latest 3M0-331 exam dumps _v2011-11-09_180q_By-Nels

3M0-331 Test Software. High Pass Rate Certification Braindumps Is Your Best Choice
Exam A
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
Correct Answer: D

What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?

A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Correct Answer: C
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Correct Answer: ABEF
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D

Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C
Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?

A. [RTA] ike peer RTB
B. [RTB] ike peer RTA
C. [RTA] set mode ip_tunnel
D. [RTB] set mode ip_tunnel
E. [RTA-Tunnel0/0] destination
Correct Answer: E
What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Correct Answer: C

Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. through
B. through
C. through
D. through
Correct Answer: C
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C
What is a standard way to group users for audio/video applications without overwhelming network bandwidth?
A. IP Unicasting
B. IP Multicasting
C. IP Broadcasting
D. Link Aggregation
E. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B

Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)
Correct Answer: BCE
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)
Correct Answer: D
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD

read more: _v2011-11-09_180q_By-Nels

Latest 3M0-300 exam dumps _v2011-06-11_55q_By-Bruni

3m0-300 Exam Book Pdf Free Download. This Article Profiles The 3COM Exam Book Pdf Free Download Are The Same As Real Test.

Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

read more:

Latest 3M0-212 exam dumps _v2010-07-31_135q_By-Alex

3COM 3M0-212 Exams get through Latest Upload Study Guides On Sale the vast amount of email received everyday exam study guide answers exam providing exam study guide

What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?
C. IGMP Snooping

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported on all Switch 8800 I/O modules? (Choose two.)
A. Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) interface for all Ethernet ports
B. IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
C. Layer 2/ Layer 3 switch packet processing
D. Each interface module maintains its own routing and forwarding tables

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
B. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
C. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
D. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
E. Port-based VLANs

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 4
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
B. XRN Interconnect
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping
B. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
E. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
F. Cut-through switching

Correct Answer: CDE
Match each Spanning Tree acronym with its definition.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 9
Which two are features of IEEE 802.1X Network Login? (Choose two.)
A. Authenticates users before they gain access to the network
B. All authorization can be administered centrally
C. Security administrators must use the history log file to determine who is accessing the network
D. Devices such as telephones are automatically authenticated based on IP address

Correct Answer: AB
Which three are benefits of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) over Routing Information Protocol (RIPv1)? (Choose three.)
A. Provides faster convergence
B. Updates neighbor routers by sending complete router table
C. Performs packet flooding using broadcasts
D. Employs equal-cost, multi-path (ECMP) routing
E. Supports flexible subnet schemes

Correct Answer: ADE
Which two are features of the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800 Spanning Tree Protocol configuration and support? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP considers VLANs in its calculation
B. Both switches support “STP disable per port”
C. Spanning Tree is enabled by default
D. Use Multiple Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) to enable VLAN-specific links between multiple switches

Correct Answer: BD
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
B. Eight output queues per port
C. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
D. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted Random Early Discard)
Correct Answer: BD

Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. User definable MAC table aging period
B. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
Correct Answer: AD
Which two are security features on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Switch requires an external RADIUS server for user authentication
B. Switch can act as both authenticator and authentication server
C. Supports a single supplicant on each physical port
D. IEEE 802.1X Network Login can be enabled globally or on individual ports

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 15
What is a purpose of the Switch 5500 automatic VLAN and QoS assignment?
A. Always applies the administrative configuration to the port at login
B. Dynamically creates a new VLAN using RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) specifications
C. VLAN and QoS profile are supplied by the RADIUS server when a user logs on
D. Preconfigures the port with the VLAN and QoS configurations

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which three products with 10Gbe support does 3Com recommend using in the network core and server aggregation layer? (Choose three.)
A. Switch 7700/7750
B. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900
C. Switch 8800 family
D. Switch 5500
E. SuperStack 3 Switch 4400

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 17
Which three hardware reliability features are supported by all Switch 8800 chassis models? (Choose three.)
A. Redundant, load-sharing power supplies
B. Hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant switch fabric
C. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) redundant backbone support
D. Redundant, load-sharing switch fabric
E. Hot-swappable switch elements

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 18
The Switch 5500 RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) is designed to authenticate users based on MAC address without the requirement for IEEE 802.1X client on the attached devices.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The Switch 8800 supports IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet Jumbo Ethernet Frames (9KB).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
B. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
C. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
D. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric

Correct Answer: CD
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500G-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500-EI
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Configurable queue processing
B. Queue priority is based only on First In First Out (FIFO) algorithm
C. Eight hardware queues per switch
D. Eight hardware queues per port

Correct Answer: AD
Which three application-availability techniques should be used to ensure high network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Enforce techniques primarily at the network core
B. Identify and prioritize mission-critical applications
C. Protect resources with network security
D. Block rogue applications
Correct Answer: BCD
Which three routing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Routing policies
C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
Correct Answer: BCD
Which two are Switch 8800 routing configuration considerations? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RIP is disabled on the switch
B. Supports EIGRP
C. By default, RIP v2 runs when RIP is enabled
D. Supports OSPF

Correct Answer: AD
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 27
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
B. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
C. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
D. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 28
Match each Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) component with its function.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 29
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. Large enterprise distribution layer
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Match each Switch 8800 internal component with its function.

read more:

3COM_CertifyMe 3M0-211_v2010-07-31_85q_By-Williams

3COM Exam Answers exam training materials are the necessities of each of candidates who participating in the IT certification

Exam : 3M0-211 Ver : 2010-07-31 Overall it’s been a good Question for exams. Best wishes for exam. By-Williams
Exam A
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure

Correct Answer: BCD
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates

Correct Answer: CD
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 21
The Switch 7700 automatically saves the system configuration to its flash memory.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which Access Control list modes are supported on both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800?
A. IP and Link based
B. IP and Port based
C. MAC and Link based
D. Link and Port based

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
The 3Com NBX IP Telephony Systems use multicast routing for operations such as conference calls, Music-on-Hold and paging.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which command displays the system configuration stored in the Switch 7700 flash memory?
A. display flash
B. display configuration
C. display saved-configuration
D. display current-configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which two procedures should a network administrator implement to assist in identifying the cause of a network incident or problem?(Choose two)
A. Document the existing network configuration
B. Install network sniffer throughout the network
C. Download all router and Layer 3 switch tables
D. Gather appropriate sniffer traces for the problem
E. Dump the pertinent statistics from all affected network devices Correct Answer: DE
Which two are Access Control List match order parameters for both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Null-no match
B. Config – first match
C. All – longest match
D. Exact – identical match

Correct Answer: BD
Which two are useful in determining the source of a network broadcast storm? (Choose two)
A. Check all the router tables on the network
B. Check RX broadcast count in port statistics
C. Check TX broadcast count on port statistics
D. Place a network sniffer anywhere on the network
E. Use the “display igmp” command to check VLAN assignment

Correct Answer: BD
Which two are traffic prioritization features of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose two)
A. Queues can be manipulated
B. By default, there is a single queue per port
C. Logical queues are classified based on latency
D. Traffic prioritization is based on IEEE 802.1 Q tag information
E. All models support four queues per port, two physical and two loical

Correct Answer: BE
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions of the SuperStak 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Aggregated Links can be of different speeds
C. Aggregated Links participate in Resilient Link pairs
D. Configuration rules are 15 groups of up to four ports each
E. With mixed-speed Aggregated Links, traffic is sent via the hiher-speed links only
F. Resilient Aggregated Links are implemented using Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
G. Trunk Control Message Protocol (TCMP) must be enabled when connecting to the SuperStak 3 Switch 9300 or Switch 3900

read more: exam dumps