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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.
The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches? 200-125 dumps
A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 642-892 Certification Material, Most Reliable Cisco 642-892 Dumps PDF With The Knowledge And Skills

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QUESTION 141
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Which description correctly describes a MAC address flooding attack?
A. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the destination address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
B. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the source address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
C. The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
D. The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
E. Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
F. Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. On all routers in the network, EIGRP has been configured for load balancing across the three links. However, traffic destined for Network B from R1 is only load balanced over paths R1-R2-R5 and R1-R3-R5. What is the cause of the problem?
A. EIGRP will not select more than two links for unequal cost path load balancing.
B. Because the path has a different link type, EIGRP will not select path R1-R4-R5 for load balancing.
C. Because Router R4 is not a feasible successor, EIGRP will not select path R1-R4-R5 for load balancing.
D. EIGRP will not select path R1-R4-R5 for load balancing unless the value of the variance parameter is increased.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP. Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is responsible for sending the community attributes of the router to its EBGP neighbor?
A. neighbor 12.113.176.25 send-community
B. neighbor 12.10.20.2 route-map iBGP_Advertised_Routes out
C. neighbor 12.113.176.25 route-map Advertised_Customer_Networks out
D. neighbor 12.10.20.2 next-hop-self

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode.
Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?
A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which command should you issue first to configure EIGRP for IP?
A. ip eigrp routing
B. router eigrp process-id
C. ip eigrp autonomous-system-number
D. router eigrp autonomous-system-number

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
Refer to the exhibit. What are two important facts in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)
A. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
B. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.
C. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
D. The RP is only seen in version 2 of Sparse-Dense mode.
E. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?
A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 156
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20
A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on routers R1 and R2.
However, R1 does not show R2 as a neighbor and does not accept routing updates from R2. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The no auto-summary command has not been issued under the EIGRP process on both routers.
B. Interface E0 on router R1 has not been configured with a secondary IP address of 10.1.2.1/24.
C. EIGRP cannot exchange routing updates with a neighbor’s router interface that is configured with two IP addresses.
D. EIGRP cannot form neighbor relationship and exchange routing updates with a secondary address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which two statements are true about IS-IS routing? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is more efficient than OSPF in the use of CPU resources.
B. Based on the default timers, OSPF detects a failure faster than IS-IS does.
C. OSPF default timers permit more tuning than IS-IS does.
D. OSPF is more scalable than IS-IS because of its ability to identify normal, stub, and NSSA areas.
E. IS-IS and OSPF are both Open Standard, link-state routing protocols which support VLSM.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Refer to the exhibit. When a profile is configured in the Aironet Desktop Utility, which security option permits the configuration of host-based Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?
A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2 Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)
A. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
B. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
C. Router RTA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 224.0.1.40.
E. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
F. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 192.168.9.4.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?
A. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, Router B will maintain the role of master virtual router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, Router A will maintain the role of master virtual router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S2 contains the default configuration. Switches S1 and S3 both have had the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst issued on them. What will be the result?
A. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to exchange traffic but neither will be able to exchange traffic with Switch S2
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
D. IEEE 802.1D and IEEE 802.1w are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, l and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode.
Recipient A and Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches.
Which statement is true?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
What multicast address is used by GLBP?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.10
C. 224.0.0.100
D. 224.0.0.101
E. 224.0.0.102

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?
A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24
These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured DHCP services on the router as shown. DHCP clients connected to the FastEthernet0/0 interface are working properly. DHCP clients connected to the FastEthernet0/1 interface are not receiving addresses. Which two statements contain recommendations that will solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the FastEthernet0/0 configuration.
B. The ip helper-address 10.0.0.1 command should be issued so that the address can be added to the FastEthernet0/1 configuration.
C. A second DHCP pool for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be configured.
D. The network shown in the output under the ip dhcp pool Central command should be changed to network
10.10.0.0 with a mask of 255.255.255.0.
E. An ip dhcp excluded-address global configuration command for network 10.10.0.0/24 should be issued.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?
A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Refer to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit. The RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multilayer switches 1-6. Given the number of configuration steps involved, what is the most efficient way to configure the network while meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?
A. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Allow the switches to elect their own root for each multicast tree.
E. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Specify switch 1 as the root for the RPI Multicast Server. Specify switch 2 as the root for the CMU Multicast Server.
F. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 180
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1?
A. All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will cause the security violation counter to increment.
B. The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be replaced with the new address.
C. The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
D. The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Which statement is true about IPv6?
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use anycast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
An administrator has decided to configure Integrated IS-IS on the network. What must the administrator do to enable the interfaces to distribute IP information using IS-IS?
A. The networks configured on each interface must be associated to the IS-IS routing protocol using the network router configuration command.
B. Each interface must be enabled to support IS-IS with the ip router isis interface configuration command.
C. All configured IP networks will automatically be enabled when IS-IS is configured with the router isis global configuration command.
D. Each network must be identified with the net interface configuration command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which statement is true about IBGP routers?
A. They must be fully meshed.
B. They can be in a different AS.
C. They must be directly connected.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst. Switch S3 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode mst. Switch S2 is running the IEEE 802.1D instance of Spanning-Tree. What will be the result?
A. IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are compatible. IEEE 802.1d is incompatible. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. Neither will be able to pass traffic to Switch S2.
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
D. IEEE 802.1d, IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is enabled on switch SW_A only. Both Host_A and Host_B acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the outcome be if Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?
A. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
B. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
C. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
D. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a what does 07.ac represent?
A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit. Which two Lightweight Access Point statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. An AP that has been upgraded from an autonomous AP to lightweight AP will only function in conjunction with a Cisco Wireless LAN controller.
B. Autonomous APs receive control and configuration information from a WLAN controller.
C. LWAPP increases the amount of processing within the APs, enabling them to support filtering and policy enforcement features.
D. Real time events such as authentication, security management, and mobility are handled by the lightweight AP.
E. Lightweight APs require local configurations using local management.
F. WLAN controllers provide a single point of management.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?
A. The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic will be dropped.
D. The traffic will be forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
LAB
A. 1. Seed metric for EIGRP must have the following characteristics: Bandwidth=512 Kbps
2.
Delay=100

3.
Reliability=255

4.
Load=1

5.
MTU=1500
Seed metric for IS-IS must be set to 50.
Only redistribute Level-1 IS-IS routes into EIGRP.
Redistribute EIGPR routes into IS-IS as Level-1 routes.
Correct
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Blockade# conf t Blockade(config)# router isis Blockade(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50
Blockade(config)# router eigrp 100 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute isis level-1 metric 512 10 255 1 1500 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute connected
Blockade# copy run start
Answer: A
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?
A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?
A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Which statement is true about the implementation of IPv6 in an already existing IPv4 network?
A. IPv6 can be routed using the same routing protocol versions as IPv4
B. A router routing for IPv6 and IPv4 must convert IPv4 packets to IPv6 packets to route them.
C. IPv4 and IPv6 networks can be routed simultaneously.
D. Only OSPF version 3 can be utilized for routing IPv4 and IPv6.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?
A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is
fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?
A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 202
In order for two routers to become EIGRP neighbors, which two values must match? (Choose two.)
A. hello time
B. hold time
C. autonomous system
D. K values
E. delay

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)
A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about trust boundaries in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. A device is trusted if it correctly classifies packets.
B. A device is trusted if it correctly declassifies packets.
C. The outermost trusted devices represent the trust boundary.
D. Classification and marking occur using 802.1ab QoS bits before reaching the trust boundary.
E. Network trust boundaries are automatically configured in IOS version 12.3 and later.
F. For scalability, classification should be done as close to the edge as possible.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
Given the NSAP, 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
A. 39
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green status LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter?
A. The adapter is not receiving power.
B. The adapter is in power save mode.
C. The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured.
D. The adapter is associated to an access point or another client.
E. The adapter is transmitting or receiving data while associated to an access point or another client.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
Based on the exhibited command output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EIGRP network is stable.
B. The router at 10.1.1.3 has not replied to the R1 query packet.
C. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is undergoing recomputation.
D. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is stuck-in-active.
E. R1 has sent a query packet to 10.1.1.2.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
B. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
C. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
D. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and
120.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and

110.

E. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
F. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and
110.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and

120.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Refer to the exhibit. The signal transmitted from the AP is reflected off a wall resulting in multipath interference at the client end. Which statement is true?
A. If signal 1 is in phase with signal 2, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
B. If signal 2 is close to 360 degrees out of phase with signal 1, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
C. Multipath interference is solved by using dual antennas.
D. Multipath interference is less of an issue when using a DSSS technology because multipath is frequency selective.
E. The transmitted signal from the AP arrives at the client at slightly different times resulting in phase shifting.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
LAB The information of the question You will configure FastEthernet ports 0/12 through 0/24 for users who belong to VLAN 20. Also, all VLAN and VTP configurations are to be completed in global configuration mode as VLAN database mode is being deprecated by Cisco. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
1.
Ensure the switch does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements received on trunk ports.

2.
Ensure all non-trunking interfaces (Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) transition immediately to the forwarding state of Spanning-Tree.

3.
Ensure all FastEthernet interfaces are in a permanent non-trunking mode.

4.
Place FastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 in VLAN 20
A. switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode transparent switch(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport mode access switch(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 switch(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 switch(config-if-range)#end switch# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 was configured with the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 command.
B. OSPF version 2 has been enabled to support IPv6.
C. The IP address of the backup designated router (BDR) is FE80::205:5FFF:FED3:5808.
D. The output was generated by the show ip interface command.
E. The router was configured with the commands: router ospf 1 network 172.16.6.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
F. This is the designated router (DR) on the FastEthernet 0/0 link.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS.
C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships.
D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths.
E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part.
F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for BGP. EBGP routes received on router R2 show up in the BGP table on routers R1 and R3 but not in their IP routing tables.
What would cause this?
A. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned is on.
B. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned is off.
C. EBGP multihop is not configured on routers R1 and R3.
D. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive the same routes via an IGP.
E. The BGP routers in autonomous system 100 are not logically fully-meshed.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 217
Which two reductions are the correct reductions of the IPv6 address 2001:0d02:0000:0000:0014:0000:0000:0095? (Choose two.)
A. 2001:d02::14::95
B. 2001:0d02:::0014:::0095
C. 2001:0d02:::0014:0:0:0095
D. 2001:d02::14:0:0:95
E. 2001:d02:0:0:14::95
F. FF::0014:0:0:0095

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 218
What happens when an IPv6 enabled router running 6to4 must send a packet to a remote destination and the next hop is the address of 2002::/16?
A. The packet is tagged with an IPv6 header and the IPv6 prefix is included.
B. The IPv6 packet is encapsulated in an IPv4 packet using an IPv4 protocol type of 41.
C. The IPv6 packet has its header removed and replaced with an IPv4 header.
D. The IPv6 packet is dropped because that destination is unable to route IPv6 packets.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 219
When configuring EIGRP to run across a 56 Kbps serial PPP link, what command do you need to put under the serial interface to ensure proper convergence of EIGRP routes?
A. bandwidth 56
B. bandwidth 56000
C. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 56
D. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 56000

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 220
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. R1 is configured with the ip summary-address command.
B. The route to 10.2.0.0/16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
C. R1 is configured with the variance command.
D. A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system.
E. The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with the ip default-network 0.0.0.0 command.
F. R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 221
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Examine the above configuration. What does the route map named test accomplish?
A. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
E. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
F. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X?
A. E-B-A
B. E-B-A and E-C-A
C. E-C-A and E-D-A
D. E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?
A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 228
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 56
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to _______.
A. boot the system into Mac OS 9
B. boot the system into Mac OS X
C. boot the system into Open firmware diagnostics
D. hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of _______
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. DC-in Board
E. Backup battery
F. Power adapter

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which of the following components routes power between the AC adapter, main battery, and all other main modules inside an iBook (Dual USB)?
A. PMU
B. DC board
C. Logic Board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by ______.
A. visually inspecting them for damage
B. replacing them with known-good parts in any order
C. adding more known-good parts in a specified order
D. replacing them with known-good parts in a specified order
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
How often should you calibrate a PowerBook G4, s Lithium Ion battery?
A. Never
B. Just once when you first use the PowerBook
C. Whenever the PowerBook is forced in to sleep mode
D. When you first use the PowerBook and then every couple of months thereafter

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What does recalibrating a Lithium Ion battery inside a PowerBook or iBook actually do?
A. Reconditions the battery to overcome the memory effect.
B. Keeps the onscreen battery time and percent display accurate.
C. Extends the, number of full discharge cycles available in battery.
D. Readjusts the Energy Saver preferences to the battery’ s performance.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
If you need to store a PowerBook or iBook battery without using it for a few weeks or more, at what change level does Apple recommend you store the battery?
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
What is the proper way to calibrate a lithium Ion battery used in a PowerBook G4 or iBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the battery calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box, on further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery fully. Run computer on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.
D. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
Which of the following steps are recommended to maximize battery life in a PowerBook G4? (choose all that apply)
A. Reduce brightness settings
B. Turn AirPort card off if installed
C. Disconnect any bus-powered USB peripherals
D. Remove any PC (PCMCIA) card from the pc card expansion slot.
E. Choose ‘Highest performance’ in the Energy Saver System preferences

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 66
Which THREE of the following have an effect on the lifespan of Lithium Ion batteries used in PowerBooks and iBook?
A. Memory effect
B. Humidity extremes
C. Energy Saver settings
D. Temperature extremes
E. Number of discharge cycles

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 67
Which THREE of the following actions can put a PowerBook to sleep?
A. Close the PowerBook lid.
B. Press Command-Option-S.
C. Select sleep from the Location Manager.
D. Select sleep from the Location Manager.
E. Select Sleep in the Energy Saver pane of System Preferences.
F. Press the Power button and select Sleep from the dialog box.

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 68
An iBook G4 is running from the AC adapter, and has a battery installed which is charging. Which TWO of the following are valid visual cues indicating when the battery is fully charged?
A. The iBook backlight will return to full intensity.
B. All lights on the battery will illuminate when the button on the battery is pressed.
C. The sleep light will blink three times, indicating that the iBook is no longer charging.
D. The lighted ring on the power adapter connector will change from amber to green.
E. The sleep light will solidly illuminate, indicating that the iBook can be power on or awakened from sleep.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 69
Identify the correct procedure to reset the Power Manager on a PowerBook G4 (12-inch)?
A. Press the PMU Reset button on the main logic board.
B. Shut the computer down and press the reset button for 10 to 15 seconds.
C. Shut the computer down and press Shift-Control-Option-Power on the keyboard.
D. Remove the AC power adapter and battery, and let the computer sit for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
An iBook operating on battery power is in sleep mode and cannot be awakened. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The iBook is malfunctioning.
B. The iBook has a crashed PMU.
C. The iBook’ s battery is too low to operate the iBook.
D. The iBook, s security features have been activated.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
What function does a PMU reset perform?
A. Recalibrates the main battery
B. Starts the battery charging cycle over
C. Returns the hardware to default settings
D. Removes all user preferences related to power

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Where is the PMU reset button for the PowerBook G4 (DVI) located?
A. Behind the I/O panel between the modem and the S-video port
B. On the upper right side of the logic board near the power button
C. The button has been removed. Holding down Command-Shift-Fn-control resets the PMU.
D. The button has been removed. Holding down the power ,button for several seconds resets the PMU.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 74
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 75
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. DC-in Board
E. Backup battery
F. Power adapter

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
If you need to store a PowerBook or iBook battery without using it for a few weeks or more, at what change level does Apple recommend you store the battery?
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
An iBook operating on battery power is in sleep mode and cannot be awakened. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The iBook is malfunctioning.
B. The iBook has a crashed PMU.
C. The iBook’ s battery is too low to operate the iBook.
D. The iBook, s security features have been activated.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 41
If e-mail is subject to review by individuals other than the sender and recipient, what should be clearly stated in the organization’s e-mail policy?
A. Technologies and methods used to monitor and enforce the organization’s policies
B. Senior management and business-unit owner responsibilities and delegation options
C. Clear, legally defensible definition of what constitutes a business record
D. Consequences for violation of the organization’s acceptable-use policy
E. No expectation of privacy for e-mail communications, using the organization’s resources

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Which of the following are common failures that should be addressed in an organization’s Business Continuity Plan (BCP) ? (Choose THREE.)
A. Connectivity failures
B. Accounting failures
C. Hardware failures
D. Utility failures
E. Personal failures

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 43
Which TWO of the following items should be accomplished, when interviewing candidates for a position within an organization?
A. Hire an investigation agency to run background checks.
B. Verify all dates of previous employment.
C. Question candidates, using polygraphs.
D. Contact personal and professional references.
E. Run criminal-background checks.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 44
A _______ _______ posture provides many levels of security possibilities, for access control.
A. Layered defensive
B. Multiple offensive
C. Flat defensive
D. Reactive defensive
E. Proactive offensive

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
At ABC Corporation, access to critical information resources, such as database and e-mail servers, is controlled by the information-technology (IT) department. The supervisor in the department grants access to printers where the printer is located. Managers grant and revoke rights to files within their departments’ directories on the file server, but the IT department controls who has access to the directories. Which type of access-management system is in use at ABC Corporation?
A. Centralized access management
B. Role-based access management
C. Hybrid access management
D. Decentralized access management
E. Privileged access management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
A(n) _______ occurs when intrusion-detection measures fail to recognize suspicious traffic or activity.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. CIFS pop-up
D. Threshold
E. Alarm

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
What is single sign-on? An authentication method:
A. that allows users to authenticate once, and then uses tokens or other credentials to manage subsequent authentication attempts
B. that stores user credentials locally, so that users need only authenticate the first time, a local machine is used
C. requiring the use of one-time passwords, so users authenticate only once, with a given set of credentials.
D. that uses smart cards, hardware tokens, and biometrics to authenticate users; also known as three-factor authentication
E. that requires users to re-authenticate for every resource accessed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is NOT a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) recovery strategy?
A. Delegating risk to another entity, such as an insurer
B. Manual procedures; alternative solution to technology available
C. Deferring action; action waiting until a later date
D. Reciprocal agreements with another organization
E. Doing nothing; no action taken to recover the technology

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 45
When configuring Content Security using Wild Cards, which of the following is NOT a valid URI configuration method?
A. GET
B. WRITE
C. POST
D. HEAD
E. PUT

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
___________ is the VPN-1/FireWall-1 load-balancing algorithm that chooses the next physical server in the physical server group.
A. Server Load
B. Router Load
C. Round Robin
D. Round Trip
E. Domain

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You are trying to enter a new user, group, or organizational unit to the LDAP Server. You encounter the error message “violates schema”. To provide the best long-term security you should:
A. Recover the corrupt database.
B. Restart the server.
C. Turn of schema checking and restart the LDAP Server.
D. Turn off schema checking and restart the ACM.
E. Import the schema and leave schema checking on.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 48
You are installing CP2000 VPN-1/FireWall-1 in a distributed environment. There will be one firewall module on your local network, and two other firewall modules at different remote office sites. A separate machine on the local network will run the Management Server. How many IP addresses should be in the masters’ file you create on the local firewall module?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
You have three gateways in a MEP configuration; Gateway 1 (Primary), Gateway 2, and Gateway 3. Assume that a failure of the primary gateway has occurred. Of the two remaining gateways, which will SecuRemote attempt to establish an encrypted connection with?
A. Gateway 2
B. Gateway 3
C. The gateway set by the firewall administrator.
D. The gateway addresses by the client.
E. The gateway that answers first.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
You have Check Point High Availability installed. You have defined a gateway cluster consisting of group of gateways with synchronized state tables. If one gateway fails another will take over the connection.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
To implement fully overlapping encryption domains, you must perform which of the following actions?
A. Open each gateway’s Workstation Properties Screen and select “Overlap with domain name” on the VPN tab.
B. Create both gateways in the user’s SecuRemote with the same domain name.
C. Create a group including both gateways and all their protected networks.
D. Create a group including both gateways.
E. Create a group containing all protected networks.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
In the event that an intruder attempts to compromise a valid SecureClient connection, the SecureClient machine can remain protected by:
A. The VPN module on the enterprise firewall.
B. Enforcing a desktop policy blocking incoming connections to the SecureClient.
C. The SecuRemote Server on the organization’s internal firewall.
D. Network address translation performed by the gateway.
E. Using FWZ encapsulation.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
When configured for use with SecureClient, how many user groups can be fined for a single Policy Server?
A. 1
B. 125
C. 254
D. 5000
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
You are a firewall engineer setting up SecuRemote. To implement data integrity checking with the FWZ encryption scheme, you should use which algorithm?
A. CAST
B. SKIP
C. MD-5
D. SHA-1
E. 3DES

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
You are a firewall administrator using SecuRemote. If the Digital Signature is used to achieve both data integrity checking and verification of sender, Digital Signatures are only possible when using ______
A. A symmetric encryption algorithm.
B. An asymmetric encryption algorithm.
C. CBL-DES
D. ESP
E. 3DES

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
Which of the following is NOT a capability of the FWZ encryption scheme?
A. The FWZ encryption scheme encrypts all data behind the IP and TCP headers.
B. The FWZ encryption scheme supports RSA and DES encryption algorithms.
C. The FWZ encryption scheme relies on the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Management Servers to function as Certificate Authorities for encrypting gateways.
D. The FWZ encryption scheme authenticates VPN-1/FireWall-1 passwords.
E. The FWZ encryption uses reliable datagram protocol to manage VPN session keys, encryption methods and data integrity.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Of the following, which cause the greatest increase in encrypted packet size?
A. In-place
B. Tunneling Mode
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. DES
E. 3DES

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Diffie-Hellman is an algorithm, which uses pre-existing Asymmetric keys to generate symmetric keys For symmetric encryption. The “output” of this algorithm is a basic session key used for symmetric encryption.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
What port does CPMAD use?
A. 600
B. 700
C. 1456
D. 18184
E. 18186

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
What file needs to be configured to specify the sequence in which the CVP Servers are involved?
A. cvpm.conf
B. cvp.conf
C. userc.C
D. cvpvpm.conf
E. cpcvp-1.con

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 30
A(n) ________ account user can create, delete, modify accounts, install software, and change system settings.
A. Guest
B. Standard
C. Sharing Only
D. Administrator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
You would like to give a friend temporary access to your Mac so that they can check their online banking website, but would rather they not use your administrator account. What is the easiest way for you to share your Mac and protect your privacy?
A. Log in to a Sharing Only user.
B. Enable a Managed User account, and limit access to just Safari.
C. Create a Standard User account, then delete it when your friend is done.
D. Open Accounts preferences, select Guest Account, then select Allow guests to log in to this computer.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
An administrator would like to quickly remove another user’s access by deleting her account, but keep the contents of her very large home folder for later retrieval. Which account delete option is the best choice?
A. Delete the home folder.
B. Don’t change the home folder.
C. Save the home folder in a disk image.
D. Burn the contents of the home folder to a DVD-R then delete it.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
A user has forgotten his administrator password. What is the recommended tool for a user to resolve this issue?
A. Terminal
B. Single User mode
C. Reset Password utility
D. Firmware Password Utility

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
What built-in feature of Snow Leopard allows a user to rename a home directory?
A. Finder
B. Keychain Access
C. Reset Password utility
D. Advanced Account Options

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
Snow Leopard uses both standard _______ and ________ permissions to control a users access to files and folders. SELECT TWO
A. ACL
B. SID
C. CIFS
D. LSASS
E. POSIX

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 36
Which of the following scenarios is most appropriate to use Repair Permissions in Disk Utility?
A. Computer fails to turn on.
B. Cannot complete a Snow Leopard install.
C. Cannot install any application into /Applications.
D. Cannot open one Numbers document. Other Numbers documents open without issue.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
If a user needs to change the permissions of a file to read only for all users, what is the recommended method?
A. Use the Terminal to adjust file permissions with command line tools.
B. Use Repair Permissions in the Disk Utility to adjust the file’s permissions.
C. Use the Sharing & Permissions pop-up menu in the file’s Get Info window to choose read only for all users.
D. Place the file into a folder, then change folder permissions to read only using the Sharing & Permissions pop-up menu in the folder’s Get Info window.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A user finds that she cannot access the Movies, Pictures, and Downloads folders in her home directory. The Finder displays the message: “The folder “Downloads” can’t be opened because you don’t have permission to see its contents.” How can the user quickly and easily correct these permissions issues with her personal data?
A. Open the Disk Utility and run repair disk permissions.
B. Erase their hard drive and restore from a Time Machine backup.
C. Open the Terminal and use command line tools to correct the permissions.
D. Use Reset Password utility on the Snow Leopard Install DVD to reset home directory permissions and ACLs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
A customer is backing up a computer named “Cliffords MacBook” to an external hard drive named “BigDrive” using Time Machine. What path is the backup stored in?
A. /Cliffords MacBook/Backups.backupdb/BigDrive/
B. /BigDrive/Backups.backupdb/Cliffords MacBook/
C. /Cliffords MacBook/Time Machine/backups/BigDrive/
D. /BigDrive/Time Machine/backups/Cliffords MacBook/
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
When Time Machine creates incremental backups, how are the files organized?
A. Version numbers (1a,2b,3c)
B. Version numbers (1.1,1.2,1.3)
C. Date and time (yyyy-mm-dd-hhmmss)
D. Date and time (mm-dd-yyyy-hhmmss)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
How can a user delete a file named “junk document” from all previous Time Machine backups?
A. Delete “junk document” in the Time Machine Finder window for the most recent backup.
B. Open Time Machine preferences and remove the file “junk document” from the backup list.
C. Select the “Delete all Backups of “junk document” from the File menu in any standard Finder window.
D. Select the “Delete all Backups of “junk document” from the Action menu in the Time Machine Finder window.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
Which is a valid troubleshooting step to resolve a customer’s complaint that his Time Machine backup takes a long time?
A. Quit unused applications.
B. Purchase a larger backup drive.
C. Reselect the drive as your backup drive.
D. Remove non-Time Machine files from your backup drive.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
Which one of the following is a physical port that appears in the Network preference pane?
A. VPN
B. 6 to 4
C. PPPoE
D. FireWire

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Examine the exhibit. Notice that the Airport status indicator is yellow. Complete the following statement about the status of the AirPort service on this Mac. AirPort service is _____.

A. inactive (off)
B. active and connected
C. active but not connected
D. inactive (hardware is missing)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
How would a Snow Leopard user change the order of the network services, so that Airport is the first choice?
A. Delete all other network services using the Network preference pane.
B. Set Airport as the priority network service in the Airport Utility preferences.
C. Select Airport as the default network interface in the info tab of the Network Utility.
D. Select “Set Service Order” in the Network preference pane’s Action menu then drag Airport to the top of the list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which one of the following combinations of network configurations would require multiple locations to properly configure?
A. PPP dialup IP address with modem and DHCP IP address with AirPort.
B. DHCP IP address with built-in Ethernet and DHCP IP address with AirPort.
C. PPP dialup IP address with modem and fixed IP address with built-in Ethernet.
D. Fixed IP address with built-in Ethernet and DHCP IP address with built-in Ethernet.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Dave has recently purchased a third party router, and now finds he can no longer host video chats. What section of the iChat Connection Doctor will allow him to detect if the router is configured correctly?
A. Firewall
B. Statistics
C. Capabilities
D. Network Status

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
Examine the exhibit. You go on site to troubleshoot a network issue for a customer. Given the above results of network diagnostics, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity issue?

A. ISP server is down.
B. Corrupt network location.
C. The ethernet cable is unplugged.
D. The network settings are not valid for this network.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
You suspect that a customer’s MacBook Pro is failing to connect to a network because of a software corruption issue. Which technique is the best way for you to test for basic connectivity from known good software?
A. Use the Network Setup Assistant to create a new network location.
B. Create a new user in the Account preference pane and test in that user.
C. Start up from the Snow Leopard Mac OS X Install DVD, then use Network Utility.
D. Erase the customer’s hard drive, reinstall Snow Leopard, then use Network Utility.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Bob is very concerned about network security since he travels extensively for work and frequently has to use public wifi connections. What built-in security setting could he enable to help prevent others from finding his computer on a network?
A. Stealth Mode
B. Application Firewall
C. Block all incoming connections
D. Automatically allow signed software to receive incoming connections

Correct Answer: A

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3COM 3M0-250 3Com Certified Enterprise Lan Post-Sales Expert 50 Q&A Version 2.73

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
A. Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B. Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C. Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D. Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click on the exhibit button.
Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules (review the output shown in the exhibit)?

A. [SW7700] display device
B. [SW7700] display version
C. [SW7700] display interfaces
D. [SW7700] display current-configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Click on the exhibit button.
What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP routing-table information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The default route is 200.0.0.1
B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24
C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch
D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two methods can be used for day-to-day copying of switch configuration and software files on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. USB port with a flash drive
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port #13 on switch unit #2?
A. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/13
B. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/0/13
C. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/1/13
D. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 13/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the reason to connect the p port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A. Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B. Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C. Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D. Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Click on the exhibit button.
Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked
B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual gateway path
C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the virtual gateway
D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Click on the exhibit button.
How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Click on the exhibit button.
Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2
B. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
C. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
D. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does a slow (once per second) flashing RUN LED indicate on the Switch 7700 Fabric I/O module?
A. The fabric module is faulty
B. The fabric module is running normally
C. The fabric module is faulty or out of position
D. The fabric module is booting or has not registered successfully

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs), i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?
A. All VLANs will be tagged
B. All VLANs will be untagged
C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged
D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?
A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View
B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from sending and receiving RIP updates?
A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command
B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server reside on?
A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper
B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound ip-group 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?
A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets identified by ACL 3010
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?
A. Use the port link-type hybrid command
B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)
A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area
B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 26
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC does not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN that are not OUI-based frames

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred to as VLAN-VPN)?
A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each VLAN’s parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers’ VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)
A. Define the ACL
B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?
A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports
B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?

A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
Correct Answer: B