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Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 1746

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT a form of detective technical control?
A. Audit trails
B. Access control software
C. Honeypot
D. Intrusion detection system
CISSP exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which type of security control is also known as “Logical” control?
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Administrative
D. Risk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following answers best describes the type of penetration testing where the analyst has full
knowledge of the network on which he is going to perform his CISSP dumps test?
A. White-Box Penetration Testing
B. Black-Box Pen Testing
C. Penetration Testing
D. Gray-Box Pen Testing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
During an IS audit, one of your auditor has observed that some of the critical servers in your organization
can be accessed ONLY by using shared/common user name and password. What should be the auditor’s
PRIMARY concern be with this approach?
A. Password sharing
B. Accountability
C. Shared account management
D. Difficulty in auditing shared account
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following media is MOST resistant to tapping?
A. microwave.
B. twisted pair.
C. coaxial cable.
D. fiber optic.
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Good security is built on which of the following concept?
A. The concept of a pass-through device that only allows certain traffic in and out
B. The Concept of defense in depth
C. The Concept of Preventative controls
D. The Concept of Defensive Controls
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
The communications products and services, which ensure that the various components of a network (such
as devices, protocols, and access methods) work together refers to:
A. Netware Architecture.
B. Network Architecture.
C. WAN Architecture.
D. Multiprotocol Architecture.
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols does not operate at the data link layer (layer 2)?
A. PPP
B. RARP
C. L2F
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
According to private sector data classification levels, how would salary levels and medical CISSP dumps information be
classified?
A. Public.
B. Internal Use Only.
C. Restricted.
D. Confidential.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Whose role is it to assign classification level to information?
A. Security Administrator
B. User
C. Owner
D. Auditor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an example of a detective control?
A. System Monitor
B. IDS
C. Monitor detector
D. Backup data restore

CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a CHARACTERISTIC of a decision support system (DSS) in regards to Threats
and Risks Analysis?
A. DSS is aimed at solving highly structured problems.
B. DSS emphasizes flexibility in the decision making approach of users.
C. DSS supports only structured decision-making tasks.
D. DSS combines the use of models with non-traditional data access and retrieval functions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally addresses Due Care and Due
Diligence?
A. Implementation
B. System feasibility
C. Product design
D. Software plans and requirements
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A shared resource matrix is a technique commonly used to locate:
A. Malicious code
B. Security flaws
C. Trap doors
D. Covert channels
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Brute force attacks against encryption keys have increased in potency because of increased CISSP dumps computing power. Which of the following is often considered a good protection against the brute force cryptography attack?
A. The use of good key generators.
B. The use of session keys.
C. Nothing can defend you against a brute force crypto key attack.
D. Algorithms that are immune to brute force key attacks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following services is NOT provided by the digital signature standard (DSS)?
A. Encryption
B. Integrity
C. Digital signature
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an Internet IPsec protocol to negotiate, establish, modify, and delete security
associations, and to exchange key generation and authentication data, independent of the details of any
specific key generation technique, key establishment protocol, encryption algorithm, or authentication
mechanism?
A. OAKLEY
B. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)
C. Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
D. IPsec Key exchange (IKE)
cissp exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the purpose of Trusted Distribution?
A. To ensure that messages sent from a central office to remote locations are free from tampering.
B. To prevent the sniffing of data as it travels through an untrusted network enroute to a trusted network.
C. To ensure that the Trusted Computing Base is not tampered with during shipment or installation.
D. To ensure that messages received at the Trusted Computing Base are not old messages being resent
as part of a replay attack.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements relating to the Biba security model is FALSE?
A. It is a state machine model.
B. A subject is not allowed to write up.
C. Integrity levels are assigned to subjects and objects.
D. Programs serve as an intermediate layer between subjects and objects.
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a trusted shell?
A. It means that someone who is working in that shell cannot “bust out of it”, and other processes cannot
“bust into it”.
B. It means that it is a communications channel between the user, or program, and the kernel.
C. It means that someone working in that shell can communicate with someone else in another trusted
shell.
D. It means that it won’t let processes overwrite other processes’ data.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following are the three CISSP dumps classifications of RAID identified by the RAID Advisory Board?
A. Failure Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Failure Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
B. Foreign Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Failure Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
C. Failure Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), File Transfer Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
D. Federal Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Fault Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 1
When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP
address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose two answers).
A. RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the
immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers
and how they interconnect
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1 ,, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1
advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3’s routing
table?
A. Router R3’s routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3’s routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3’s routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3’s route table.
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks,
and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely
configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific
static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will
have a default route.
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the
network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the “configure router static
route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1” command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static
route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
1Y0-301 vce  Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1 “using the “static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2” command. What
command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
1y0-301 simulations Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes
down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello
timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates
to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down.
At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.

C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is
down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to
their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
1y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
1y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that
there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that
is flooded to area 2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have been
performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Correct Answer: CD

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files 070-489 dumps.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You
may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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070-489 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
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How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once,
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 11
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a cluster
running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
070-489 dumps Answer: D,F
Note: Namenode stores modifications to the filesystem as a log appended to a
native filesystem file (edits). When a Namenode starts up, it reads HDFS state from an image file
(fsimage) and then applies edits from edits log file. It then writes new HDFS state to (fsimage) and
starts normal operation with an empty edits file. Since namenode merges fsimage and edits files
only during start up, edits file could get very large over time on a large cluster. Another side effect
of larger edits file is that next restart of Namenade takes longer.
The secondary namenode merges fsimage and edits log periodically and keeps edits log size with
in a limit. It is usually run on a different machine than the primary Namenode since its memory
requirements are on the same order as the primary namemode. The secondary namenode is
started by bin/start-dfs.sh on the nodes specified in conf/masters file.
QUESTION NO: 12
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the
DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
070-489 pdf Answer: A
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system begins replicating the blocks that were
stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be dead and
any data it had to be gone as well.Based on the block reports it had been receiving from the dead
node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along with the node and can make the
decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.It will also consult the Rack Awareness
data in order to maintain the two copies in one rack, one copy in another rack replica rule when
deciding which Data Node should receive a new copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)

A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system 070-489 dumps  begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode. Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How NameNode Handles data node failures?

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Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
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QUESTION 1
Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre- deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC’s existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company’s security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
70-331 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
70-331 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose 4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
70-331 practice exam 
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.

You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent
users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013.
You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio
Team System project file.
Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
70-331  dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated
content databases for the storage of personal site collections.
You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites.
What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database
to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to
25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database
to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to
5,000.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm.
You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site
collection.
What permission level should you configure?

A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
70-331 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index.
Users report that search results are too broad.
You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results.
Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers
that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the
application server.
You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message
attachments in libraries.
You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the
entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
70-331 certification 
Correct Answer: BF

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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 219

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8.HOTSPOT
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Lync Online.
The environment includes the domains shown in the following image, and is configured as shown in the
exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)

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Lync is not deployed in a hybrid configuration. An employee requires specific Lync communication
settings. The employee’s account is configured as shown in the following image.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each
correct selection is worth one point
070-347 exam
070-347 dumps

9.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Management has requested a report of all
Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync-enabled employees and their devices. You need to generate a report that
contains employee display names and device types.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate
option from each list in the answer area.

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10.HOTSPOT
A company has an on-premises deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 with Service Pack 3.The
company is migrating to Office 365. During the migration, users must be able to see availability
information between the on-premises deployment and Office 365. You need to identify the appropriate
mailbox migration strategy to use.
Which migration strategies are supported for this scenario? To answer, drag the appropriate answer
choices to the correct 070-347 dumps targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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11.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees share documents with internal and
external users on Microsoft SharePoint Online sites. User1 inadvertently shares a link to Document1 with
an external user named Customer1. You need to remove access to Document1 from Customer1.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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070-347 dumps

12.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. A user wants to share a link to a presentation with
a salesperson. The salesperson will share the link with potential customers.
You have the following requirements:
– Make a read-only version of the presentation available to anonymous users.
– Notify the salesperson by email when the presentation is available.
You need to configure the sharing settings.
How should you configure the sharing settings? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog
box in the answer area.

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070-347 dumps

13. A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers’ SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the 070-347 pdf 
ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC
14. Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B
15. When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new 070-347 vce application, which three metrics are necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

16. Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC
17. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)

A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
070-347 exam Answer: CDE

18. A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization’s email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D
19. A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
070-347 dumps Answer:AD
20. A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio

E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD
21. When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
070-347 pdf Answer: BCE
22. To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD
23. Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager

C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
070-347 vce Answer:AB
24. In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB
25. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
070-347 exam Answer:AB
26. Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups

D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 10, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&AS:
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in
VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will
be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
200-105 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to
VLAN 1.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  What are two characteristics of a 200-105 dumps switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created,
deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in
VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement
request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server
Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode.
When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this
information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information.
Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by
switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not
actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that
particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management
domain.
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Answer: A
200-105 pdf Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and
switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is
converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated)
in all switches are selected
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in
VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the
topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port ,
designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is
not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the 200-105 dumps topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit200-105 dumps

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4
which is connected directly to the Printers.
Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are
designated ports.
Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here
switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role.
By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch
3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become
designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16.Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A.The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B.Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer’s hard
drive.
C.The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D.The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
200-105 pdf Answer:B
Question No : 17.When capturing a computer’s personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A..INI
B..A2I
C..ASI
D..PBT
Answer:B
Question No : 18 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the Deployment Server. Which statement is now true?
A.moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B.images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C.this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D.the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
200-105 vce Answer:B
Question No : 19 .Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A.ImgViewer
B.ImageExplorer
C.ImageEditor
D.ImageManager
E.ImgManager
Answer:B
Question No : 20.Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows 95
C.Windows NT
D.Windows XP
E.Windows 2003
F.Linux
G.Windows 98
200-105 exam Answer:A C D E
Question No : 21 .AClient has not been password protected. Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer? (Choose three.)
A.initiate Microsoft’s Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B.view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C.change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console

D.change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E.monitor AClient’s communication with the Deployment Server
F.reinstall AClient
G.edit the AClient template file
Answer:B C E
Question No : 22.Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A.SIDgenerator
B.SetupCapture
C.Sysprep
D.ImageExplorer
E.SIDconfig
Answer:C
Question No : 23.How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software 200-105 dumps virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A.layers can be imported to a managed computer
B.layers can be created
C.the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D.the content of a layer can be modified
Answer:A C
Question No : 24.Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A.%
B.#
C.$
D.*
Answer:A
Question No : 25.Deployment Solution’s Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A.Java
B.DirectX
C.ActiveX
D..NET framework
E.Pre-boot automation operating systems
F.SQL
Answer:D F

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1.Model settings enabled in the Model Options dialog apply to Model settings enabled in the Model
Options dialog apply to
A. all models.
B. the current model only. C.
all models in the project. D.
archived models only.
300-170 exam 
Answer: B
2.Which of the following are ways of displaying the Palette? (Choose 2)
A. SelectTools ? Display Preferences
B. SelectTools ? Customize Toolbars
C. Right-click in the Toolbar area
D. SelectTools ? Model Options
Answer: B,C
3.When generating a diagram for an Impact and Lineage Analysis, what does PowerDesigner create?
A. New diagram in the same package of the same model
B. New diagram in a new package of the same model
C. New diagram in a new model
D. Visual display that cannot be saved
300-170 dumps 
Answer: C
4.A COPY of an object that is tied to its parent object is known as a .
A. Stereotype
B. Shortcut
C. Replica
D. Domain

Answer: C
5.Which of the following is FALSE about workspaces? (Choose 2)
A. Can hold a Repository
B. Can include external files
C. Can be saved locally
D. Multiple workspaces can be opened at the same time
300-170 pdf 
Answer: A,D
6.User Profiles can NOT create defaults for which of the following?
A. Database Generation Options
B. Display Preferences
C. Report Sections
D. Model Options
E. General Options
F. Repository Definitions
Answer: C
7.Which of the following are business rules types? (Choose 2)
A. Constraints
B. Annotation
C. Associative
D. Formula
300-170 vce 
Answer: A,D
8.Which of the following objects are NOT found in a Conceptual Data Model? (Choose 2)
A. Manyto many relationships
B. Relationship joins

C. Foreign identifiers
D. Domains
E. Primary identifiers
F. Data items
Answer: B,C
9.Which artifact can NOT be modeled in a Logical Data Model?
A. Entity
B. Attribute C.
Data item D.
Inheritance
300-170 exam 
Answer: C
10.Which of the following is FALSE about Model Generation?
A. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
B. New PDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
C. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing database
D. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing PDM
Answer: C
11.What are the ways in which you can enforce referential integrity? (Choose 2)
A. Use a Primary Key Constraint
B. Use a Foreign Key Constraint
C. Use Application Code
D. Use a Domain
300-170 dumps 
Answer: B,C
12.A(n) relationship is a relationship between an entity and itself.

A. Replica B.
Reflexive C.
Mandatory
D. Associative
Answer: B
13.Which one of the following Inheritance Generation modes will cause attributes to be lost when
generating a Physical Data Model?
A. Generate parent
B. Generate children, Inherit only primary attributes
C. Generate children, Inherit all attributes
D. Generate parent and children, Inherit all attributes
300-170 pdf 
Answer: B
14.A primary key must meet the following conditions. (Choose 2)
A. Be unique
B. Contain coded information
C. Have a definite value
D. Be a surrogate key
E. Be clustered
F. Be accessible to the table creator
Answer: A,C
15.What are some of the characteristics of a Domain? (Choose 2)
A. Can be used to define a standard data type, data length, and data precision
B. Can be used to define standard attributes of an entity
C. Can only be used within a Conceptual Data Model

D. Can provide consistency across common attributes
E. Cannot be modified once associated to an attribute
300-170 vce Answer: A,D
16.In which PowerDesigner model are stored procedures supported?
A. Conceptual Data Model
B. Logical Data Model C.
Physical Data Model D.
Requirements Model
Answer: C
17.What statement is FALSE about triggers?
A. Implemented in a physical database as internally stored code
B. Can be used to improve performance
C. Automatically invoked based upon insert, update, or delete actions taken against a table
D. Initiated directly from an application program
300-170 exam Answer: D
18.Where do you define Trigger Template items? (Choose 2)
A. Model ? Triggers
B. Database ? Generate Database
C. Tools ? Model Options
D. Tables property sheet, Triggers tab
E. Database ? Edit Current DBMS
Answer: A,E
19.Physical Data Model macros can be embedded into and to
generate SQL statements. (Choose 2)
A. Template Items
B. Table via the Script tab
C. Business Rules
D. Procedures
E. View Queries
F. Extended Objects
300-170 dumps Answer: A,D
20.Which of the following are TRUE about a given report template? (Choose 2)
A. Can only be used for a specific model type
B. Can be saved within the model
C. Cannot be built for a multi-model report
D. Cannot be built from more than one section
Answer: A,D
21.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
300-170 pdf Answer: C
22.Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A
23.Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
300-170 vce 
Answer: A
24.What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Correct Answer: C
24.
Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and 192.168.255.254/24 on a
Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the following command: config ospf routerid
automatic?
A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24
Correct Answer: D
25.
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address 192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan
300-170 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
26.VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
27.
How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
300-170 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 15, 2017
Q&As: 118

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25. In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, .
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
300-135 exam Answer: B
26. In a Behind the Switch configuration, the VCS carries out instructions from .
A. IVR Server only, in the form of IVR ServerXML
B. T-Server only, in the form of TLib Events
C. Web Server, in the form of VoiceXML
D. IVR Server client, in the form of XML
Answer: C
27. When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type – from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
300-135 dumps Answer: A
28. To bring up the 9810 listener window in EMPS you need to expand Server, CORE, click on
<ServerName> and then follow which links?
A. Right-click on the Server and view
B. Click link for Network Management GUI to open the 9810 listener
C. Click the link for Server Explorer to open the 9810 listener
D. There are no available links for the 9810 listener window in the EMPS.
Answer: B
29. After WatchDog is started, GVP.ini file contains .
A. no configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes
B. application specific configuration information such as DNIS
C. the configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes, such as default log levels
D. only Dialogic configuration information
300-135 pdf Answer: C

30. When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will .
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

31.If a user is denied read permission on a folder, which of the following is true?
A. The folder is not visible in the Navigator window in any PowerCenter client.
B. The folder becomes a shared folder.
C. The folder has a red “X” over it.
D. The folder is grayed out in the Navigator window for any PowerCenter client.
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
32.Which is a type of connection object you can create with PowerCenter?
A. FTP
B. TCP/IP
C. Partitioned
D. Dynamic database
Correct Answer: A
33.What needs to be done to inherit domain privileges”
A. Use domain folders.
B. Use domain groups.
C. Set the privileges on a set-vice level.
D. Set the privileges on a service or group level.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: B
34.When copying a folder across repositories, which statement is true?
A. The origin repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
B. The destination repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
C. PowerCenter will automatically create and delete XML files to facilitate transferring the objects.
D. The origin folder must first be exported as XML.
Correct Answer: B
35.The Service Manager runs which functions on the Master Gateway Node in the domain?
A. Workflows, Configuration, and Alerting.
B. Security, Web Services, and Alerting.
C. Security, Configuration, and Alerting.
D. Web Services, Configuration, and Licensing.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
36.If you attempt to delete a user who is the owner of a repository folder, what will happen?
A. The folder is deleted.
B. The folder becomes owned by Administrator.
C. You will be prompted to assign another owner to the folder.
D. This operation is not allowed.
Correct Answer: B
37.The IEEE 802.11 Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) service is capable of performing what
functions? (Choose 2)
A. Establishing an interference baseline on all 2.4 GHz channels
B. Using modulation switching techniques to avoid interfering with radar systems
C. Testing channels for radar before using a channel and while operating in a channel
D. Suspending operations on a channel with high IEEE 802.11 co-channel interference
E. Requesting and reporting of measurements in the current and other channels
300-135 pdf Answer: C,E
38.Which statements regarding an IEEE 802.11 Channel Switch Announcement frame are true?
(Choose 2)
A. Channel Switch Announcement frames use the Action frame body format.
B. Channel Switch Announcement frames are the only place where the Channel Switch
Announcement element is found.
C. Channel Switch Announcement frames are transmitted and retransmitted on a channel until all
associated STAs successfully move to the new channel.

D. Channel Switch Announcement elements may be carried in Beacon management frames.
E. In an infrastructure BSS, Channel Switch Announcement frames may be transmitted by either
the AP or an associated STA.
Answer: A,D
39.An HT STA does not receive an ACK for a first-attempt data frame that it transmitted. Assuming
this STA is not using BlockAcks in this case, what happens to the HT STA’s EDCA contention
window?
A. The slot time within the contention window decreases by 50%.
B. It varies because the backoff algorithm is random.
C. The contention window approximately doubles in size.
D. The contention window is not affected by failed Data frame delivery.
E. The contention window is immediately closed, and the frame is retransmitted.
300-135 vce Answer: C
40.What two IEEE 802.11 entities may be used to separate successful transmissions within an EDCA
TXOP? (Choose 2)
A. SIFS
B. AIFS
C. ACK
D. CAP
E. PIFS
F. EIFS
G. RIFS
Answer: A,G
41.Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
42.How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
43.Although you can specify sequence numbers for different ACL entries, the Summit 1i switch checks
incoming traffic on a match with the ACL entries in the order of their time in configuration
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
44.What is the meaning of the IEEE 802.3 SNAP field in an Ethernet frame?
A. The SNAP field allows you to support Ethernet II frame, it contains the ether typevalue.
B. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate token-ring traffic
C. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate FDDI traffic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
45.DVMRP is similar to OSPF in that it is Link State based.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
46.Traffic involved with Policy based QoS is handled by the switch its CPU.
A. true
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 269

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QUESTION 16
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. Network Scan
D. HTTP
300-208 exam
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps

In a distributed deployment of Cisco ISE, which column in Figure 1 is used to fill in the Host Name field in
Figure 2 to collect captures on Cisco ISE while authenticating the specific endpoint?
A. Server
B. Network Device
C. Endpoint ID
D. Identity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:300-208 dumps

QUESTION 19
SIMULATION
The Secure-X company has recently successfully tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the
Cisco Catalyst switch and the Cisco ISEv1.2 appliance. Currently, each employee desktop is connected to
an 802.1X enabled switch port and is able to use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1Xsupplicantlo log in
and connect to the network.
Currently, a new testing requirement is to add a network printer to the Fa0/19 switch port and have it
connect to the network. The network printer does not support 802.1X supplicant. The Fa0/19 switch port is
now configured to use 802.1X authentication only.
To support this network printer, the Fa0/19 switch port configuration needs to be edited to enable the
network printer to authenticate using its MAC address. The network printer should also be on VLAN 9.
Another network security engineer responsible for managing the Cisco ISE has already per-configured all
the requirements on the Cisco ISE, including adding the network printer MAC address to the Cisco ISE
endpoint database and etc…
Your task in the simulation is to access the Cisco Catalyst Switch console then use the CL1 to:

Enable only the Cisco Catalyst Switch Fa0/19 switch port to authenticate the network printer using its MAC
address and:
Ensure that MAC address authentication processing is not delayed until 802.1Xfails
Ensure that even if MAC address authentication passes, the switch will still perform 802.1X authentication
if requested by a 802.1X supplicant
Use the required show command to verify the MAC address authentication on the Fa0/19 is successful
The switch enable password is Cisco
For the purpose of the simulation, to test the network printer, assume the network printer will be unplugged
then plugged back into the Fa0/19 switch port after you have finished the required configurations on the
Fa0/19 switch port.
Note: For this simulation, you will not need and do not have access to the ISE GUI To access the switch
CL1, click the Switch icon in the topology diagram

300-208 dumps

QUESTION 20
What is another term for 802.11i wireless network security?
A. 802.1x
B. WEP
C. TKIP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
300-208 dumps
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?
A. Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B. TheIPSautomaticallysendshunstoCiscoWLCforanactivehostblock.
C. Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D. IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What is the effect of the ip http secure-server command on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. ItenablestheHTTPserverforuserstoconnectusingWeb-basedauthentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect using Web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C
300-208 exam
QUESTION 23
When RADIUS NAC and AAA 0verride are enabled for a WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about
RADIUS NAC are true? (Choose two.)
A. It returns an access-accept and sends the redirection URL for all users.
B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the Cisco ISE.
C. It allows the Cisco ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated.
D. It is used for posture assessment, so the Cisco ISE changes the user profile based on posture result.
E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 24
Which two attributes must match between two Cisco ASA devices to properly enable high availability?
(Choose two.)
A. model, interface configuration, and RAM
B. major and minor software release
C. tcp dead-peer detection protocol
D. 802.1x authentication Identity
300-208 pdf
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
Which statement about I0S accounting is true?
A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined.
B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined.
C. Authorization mustbe configured before accounting.
D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which two Identity store options allow you to authorize based on group membership? (Choose two).
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
300-208 vce
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27. Which application allows you to export a McDATA SAN Router configuration?
A. EFCM Basic
B. SANtegrity
C. SANavigator
D. EFCM
E. SANvergence Manager
Answer: E
QUESTION 28. Which method is best used to specify which servers can access specific LUNs?
A. HBA driver configuration
B. LUN masking in the switch
C. LUN mapping in the server
D. persistent binding in the server
E. LUN masking in the storage array
300-208 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is required to achieve 99.999% availability?
A. Dual rack installation
B. Separate power circuits
C. Router connectivity to DR site
D. Dual partitioned Intrepid 10000
Answer: B
QUESTION 30. A customer has significant power considerations. They want to purchase a switch from McDATA that
uses the least power while still maintaining power supply redundancy. Which switch is the best choice for
them?
A. Intrepid 10000
B. Intrepid 6140
C. Sphereon 3232

D. Sphereon 4300
E. Sphereon 4500
300-208 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 31. Which two technologies provide Fibre Channel over IP services? (Choose two.)
A. SES
B. iFCP C.
FCIP D.
iSCSI E.
FICON
F. FC-SB2
Answer: BC

6. Click the Exhibit button.
Which technology is illustrated in the exhibit?

A. VPN
B. iFCP
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
300-208 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 32. On the McDATA Intrepid 10000, the upper two or the lower two optical paddles in a Line Module (LIM)
cannot both be in a supported configuration.
A. 2 Gbps

B. 4 Gbps
C. 8 Gbps
D. 10 Gbps
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 117

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QUESTION 1
An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin authoritarian, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory
settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its
configuration from a backup (c) Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the
right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any
Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk
back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.
A. a only
B. a & b only
C. a & c only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
 70-698 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel
(e.g. SSL tunneling)
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A. http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoat.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which ProxySG technology uses the data processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
70-698 dumps

A. Blue Coat Reporter
B. MACH5
C. BCWF
D. ProxySG Services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) IWA
(b) RADIUS
(C) LDAP
(d) TACACS+
A. a, b & d only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, b &c only
D. All of the above
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) All
(b) Any
(c) Explicit
(d) Transparent
A. a, c & d only
B. a, b & c only
C. b, c &d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Administrator attempts to access Management console (b) user attempts to access the internet
(c) Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d) User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A. All of the above
B. b, c &d only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & c only

70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A ProxySG is designed to do which of the following? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance
through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content
stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same time.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data

B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
D. HTTP POST data
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C

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