing anything but copying data. If you only
ever have one job running at a time, doing 0.1 would probably be appropriate.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, When is the reducers
are started in a MapReduce job?
QUESTION 2
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode returns the block location
(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode then queries the
DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode
redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s). The client then reads the
data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode contacts the DataNode
that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then
from the NameNode to the client.
CCD-410 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How the Client
communicates with HDFS?

QUESTION 3
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys,
IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
CCD-410 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the
mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
CCD-410 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hadoop streaming is a utility that comes with the Hadoop distribution. The utility allows you to create and
run Map/Reduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer.
QUESTION 5
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase
of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reducer has 3 primary phases:
1. Shuffle The Reducer copies the sorted output from each Mapper using HTTP across the network.
2. Sort The framework merge sorts Reducer inputs by keys (since different Mappers may have output the same key).
 The shuffle and sort phases occur simultaneously i.e. while outputs are being fetched they are merged. SecondarySort CCD-410 dumps  To achieve a secondary sort on the values returned by the value iterator, the application should extend the key with the secondary key and define a grouping comparator. The keys will be sorted using the entire key, but will be grouped using the grouping comparator to decide which keys and values are sent in the same call to reduce.
3. Reduce
In this phase the reduce(Object, Iterable, Context) method is called for each <key, (collection of values)>
in the sorted inputs. The output of the reduce task is typically written to a RecordWriter via TaskInputOutputContext.write (Object, Object).
The output of the Reducer is not re-sorted.
Reference: org.apache.hadoop.mapreduce, Class
Reducer<KEYIN,VALUEIN,KEYOUT,VALUEOUT>

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 437

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QUESTION NO: 14
Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec
data directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
300-115 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain
VLANs. What would cause this issue?
A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches
might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruning
eligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.
QUESTION 16
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate”
and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than
passively wait for the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
* Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
* Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment
* Alternate port A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is
a failure on the designated port for the segment.
* Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two
links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
QUESTION 17
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they
should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived
from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by
default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are
treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.
QUESTION 18
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to
only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the
appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
QUESTION 19
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 41 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
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Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view 70-346 exam content.
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Question No : 42  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
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Question No : 44 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 45
A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely
used to generate these data points.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. Data Sampling
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT
organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?
A. Developing Test Plans
B. Conducting Design Inspections
C. Developing Test Processes
D. Performing Acceptance Testing
E. Performing Regression Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?
A. Automatic
B. Auditors
C. Peer Reviews
D. Supervisory
E. Third Party
70-346 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:
A. The documentation is consistent with the software execution
B. The documentation is understandable
C. Users will be adequately trained in the software
D. It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
A snapshot of an organization’s security program at a certain time is a:
A. Security Model
B. Security Baseline
C. Security Risk
D. Security Test Procedure
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the correct definition of a policy?
A. The intended future state of the organization
B. Managerial control over processes
C. The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met
D. Managerial desires and intents concerning processes and products
E. A standard that is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
B. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
C. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
D. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
E. None of the above
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly.
This statement shows relationship between:
A. Plan and Do Processes
B. Plan and Check Processes
C. Do and Check Processes
D. Do and Act Processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
To measure the customer’s perception of the quality of a software system, what type of measure would
you use?
A. Objective
B. Subjective
C. Process Measure
D. Process Variation
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to
penetrate, is called a:
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Control
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?
A. Developing a security budget
B. Determining the effectiveness of the security program
C. Determine where security training is necessary
D. Developing a security policy
E. As a basis for organizing a security function
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.
The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches? 200-125 dumps
A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-699
Exam Name: Windows Server 2003, MCSA Security Specialization Skills Update
Q&As: 122

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QUESTION: 11
Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces
in 5 virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100

70-699 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0.
The PVC should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format.
Which command accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
70-699 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose
two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 15
Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
70-699 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 17
In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to
advertise customer networks into the provider’s IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
70-699 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 19
Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
70-699 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a
large subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with an external DHCP server in a Bridged 1483
network?

A. It maintains DHCP leases on behalf of subscribers.
B. It initiates DHCP requests on behalf of subscribers.
C. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server; you must configure static host routes.
D. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server and inserts host routes into its routing table.
70-699 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A Bridged 1483 service offering is grouping DSL users into a large subnet. What are three
characteristics of this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. It burns IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. A group of PVCs is a subnet.
D. It provides a numbered IP address to the ERX.
E. It provides an IP unnumbered address to ERX.
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION: 23
In a Routed 1483 network which method of routing is typically employed on the DSL router?
A. static
B. OSPF
C. RIPv1
D. RIPv2
70-699 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with subscriber IP addresses assigned by an external
DHCP server?
A. It monitors messages from the external server and updates the routing table as needed.

B. It maintains the leases for the DHCP server and reassigns addresses to new subscribers.
C. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and makes the address available when the subscriber stops responding.
D. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and removes the host route when the subscriber stops
responding.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 25
Which two static routes are typically configured on your router when a Routed 1483 network is
grouping ATM PVCs into a large subnet? (Choose two.)
A. host route
B. default route
C. customer network
D. ISP’s routing domain
70-699 vce 
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 26
Which configuration command represents a static customer route in a Routed 1483 network?
A. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.10.1.2
B. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 atm 6/0.33
C. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.10.1.2
D. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 atm 6/0.33
Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
Which RADIUS configuration command implements a primary/backup scenario for multiple
servers?
A. radius algorithm direct
B. radius algorithm backup
C. radius algorithm primary
D. radius algorithm round-robin
70-699 exam 
Answer: A

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT a form of detective technical control?
A. Audit trails
B. Access control software
C. Honeypot
D. Intrusion detection system
CISSP exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which type of security control is also known as “Logical” control?
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Administrative
D. Risk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following answers best describes the type of penetration testing where the analyst has full
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B. Black-Box Pen Testing
C. Penetration Testing
D. Gray-Box Pen Testing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
During an IS audit, one of your auditor has observed that some of the critical servers in your organization
can be accessed ONLY by using shared/common user name and password. What should be the auditor’s
PRIMARY concern be with this approach?
A. Password sharing
B. Accountability
C. Shared account management
D. Difficulty in auditing shared account
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following media is MOST resistant to tapping?
A. microwave.
B. twisted pair.
C. coaxial cable.
D. fiber optic.
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Good security is built on which of the following concept?
A. The concept of a pass-through device that only allows certain traffic in and out
B. The Concept of defense in depth
C. The Concept of Preventative controls
D. The Concept of Defensive Controls
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
The communications products and services, which ensure that the various components of a network (such
as devices, protocols, and access methods) work together refers to:
A. Netware Architecture.
B. Network Architecture.
C. WAN Architecture.
D. Multiprotocol Architecture.
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols does not operate at the data link layer (layer 2)?
A. PPP
B. RARP
C. L2F
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
According to private sector data classification levels, how would salary levels and medical CISSP dumps information be
classified?
A. Public.
B. Internal Use Only.
C. Restricted.
D. Confidential.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Whose role is it to assign classification level to information?
A. Security Administrator
B. User
C. Owner
D. Auditor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an example of a detective control?
A. System Monitor
B. IDS
C. Monitor detector
D. Backup data restore

CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a CHARACTERISTIC of a decision support system (DSS) in regards to Threats
and Risks Analysis?
A. DSS is aimed at solving highly structured problems.
B. DSS emphasizes flexibility in the decision making approach of users.
C. DSS supports only structured decision-making tasks.
D. DSS combines the use of models with non-traditional data access and retrieval functions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally addresses Due Care and Due
Diligence?
A. Implementation
B. System feasibility
C. Product design
D. Software plans and requirements
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A shared resource matrix is a technique commonly used to locate:
A. Malicious code
B. Security flaws
C. Trap doors
D. Covert channels
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Brute force attacks against encryption keys have increased in potency because of increased CISSP dumps computing power. Which of the following is often considered a good protection against the brute force cryptography attack?
A. The use of good key generators.
B. The use of session keys.
C. Nothing can defend you against a brute force crypto key attack.
D. Algorithms that are immune to brute force key attacks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following services is NOT provided by the digital signature standard (DSS)?
A. Encryption
B. Integrity
C. Digital signature
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an Internet IPsec protocol to negotiate, establish, modify, and delete security
associations, and to exchange key generation and authentication data, independent of the details of any
specific key generation technique, key establishment protocol, encryption algorithm, or authentication
mechanism?
A. OAKLEY
B. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)
C. Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
D. IPsec Key exchange (IKE)
cissp exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the purpose of Trusted Distribution?
A. To ensure that messages sent from a central office to remote locations are free from tampering.
B. To prevent the sniffing of data as it travels through an untrusted network enroute to a trusted network.
C. To ensure that the Trusted Computing Base is not tampered with during shipment or installation.
D. To ensure that messages received at the Trusted Computing Base are not old messages being resent
as part of a replay attack.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements relating to the Biba security model is FALSE?
A. It is a state machine model.
B. A subject is not allowed to write up.
C. Integrity levels are assigned to subjects and objects.
D. Programs serve as an intermediate layer between subjects and objects.
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a trusted shell?
A. It means that someone who is working in that shell cannot “bust out of it”, and other processes cannot
“bust into it”.
B. It means that it is a communications channel between the user, or program, and the kernel.
C. It means that someone working in that shell can communicate with someone else in another trusted
shell.
D. It means that it won’t let processes overwrite other processes’ data.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following are the three CISSP dumps classifications of RAID identified by the RAID Advisory Board?
A. Failure Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Failure Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
B. Foreign Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Failure Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
C. Failure Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), File Transfer Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
D. Federal Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Fault Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 112

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1Y0-301 dumps

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QUESTION 1
When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP
address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose two answers).
A. RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the
immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers
and how they interconnect
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1 ,, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1
advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3’s routing
table?
A. Router R3’s routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3’s routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3’s routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3’s route table.
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks,
and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely
configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific
static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will
have a default route.
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the
network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the “configure router static
route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1” command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static
route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
1Y0-301 vce  Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1 “using the “static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2” command. What
command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
1y0-301 simulations Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes
down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello
timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates
to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down.
At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.

C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is
down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to
their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
1y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
1y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that
there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that
is flooded to area 2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have been
performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Correct Answer: CD

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