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QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5

E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

 

 

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QUESTION 10
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker
B. deny packet
C. modify packet
D. request block connection
E. request block host
F. reset TCP connection

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)
A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5

E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker
B. deny packet
C. modify packet
D. request block connection
E. request block host
F. reset TCP connection

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data

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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Spam protection
B. Outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. Email encryption
E. DDoS protection

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps10128/ps10154/data-sheet-c78- 729751.html
Product Overview Over the past 20 years, email has evolved from a tool used primarily by technical and research professionals to become the backbone of corporate communications. Each day, more than 100 billion corporate email messages are exchanged. As the level of use rises, security becomes a greater priority. Mass spam campaigns are no longer the only concern. Today, spam and malware are just part of a complex picture that includes inbound threats and outbound risks. Cisco. Email Security solutions defend mission-critical email systems with appliance, virtual, cloud, and hybrid solutions. The industry leader in email security solutions, Cisco delivers:
Fast, comprehensive email protection that can block spam and threats before they even hit your network

Flexible cloud, virtual, and physical deployment options to meet your ever-changing business needs

Outbound message control through on-device data-loss prevention (DLP), email encryption, and optional integration with the RSA enterprise DLP solution

One of the lowest total cost of ownership (TCO) email security solutions available

QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.)
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. trojan horse attack
C. pharming attack
D. denial of service attack
E. day zero attack

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/web/IN/about/network/threat_defense.html
Rogue developers create such threats by using worms, viruses, or application-embedded attacks. Botnets can be used to seed an attack, for example, rogue developers can use worms or application-embedded attacks, that is an attack that is hidden within application traffic such as web traffic or peer-to-peer shared files, to deposit “Trojans”. This combination of attack techniques – a virus or worm used to deposit a Trojan, for example-is relatively new and is known as a blended attack. A blended attack can also occur in phases: an initial attack of a virus with a Trojan that might open up an unsecured port on a computer, disable an access control list (ACL), or disarm antivirus software, with the goal of a more devastating attack to follow soon after. Host Firewall on servers and desktops/ laptops, day zero protection & intelligent behavioral based protection from application vulnerability and related flaws (within or inserted by virus, worms or Trojans) provided great level of confidence on what is happening within an organization on a normal day and when there is a attack situation, which segment and what has gone wrong and gives flexibility and control to stop such situations by having linkages of such devices with monitoring, log-analysis and event co-relation system.

QUESTION 3
Which two options represent a threat to the physical installation of an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
A. surveillance camera
B. security guards
C. electrical power
D. computer room access
E. change control

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/E-Learning/bulk/public/celc/CRS/media/targets/1_3_1.swf
QUESTION 4
Which option represents a step that should be taken when a security policy is developed?
A. Perform penetration testing.
B. Determine device risk scores.
C. Implement a security monitoring system.
D. Perform quantitative risk analysis.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The security policy developed in your organization drives all the steps taken to secure network resources. The development of a comprehensive security policy
prepares you for the rest of your security implementation. To create an effective security policy, it is necessary to do a risk analysis, which will be used to maximize
the effectiveness of the policy and procedures that will be put in place. Also, it is essential that everyone be aware of the policy; otherwise, it is doomed to fail.
Two types of risk analysis are of interest in information security:
Quantitative: Quantitative risk analysis uses a mathematical model that assigns monetary values to assets, the cost of threats being realized, and so on.
Quantitative risk analysis provides an actual monetary figure of expected losses, which is typically based on an annual cost. You can then use this number to
justify proposed countermeasures. For example, if you can establish that you will lose $1,000,000 by doing nothing, you can justify spending $300,000 to reduce that risk by 50 percent to 75 percent.

Qualitative: Qualitative risk analysis uses a scenario model. This approach is best for large cities, states, and countries to use because it is impractical for such entities to try to list all their assets, which is the starting point for any quantitative risk analysis. By the time a typical national government could list all of its assets, the list would have hundreds or thousands of changes and would no longer be accurate.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1998559&seqNum=2
QUESTION 5
Which type of security control is defense in depth?
A. threat mitigation
B. risk analysis
C. botnet mitigation
D. overt and covert channels

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/SAFE_RG/chap1.html
SAFE Design Blueprint The Cisco SAFE uses the infrastructure-wide intelligence and collaboration capabilities provided by Cisco products to control and mitigate well-known and zero-day attacks. Under the Cisco SAFE design blueprints, intrusion protection systems, firewalls, network admission control, endpoint protection software, and monitoring and analysis systems work together to identify and dynamically respond to attacks. As part of threat control and containment, the designs have the ability to identify the source of a threat, visualize its attack path, and to suggest, and even dynamically enforce, response actions. Possible response actions include the isolation of compromised systems, rate limiting, packet filtering, and more. Control is improved through the actions of harden, isolate, and enforce. Following are some of the objectives of the Cisco SAFE design blueprints:
Adaptive response to real-time threats–Source threats are dynamically identified and may be blocked in realtime.

Consistent policy enforcement coverage–Mitigation and containment actions may be enforced at different places in the network for defense in-depth.

Minimize effects of attack–Response actions may be dynamically triggered as soon as an attack is detected, minimizing damage.

Common policy and security management–A common policy and security management platform simplifies control and administration, and reduces operational expense.
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Secure Network Life Cycle By framing security within the context of IT governance, compliance, and risk management, and by building it with a sound security architecture at its core, the result is usually a less expensive and more effective process. Including security early in the information process within the system design life cycle (SDLC) usually results in less-expensive and more-effective security when compared to adding it to an operational system. A general SDLC includes five phases:
1.
Initiation
2.
Acquisition and development
3.
Implementation
4.
Operations and maintenance
5.
Disposition
Each of these five phases includes a minimum set of security steps that you need to follow to effectively incorporate security into a system during its development.
An organization either uses the general SDLC or develops a tailored SDLC that meets its specific needs. In either case, the National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST) recommends that organizations incorporate the associated IT security steps of this general SDLC into their development process.

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which four methods are used by hackers? (Choose four.)
A. footprint analysis attack
B. privilege escalation attack
C. buffer Unicode attack
D. front door attacks
E. social engineering attack
F. Trojan horse attack

Correct Answer: ABEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/download/15823-1-57665/CCNA %20Security%20(640-554)%20Portable%20Command%20Guide_ch01.pdf

Thinking Like a Hacker
The following seven steps may be taken to compromise targets and applications:
Step 1 Perform footprint analysis
Hackers generally try to build a complete profile of a target company’s security posture using a broad range of easily available tools and techniques. They can
discover organizational domain names, network blocks, IP addresses of systems, ports, services that are used, and more.
Step 2 Enumerate applications and operating systems
Special readily available tools are used to discover additional target information. Ping sweeps use Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to discover devices
on a network. Port scans discover TCP/UDP port status.
Other tools include Netcat, Microsoft EPDump and Remote Procedure Call (RPC) Dump, GetMAC, and software development kits (SDKs).
Step 3 Manipulate users to gain access
Social engineering techniques may be used to manipulate target employees to acquire passwords. They may call or email them and try to convince them to reveal
passwords without raising any concern or suspicion.
Step 4 Escalate privileges
To escalate their privileges, a hacker may attempt to use Trojan horse programs and get target users to unknowingly copy malicious code to their corporate
system.
Step 5 Gather additional passwords and secrets
With escalated privileges, hackers may use tools such as the pwdump and LSADump applications to gather passwords from machines running Windows.
Step 6 Install back doors
Hacker may attempt to enter through the “front door,” or they may use “back doors” into the system. The backdoor method means bypassing normal
authentication while attempting to remain undetected. A common backdoor point is a listening port that provides remote access to the system.
Step 7 Leverage the compromised system
After hackers gain administrative access, they attempt to hack other systems.

QUESTION 9
Which characteristic is the foundation of Cisco Self-Defending Network technology?
A. secure connectivity
B. threat control and containment
C. policy management
D. secure network platform

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/ns170/networking_solutions_products_genericcontent090 0aecd8051f378.html Create a Stronger Defense Against Threats Each day, you reinvent how you conduct business by adopting Internet-based business models. But Internet connectivity without appropriate security can compromise the gains you hope to make. In today’s connected environment, outbreaks spread globally in a matter of minutes, which means your security systems must react instantly. Maintaining security using tactical, point solutions introduces complexity and inconsistency, but integrating security throughout the network protects the information that resides on it. Three components are critical to effective information security:

A secure network platform with integrated security to which you can easily add advanced security technologies and services
Threat control services focused on antivirus protection and policy enforcement that continuously monitor network activity and prevent or mitigate problems

Secure communication services that maintain the privacy and confidentiality of sensitive data, voice, video, and wireless communications while cost-effectively extending the reach of your network
QUESTION 10
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?
A. Roughly 50 percent
B. Roughly 66 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 10 percent

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In a brute force attack, an attacker tries every possible key with the decryption algorithm, knowing that eventually one of them will work. On average, a brute force attack will succedd about 50 percent of the way through the keyspace. Reference: Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS 640-554) Foundation Learning Guide, By Catherine Paquet
QUESTION 11
Which three items are Cisco best-practice recommendations for securing a network? (Choose three.)
A. Routinely apply patches to operating systems and applications.
B. Disable unneeded services and ports on hosts.
C. Deploy HIPS software on all end-user workstations.
D. Require strong passwords, and enable password expiration.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disable Unused Services
As a security best practice, any unnecessary service must be disabled. These unneeded services, especially those that use User Datagram Protocol (UDP), are
infrequently used for legitimate purposes, but can be used in order to launch DoS and other attacks that are otherwise prevented by packet filtering.
The TCP and UDP small services must be disabled. These services include:
echo (port number 7)
discard (port number 9)

daytime (port number 13)

chargen (port number 19) It is also recommended to routinely apply patches to fix bugs and other vulnerabilities and to require strong passwords with password expiration Reference: Cisco Guide to Harden Cisco IOS Devices http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/access-lists/13608-21.html
QUESTION 12
What Cisco Security Agent Interceptor is in charge of intercepting all read/write requests to the rc files in UNIX?
A. Configuration interceptor
B. Network interceptor
C. File system interceptor
D. Execution space interceptor

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation Configuration interceptor: Read/write requests to the Registry in Windows or to rc configuration files on UNIX are intercepted. This interception occurs because modification of the operating system configuration can have serious consequences. Therefore, Cisco Security Agent tightly controls read/write requests to the Registry.
QUESTION 13
Information about a managed device’s resources and activity is defined by a series of objects. What defines the structure of these management objects?
A. MIB
B. FIB
C. LDAP
D. CEF

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Management Information Base (MIB) is the database of configuration variables that resides on the networking device.

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true about vishing?
A. Influencing users to forward a call to a toll number (for example, a long distance or international number)
B. Influencing users to provide personal information over a web page
C. Using an inside facilitator to intentionally forward a call to a toll number (for example, a long distance or international number)
D. Influencing users to provide personal information over the phone

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Vishing (voice phishing) uses telephony to glean information, such as account details, directly from users. Because many users tend to trust the security of a
telephone versus the security of the web, some users are more likely to provide confidential information over the telephone. User education is the most effective
method to combat vishing attacks.

QUESTION 15
Which item is the great majority of software vulnerabilities that have been discovered?
A. Stack vulnerabilities
B. Heap overflows
C. Software overflows
D. Buffer overflows

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A majority of software vulnerabilities that are discovered are buffer overflows. Reports suggest that two out of every three software vulnerabilities that are identified
by the CERT team are buffer overflows.
Reference: Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS 640-554) Foundation Learning Guide, By Catherine Paquet

QUESTION 16
Which one of the following items may be added to a password stored in MD5 to make it more secure?
A. Ciphertext
B. Salt
C. Cryptotext
D. Rainbow table

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Making an Md5 Hash More Secure
To make the md5 hash more secure we need to add what is called “salt”. Salt in this sense of the meaning is random data appended to the password to make the
hash more complicated and difficult to reverse engineer. Without knowing what the salt is, rainbow table attacks are mostly useless.
Reference: http://www.marksanborn.net/php/creating-a-secure-md5-hash-for-storing-passwords- in-a-database/

QUESTION 17
Which option is a feature of Cisco ScanSafe technology?
A. spam protection
B. consistent cloud-based policy
C. DDoS protection
D. RSA Email DLP

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco Enterprise Branch Web Security The Cisco. Integrated Services Router G2 (ISR G2) Family delivers numerous security services, including firewall, intrusion prevention, and VPN. These security capabilities have been extended with Cisco ISR Web Security with Cisco ScanSafe for a simple, cost-effective, on- demand web security solution that requires no additional hardware. Organizations can deploy and enable market-leading web security quickly and easily, and can enable secure local Internet access for all sites and users, saving bandwidth, money, and resources. Figure 1. Typical Cisco ISR Web Security with Cisco ScanSafe Deployment Cisco ISR Web Security with Cisco ScanSafe enables branch offices to intelligently redirect web traffic to the cloud to enforce granular security and control policy over dynamic Web 2.0 content, protecting branch office users from threats such as Trojans, back doors, rogue scanners, viruses, and worms. The Cisco ISR Web Security with Cisco ScanSafe feature will be available in the Security SEC K9 license bundle Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps6525/ps6538/ps6540/data_sheet_c78- 655324.html

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the option secret 5 in the username global configuration mode command indicate about the user password?
A. It is hashed using SHA.
B. It is encrypted using DH group 5.
C. It is hashed using MD5.
D. It is encrypted using the service password-encryption command.
E. It is hashed using a proprietary Cisco hashing algorithm.
F. It is encrypted using a proprietary Cisco encryption algorithm.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Feature Overview
Using the Enhanced Password Security feature, you can configure MD5 encryption for username passwords.
Before the introduction of this feature there were two types of passwords associated with usernames. Type 0 is a clear text password visible to any user who has
access to privileged mode on the router. Type 7 is a password with a weak, exclusive-or type encryption. Type 7 passwords can be retrieved from the encrypted
text by using publicly available tools.

MD5 encryption is a one-way hash function that makes reversal of an encrypted password impossible, providing strong encryption protection. Using MD5
encryption, you cannot retrieve clear text passwords. MD5 encrypted passwords cannot be used with protocols that require that the clear text password be
retrievable, such as Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

Use the username (secret) command to configure a user name and an associated MD5 encrypted secret.
Configuring Enhanced Security Password
Router(config)# username name secret 0 password
Configures a username and encrypts a clear text password with MD5 encryption.
or
Router(config)# username name secret 5 encrypted-secret Configures a username and enters an MD5 encrypted text string which is stored as the MD5 encrypted
password for the specified username.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/120s_md5.html

QUESTION 19
What does level 5 in this enable secret global configuration mode command indicate?
router#enable secret level 5 password
A. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
C. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
D. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
E. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the router to require an enable password, use either of the following commands in global configuration mode:
Router(config)# enable password [level level] {password| encryption-type encrypted-password} Establishes a password for a privilege command mode.
Router(config)# enable secret [level level] {password | encryption-type encrypted-password}
Specifies a secret password, saved using a non-reversible encryption method. (If enable password and enable secret are both set, users must enter the enable
secret password.)
Use either of these commands with the level option to define a password for a specific privilege level.
After you specify the level and set a password, give the password only to users who need to have access at this level. Use the privilege level configuration
command to specify commands accessible at various levels.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/scfpass.html

QUESTION 20
Which option is the correct representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:150C:0000:0000:41B1:45A3:041D?
A. 2001::150c::41b1:45a3:041d
B. 2001:0:150c:0::41b1:45a3:04d1
C. 2001:150c::41b1:45a3::41d
D. 2001:0:150c::41b1:45a3:41d

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Address Representation
The first area to address is how to represent these 128 bits. Due to the size of the numbering space, hexadecimal numbers and colons were chosen to represent
IPv6 addresses. An example IPv6 address is:
2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B
Note the following:
There is no case sensitivity. Lower case “a” means the same as capital “A”.

There are 16 bits in each grouping between the colons.

-8 fields * 16 bits/field = 128 bits
There are some accepted ways to shorten the representation of the above address:

Leading zeroes can be omitted, so a field of zeroes can be represented by a single 0.
Trailing zeroes must be represented.
Successive fields of zeroes can be shortened down to “::”. This shorthand representation can only occur once in the address.
Taking these rules into account, the address shown above can be shortened to:
2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B
2001:DB8:130F:0:0:7000:0:140B (Leading zeroes)
2001:DB8:130F:0:0:7000:0:140B (Trailing zeroes)
2001:DB8:130F::7000:0:140B (Successive field of zeroes) Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/gov/IPv6_WP.pdf

QUESTION 21
During role-based CLI configuration, what must be enabled before any user views can be created?
A. multiple privilege levels
B. usernames and passwords
C. aaa new-model command
D. secret password for the root user
E. HTTP and/or HTTPS server
F. TACACS server group

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3t/12_3t7/feature/guide/gtclivws.html
Configuring a CLI View
Use this task to create a CLI view and add commands or interfaces to the view, as appropriate.
Prerequisites
Before you create a view, you must perform the following tasks:

Enable AAA via the aaa new-model command. (For more information on enabling AAA, see the chapter “Configuring Authentication” in the Cisco IOS Security Configuration Guide, Release 12.3.

Ensure that your system is in root view–not privilege level 15.
SUMMARY STEPS
1.
enable view

2.
configure terminal

3.
parser view view-name

4.
secret 5 encrypted-password

5.
commands parser-mode {include | include-exclusive | exclude} [all] [interface interface-name | command]

6.
exit

7.
exit

8.
enable [privilege-level] [view view-name]

9.
show parser view [all]
QUESTION 22
Which two options are characteristics of the Cisco Configuration Professional Security Audit wizard? (Choose two.)
A. displays a screen with fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-related configuration changes to implement
B. has two modes of operation: interactive and non-interactive
C. automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and Cisco IOS IPS to secure the router
D. uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement role-based CLI
E. requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and which connect to the outside network
Correct Answer: AE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/net_mgmt/cisco_configuration_professional/v2_7/olh/ccp.pdf
Perform Security Audit
This option starts the Security Audit wizard. The Security Audit wizard tests your router configuration to determine if any potential security problems exist in the
configuration, and then presents you with a screen that lets you determine which of those security problems you want to fix. Once determined, the Security Audit
wizard will make the necessary changes to the router configuration to fix those problems

To have Cisco CP perform a security audit and then fix the problems it has found:

Step 1
In the Feature bar, select Configure > Security > Security Audit.

Step 2
Click Perform Security Audit.
The Welcome page of the Security Audit wizard appears.

Step 3
Click Next>.
The Security Audit Interface Configuration page appears.

Step 4
The Security Audit wizard needs to know which of your router interfaces connect to your inside network and which connect outside of your network. For each
interface listed, check either the Inside or Outside check box to indicate where the interface connects.
Step 5
Click Next> .
The Security Audit wizard tests your router configuration to determine which possible security problems may exist. A screen showing the progress of this action
appears, listing all of the configuration options being tested for, and whether or not the current router configuration passes those tests. If you want to save this
report to a file, click Save Report.

Step 6
Click Close.
The Security Audit Report Card screen appears, showing a list of possible security problems.

Step 7
Check the Fix it boxes next to any problems that you want Cisco Configuration Professional (Cisco CP) to fix.

For a description of the problem and a list of the Cisco IOS commands that will be added to your configuration, click the problem description to display a help page
about that problem.

Step 8
Click Next>.

Step 9
The Security Audit wizard may display one or more screens requiring you to enter information to fix certain problems. Enter the information as required and click
Next> for each of those screens.

Step 10
The Summary page of the wizard shows a list of all the configuration changes that Security Audit will make.
Click Finish to deliver those changes to your router.

QUESTION 23
Which statement describes a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS image resilience feature?
A. The show version command does not show the Cisco IOS image file location.
B. The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output from the show flash command.
C. When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secured FTP location.
D. The running Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM.
E. The running Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/security/command/reference/sec_book.html secure boot-config
To take a snapshot of the router running configuration and securely archive it in persistent storage, use the secure boot-config command in global configuration
mode. To remove the secure configuration archive and disable configuration resilience, use the no form of this command.

secure boot-config [restore filename]
no secure boot-config
Usage Guidelines
Without any parameters, this command takes a snapshot of the router running configuration and securely archives it in persistent storage. Like the image, the
configuration archive is hidden and cannot be viewed or removed directly from the command-line interface (CLI) prompt . It is recommended that you run this
command after the router has been fully configured to reach a steady state of operation and the running configuration is considered complete for a restoration, if
required. A syslog message is printed on the console notifying the user of configuration resilience activation. The secure archive uses the time of creation as its
filename. For example, .runcfg-20020616-081702.ar was created July 16 2002 at 8:17:02. The restore option reproduces a copy of the secure configuration
archive as the supplied filename (disk0:running-config, slot1:runcfg, and so on). The restore operation will work only if configuration resilience is enabled. The
number of restored copies that can be created is unlimited.

The no form of this command removes the secure configuration archive and disables configuration resilience. An enable, disable, enable sequence has the effect of upgrading the configuration archive if any changes were made to the running configuration since the last time the feature was disabled. The configuration upgrade scenario is similar to an image upgrade. The feature detects a different version of Cisco IOS and notifies the user of a version mismatch. The same command can be run to upgrade the configuration archive to a newer version after new configuration commands corresponding to features in the new image have been issued. The correct sequence of steps to upgrade the configuration archive after an image upgrade is as follows:
Configure new commands

Issue the secure boot-config command secure boot-image To enable Cisco IOS image resilience, use the secure boot-image command in global configuration mode. To disable Cisco IOS image resilience and release the secured image so that it can be safely removed, use the no form of this command.

secure boot-image no secure boot-image Usage Guidelines This command enables or disables the securing of the running Cisco IOS image. The following two possible scenarios exist with this command.

When turned on for the first time, the running image (as displayed in the show version command output) is secured, and a syslog entry is generated. This
command will function properly only when the system is configured to run an image from a disk with an Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) interface. Images booted from a TFTP server cannot be secured. Because this command has the effect of “hiding” the running image, the image file will not be included in any directory listing of the disk. The no form of this command releases the image so that it can be safely removed.

If the router is configured to boot up with Cisco IOS resilience and an image with a different version of Cisco IOS is detected, a message similar to the following is displayed at bootup: ios resilience :Archived image and configuration version 12.2 differs from running version 12.3. Run secure boot-config and image commands to upgrade archives to running version. To upgrade the image archive to the new running image, reenter this command from the console. A message will be displayed about the upgraded image. The old image is released and will be visible in the dir command output.
QUESTION 24
Which type of management reporting is defined by separating management traffic from production traffic?
A. IPsec encrypted
B. in-band
C. out-of-band
D. SSH

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Security/SAFE_RG/chap9.html#wp1054 OOB Management Best Practices The OOB network segment hosts console servers, network management stations, AAA servers, analysis and correlation tools, NTP, FTP, syslog servers, network compliance management, and any other management and control services. A single OOB management network may serve all the enterprise network modules located at the headquarters. An OOB management network should be deployed using the following best practices:

Provide network isolation
Enforce access control

Prevent data traffic from transiting the management network
QUESTION 25
Which two options are two of the built-in features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. VLSM
B. native IPsec
C. controlled broadcasts
D. mobile IP
E. NAT

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/ip6-tunnel.html

IPv6 IPsec Site-to-Site Protection Using Virtual Tunnel Interface The IPv6 IPsec feature provides IPv6 crypto site-to-site protection of all types of IPv6 unicast and
multicast traffic using native IPsec IPv6 encapsulation. The IPsec virtual tunnel interface (VTI) feature provides this function, using IKE as the management
protocol. An IPsec VTI supports native IPsec tunneling and includes most of the properties of a physical interface. The IPsec VTI alleviates the need to apply
crypto maps to multiple interfaces and provides a routable interface.

The IPsec VTI allows IPv6 routers to work as security gateways, establish IPsec tunnels between other security gateway routers, and provide crypto IPsec
protection for traffic from internal network when being transmitting across the public IPv6 Internet. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/
ip6-mobile.html

Mobile IPv6 Overview
Mobile IPv4 provides an IPv4 node with the ability to retain the same IPv4 address and maintain uninterrupted network and application connectivity while traveling
across networks. In Mobile IPv6, the IPv6 address space enables Mobile IP deployment in any kind of large environment.
No foreign agent is needed to use Mobile IPv6.

System infrastructures do not need an upgrade to accept Mobile IPv6 nodes. IPv6 autoconfiguration simplifies mobile node (MN) Care of Address (CoA)
assignment.
Mobile IPv6 benefits from the IPv6 protocol itself; for example, Mobile IPv6 uses IPv6 option headers (routing, destination, and mobility) and benefits from the use
of neighbor discovery. Mobile IPv6 provides optimized routing, which helps avoid triangular routing. Mobile IPv6 nodes work transparently even with nodes that do
not support mobility (although these nodes do not have route optimization).
Mobile IPv6 is fully backward-compatible with existing IPv6 specifications. Therefore, any existing host that does not understand the new mobile messages will
send an error message, and communications with the mobile node will be able to continue, albeit without the direct routing optimization.

QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using

CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in order to find answers to your business question.

Which four properties are included in the inspection Cisco Map OUT_SERVICE? (Choose four)
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. SMTP
E. P2P
F. ICMP

Correct Answer: ABEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
First option:

Second option:

QUESTION 29
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using
CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in order to find answers to your business question.
What NAT address will be assigned by ACL 1?
A. 192.168.1.0/25
B. GlobalEthernet0/0 interface address.
C. 172.25.223.0/24
D. 10.0.10.0/24 Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 30
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using
CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in order to find answers to your business question.
Which Class Map is used by the INBOUND Rule?
A. SERVICE_IN
B. Class-map-ccp-cls-2
C. Ccp-cts-2
D. Class-map SERVICE_IN

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of Cisco ISR and CCP configuration questions. Using
CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in order to find answers to your business question.

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