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500-052 Exam Questions & Answers

Printable PDF
Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Others Cisco Certification
Exam Code: 500-052
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Updated: Nov 25, 2019
Q&As: 90
Note: Product instant download. Please sign in and click My account to download your product.

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the design, implementation, and operation of Cisco Contact Center Express version 11.0 deployments.

  • 32% Design a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System Deployment
  • 40% Implement a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System
  • 28% Operate a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System

For details, please refer to the official cisco website.

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Cisco 500-052 UCCXD latest practice test questions

QUESTION 1
Which option can perform Call Progress Analysis in outbound IVR?
A. gateway
B. Unified CM transcoder
C. Automatic Speech Recognition server
D. agent (voice)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the
Java tab? (Choose three.)
A. to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
B. to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
C. to pass variables between two different workflows
D. to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
E. to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F. to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 5
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. the system page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
B. Cisco Desktop Administration
C. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Service ability
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
In a high availability over WAN deployment, which option cannot be across the WAN from the active Cisco Unified
Contact Center Express site?
A. ASR or TTS servers
B. wallboard server
C. SMTP server
D. enterprise database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco Unified CCX steps invoke another Unified CCX application script? (Choose two.)
A. CallSubflow step
B. On Exception Goto step
C. Trigger Application step
D. Connect step
E. Cache Document
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which tool is used to size Cisco Unified CCX?
A. Analysis Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
C. Expert Advisor
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three operations can be performed within the Cisco Finesse IP Phone Age (IPPA)? (Choose three.)
A. A supervisor can use Finesse IPPA to act as an agent and accept calls.
B. An agent can sign in to Finesse IPPA and initiate call recording.
C. A supervisor can sign in to Finesse IPPA and initiate call recording.
D. An agent using Finesse IPPA can enter Not Ready, Sign-out, and Wrap-up reasons.
E. Agents can log in to Finesse IPPA with Cisco Unified CCX deployed using a Standard license.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 11
What is the minimum package that is required to develop a custom Cisco Unified Intelligence Center report for a Cisco
Unified CCX deployment?
A. Cisco Unified CCX Premium
B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced
C. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Premium
D. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Standard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Serviceability
B. System page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
C. Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which information is readable to Cisco Collaboration Software in the cloud?
A. PII
B. plain text name value pair
C. PII and plain text name value pair
D. No information is readable to Cisco collaboration Software.
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft exam certification information

Exam DP-200: Implementing an Azure Data Solution – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-dp-200.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the
data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.

Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.

Skills measured

  • Implement data storage solutions (40-45%)
  • Manage and develop data processing (25-30%)
  • Monitor and optimize data solutions (30-35%)

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-data-engineer.aspx

Azure Data Engineers design and implement the management, monitoring, security, and privacy of data using the full stack of Azure data services to satisfy business needs. Required exams: Exam DP-201

Microsoft Certifications DP-200 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
A project requires the deployment of data to Azure Data Lake Storage.
You need to implement role-based access control (RBAC) so that project members can manage the Azure Data Lake
Storage resources.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Assign Azure AD security groups to Azure Data Lake Storage.
B. Configure end-user authentication for the Azure Data Lake Storage account.
C. Configure service-to-service authentication for the Azure Data Lake Storage account.
D. Create security groups in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and add project members.
E. Configure access control lists (ACL) for the Azure Data Lake Storage account.
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 2
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
You need to ingest and visualize real-time Twitter data by using Microsoft Azure.
Which three technologies should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Event Grid topic
B. Azure Stream Analytics Job that queries Twitter data from an Event Hub
C. Azure Stream Analytics Job that queries Twitter data from an Event Grid
D. Logic App that sends Twitter posts which have target keywords to Azure
E. Event Grid subscription
F. Event Hub instance
Correct Answer: BDF
You can use Azure Logic apps to send tweets to an event hub and then use a Stream Analytics job to read from event
hub and send them to PowerBI.
References:
https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Integrations-with-Files-and/Twitter-streaming-analytics-step-by-step/td-p/9594

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need setup monitoring for tiers 6 through 8.
What should you configure?
A. extended events for average storage percentage that emails data engineers
B. an alert rule to monitor CPU percentage in databases that emails data engineers
C. an alert rule to monitor CPU percentage in elastic pools that emails data engineers
D. an alert rule to monitor storage percentage in databases that emails data engineers
E. an alert rule to monitor storage percentage in elastic pools that emails data engineers
Correct Answer: E
Scenario:
Tiers 6 through 8 must have unexpected resource storage usage immediately reported to data engineers.
Tier 3 and Tier 6 through Tier 8 applications must use database density on the same server and Elastic pools in a cost-
effective manner.

 

QUESTION 4
You need set up the Azure Data Factory JSON definition for Tier 10 data.
What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q4-1

Box 1: Connection String
To use storage account key authentication, you use the ConnectionString property, which xpecify the information
needed to connect to Blobl Storage.
Mark this field as a SecureString to store it securely in Data Factory. You can also put account key in Azure Key Vault
and pull the accountKey configuration out of the connection string.
Box 2: Azure Blob
Tier 10 reporting data must be stored in Azure Blobs pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q4-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/connector-azure-blob-storage

 

QUESTION 5
You need to process and query ingested Tier 9 data.
Which two options should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Notification Hub
B. Transact-SQL statements
C. Azure Cache for Redis
D. Apache Kafka statements
E. Azure Event Grid
F. Azure Stream Analytics
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation:
Event Hubs provides a Kafka endpoint that can be used by your existing Kafka based applications as an alternative to
running your own Kafka cluster.
You can stream data into Kafka-enabled Event Hubs and process it with Azure Stream Analytics, in the following steps:
Create a Kafka enabled Event Hubs namespace.
Create a Kafka client that sends messages to the event hub.
Create a Stream Analytics job that copies data from the event hub into an Azure blob storage.
Scenario:pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q5

Tier 9 reporting must be moved to Event Hubs, queried, and persisted in the same Azure region as the company’s main
office
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-kafka-stream-analytics

 

QUESTION 6
You are developing a solution using a Lambda architecture on Microsoft Azure.
The data at test layer must meet the following requirements:
Data storage:
-Serve as a repository (or high volumes of large files in various formats.
-Implement optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
-Ensure that data can be organized using a hierarchical structure. Batch processing:
-Use a managed solution for in-memory computation processing.
-Natively support Scala, Python, and R programming languages.
-Provide the ability to resize and terminate the cluster automatically. Analytical data store:
-Support parallel processing.
-Use columnar storage.
-Support SQL-based languages. You need to identify the correct technologies to build the Lambda architecture. Which
technologies should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop a data ingestion process that will import data to a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse. The data to be
ingested resides in parquet files stored in an Azure Data lake Gen 2 storage account.
You need to load the data from the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account into the Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Solution;
1.
Create an external data source pointing to the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account.
2.
Create an external tile format and external table using the external data source.
3.
Load the data using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement. Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
You manage a process that performs analysis of daily web traffic logs on an HDInsight cluster. Each of 250 web servers
generates approximately gigabytes (GB) of log data each day. All log data is stored in a single folder in Microsoft Azure
Data Lake Storage Gen 2.
You need to improve the performance of the process.
Which two changes should you make? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Combine the daily log files for all servers into one file
B. Increase the value of the mapreduce.map.memory parameter
C. Move the log files into folders so that each day\\’s logs are in their own folder
D. Increase the number of worker nodes
E. Increase the value of the hive.tez.container.size parameter
Correct Answer: AC
A: Typically, analytics engines such as HDInsight and Azure Data Lake Analytics have a per-file overhead. If you store
your data as many small files, this can negatively affect performance. In general, organize your data into larger sized
files for better performance (256MB to 100GB in size). Some engines and applications might have trouble efficiently
processing files that are greater than 100GB in size.
C: For Hive workloads, partition pruning of time-series data can help some queries read only a subset of the data which
improves performance.
Those pipelines that ingest time-series data, often place their files with a very structured naming for files and folders.
Below is a very common example we see for data that is structured by date:
\DataSet\YYYY\MM\DD\datafile_YYYY_MM_DD.tsv
Notice that the datetime information appears both as folders and in the filename.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/data-lake-storage-performance-tuning-guidance

 

QUESTION 9
A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets,
and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application
allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets.
When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously share code snippets by using a
combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to
the match is added to the conversation.
Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links
appear after code snippets are added to conversations
You need to resolve the performance issues.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each
technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q9-1

Box 1: memory-optimized table
In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data
scenarios.
Box 2: materialized view
To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format
suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in
environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is
difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store.
These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the
information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current
values of
calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and
values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contain a
unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop a data ingestion process that will import data to a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse. The data to be
ingested resides in parquet files stored in an Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account.
You need to load the data from the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account into the Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Solution:
1.
Use Azure Data Factory to convert the parquet files to CSV files
2.
Create an external data source pointing to the Azure storage account
3.
Create an external file format and external table using the external data source
4.
Load the data using the INSERT…SELECT statement Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
There is no need to convert the parquet files to CSV files.
You load the data using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-load-from-azure-data-lake-store

 

QUESTION 11
You manage security for a database that supports a line of business application.
Private and personal data stored in the database must be protected and encrypted.
You need to configure the database to use Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, select the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q11-1

Step 1: Create a master key
Step 2: Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key
Step 3: Set the context to the company database
Step 4: Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate
Step 5: Set the database to use encryption
Example code: USE master; GO CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = \\’\\’; go CREATE
CERTIFICATE MyServerCert WITH SUBJECT = \\’My DEK Certificate\\’; go USE AdventureWorks2012; GO CREATE
DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY WITH ALGORITHM = AES_128 ENCRYPTION BY SERVER CERTIFICATE
MyServerCert; GO ALTER DATABASE AdventureWorks2012 SET ENCRYPTION ON; GO
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-data-encryption

 

QUESTION 12
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
A project requires analysis of real-time Twitter feeds. Posts that contain specific keywords must be stored and
processed on Microsoft Azure and then displayed by using Microsoft Power BI. You need to implement the solution.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q12-1

Step 1: Create an HDInisght cluster with the Spark cluster type
Step 2: Create a Jyputer Notebook
Step 3: Create a table
The Jupyter Notebook that you created in the previous step includes code to create an hvac table.
Step 4: Run a job that uses the Spark Streaming API to ingest data from Twitter
Step 5: Load the hvac table into Power BI Desktop
You use Power BI to create visualizations, reports, and dashboards from the Spark cluster data.
References:
https://acadgild.com/blog/streaming-twitter-data-using-spark
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-use-with-data-lake-store

 

QUESTION 13
You are creating a managed data warehouse solution on Microsoft Azure.
You must use PolyBase to retrieve data from Azure Blob storage that resides in parquet format and toad the data into a
large table called FactSalesOrderDetails.
You need to configure Azure SQL Data Warehouse to receive the data.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-200 exam question q13-1

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Microsoft exam certification information

Exam DP-201: Designing an Azure Data Solution – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-dp-201.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to design data solutions that use Azure data services.

Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include designing Azure data storage solutions that use relational and non-relational data stores, batch and real-time data processing solutions, and data security and compliance solutions.

Skills measured

  • Design Azure data storage solutions (40-45%)
  • Design data processing solutions (25-30%)
  • Design for data security and compliance (25-30%)

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/azure-data-engineer.aspx

Azure Data Engineers design and implement the management, monitoring, security, and privacy of data using the full stack of Azure data services to satisfy business needs. Required exams: Exam DP-200. related blog: http://www.mlfacets.com/2019/05/13/latest-microsoft-other-certification-dp-200-exam-dumps-shared-free-of-charge/

Microsoft Certifications DP-201 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You need to design the disaster recovery solution for customer sales data analytics.
Which three actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Provision multiple Azure Databricks workspaces in separate Azure regions.
B. Migrate users, notebooks, and cluster configurations from one workspace to another in the same region.
C. Use zone redundant storage.
D. Migrate users, notebooks, and cluster configurations from one region to another.
E. Use Geo-redundant storage.
F. Provision a second Azure Databricks workspace in the same region.
Correct Answer: ADE
Scenario: The analytics solution for customer sales data must be available during a regional outage.
To create your own regional disaster recovery topology for databricks, follow these requirements:
Provision multiple Azure Databricks workspaces in separate Azure regions
Use Geo-redundant storage.
Once the secondary region is created, you must migrate the users, user folders, notebooks, cluster configuration, jobs
configuration, libraries, storage, init scripts, and reconfigure access control.
Note: Geo-redundant storage (GRS) is designed to provide at least 99.99999999999999% (16 9\\’s) durability of objects
over a given year by replicating your data to a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away from the primary region.
If
your storage account has GRS enabled, then your data is durable even in the case of a complete regional outage or a
disaster in which the primary region isn\\’t recoverable.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs

 

QUESTION 2
You manage an on-premises server named Server1 that has a database named Database1. The company purchases a
new application that can access data from Azure SQL Database.
You recommend a solution to migrate Database1 to an Azure SQL Database instance.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure dp-201 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-201 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company is developing a solution to manage inventory data for a group of automotive repair shops. The solution will
use Azure SQL Data Warehouse as the data store.
Shops will upload data every 10 days.
Data corruption checks must run each time data is uploaded. If corruption is detected, the corrupted data must be
removed.
You need to ensure that upload processes and data corruption checks do not impact reporting and analytics processes
that use the data warehouse.
Proposed solution: Configure database-level auditing in Azure SQL Data Warehouse and set retention to 10 days.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, create a user-defined restore point before data is uploaded. Delete the restore point after data corruption
checks complete.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

 

QUESTION 4
A company has many applications. Each application is supported by separate on-premises databases.
You must migrate the databases to Azure SQL Database. You have the following requirements:
Organize databases into groups based on database usage.
Define the maximum resource limit available for each group of databases.
You need to recommend technologies to scale the databases to support expected increases in demand.
What should you recommend?
A. Read scale-out
B. Managed instances
C. Elastic pools
D. Database sharding
Correct Answer: C
SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that have
varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single Azure SQL Database
server
and share a set number of resources at a set price.
You can configure resources for the pool based either on the DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based
purchasing model.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Database sharding is a type of horizontal partitioning that splits large databases into smaller components, which are
faster and easier to manage.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool

 

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a backup strategy for CONT_SQL1 and CONT_SQL2. What should you recommend?
A. Use AzCopy and store the data in Azure.
B. Configure Azure SQL Database long-term retention for all databases.
C. Configure Accelerated Database Recovery.
D. Use DWLoader.
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: The database backups have regulatory purposes and must be retained for seven years.

 

QUESTION 6
You need to design the image processing solution to meet the optimization requirements for image tag data.
What should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets.
Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure dp-201 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure dp-201 exam question q6-1

Tagging data must be uploaded to the cloud from the New York office location.
Tagging data must be replicated to regions that are geographically close to company office locations.

 

QUESTION 7
You are designing an Azure Databricks cluster that runs user-defined local processes. You need to recommend a
cluster configuration that meets the following requirements: Minimize query latency.
-Reduce overall costs.

Maximize the number of users that can run queries on the cluster at the same time. Which cluster type should you
recommend?
A.
Standard with Autoscaling
B.
High Concurrency with Auto Termination
C.
High Concurrency with Autoscaling
D.
Standard with Auto Termination
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
You have an on-premises MySQL database that is 800 GB in size.
You need to migrate a MySQL database to Azure Database for MySQL. You must minimize service interruption to live
sites or applications that use the database.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Database Migration Service
B. Dump and restore
C. Import and export
D. MySQL Workbench
Correct Answer: A
You can perform MySQL migrations to Azure Database for MySQL with minimal downtime by using the newly
introduced continuous sync capability for the Azure Database Migration Service (DMS). This functionality limits the
amount of downtime that is incurred by the application.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/mysql/howto-migrate-online

 

QUESTION 9
You plan to deploy an Azure SQL Database instance to support an application. You plan to use the DTU-based
purchasing model.
Backups of the database must be available for 30 days and point-in-time restoration must be possible.
You need to recommend a backup and recovery policy.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Use the Premium tier and the default backup retention policy.
B. Use the Basic tier and the default backup retention policy.
C. Use the Standard tier and the default backup retention policy.
D. Use the Standard tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy.
E. Use the Premium tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy.
Correct Answer: DE
The default retention period for a database created using the DTU-based purchasing model depends on the service
tier:
Basic service tier is 1 week.
Standard service tier is 5 weeks.
Premium service tier is 5 weeks.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Basic tier only allows restore points within 7 days.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-retention

 

QUESTION 10
You are designing a data processing solution that will implement the lambda architecture pattern. The solution will use
Spark running on HDInsight for data processing.
You need to recommend a data storage technology for the solution.
Which two technologies should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Cosmos DB
B. Azure Service Bus
C. Azure Storage Queue
D. Apache Cassandra
E. Kafka HDInsight
Correct Answer: A
To implement a lambda architecture on Azure, you can combine the following technologies to accelerate real-time big
data analytics: Azure Cosmos DB, the industry\\’s first globally distributed, multi-model database service. Apache Spark
for Azure HDInsight, a processing framework that runs large-scale data analytics applications Azure Cosmos DB
change feed, which streams new data to the batch layer for HDInsight to process The Spark to Azure Cosmos DB
Connector
E: You can use Apache Spark to stream data into or out of Apache Kafka on HDInsight using DStreams.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/lambda-architecture

 

QUESTION 11
You are designing an Azure Data Factory pipeline for processing data. The pipeline will process data that is stored in
general-purpose standard Azure storage.
You need to ensure that the compute environment is created on-demand and removed when the process is completed.
Which type of activity should you recommend?
A. Databricks Python activity
B. Data Lake Analytics U-SQL activity
C. HDInsight Pig activity
D. Databricks Jar activity
Correct Answer: C
The HDInsight Pig activity in a Data Factory pipeline executes Pig queries on your own or on-demand HDInsight
cluster.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/transform-data-using-hadoop-pig

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A company is developing a solution to manage inventory data for a group of automotive repair shops. The solution will
use Azure SQL Data Warehouse as the data store.
Shops will upload data every 10 days.
Data corruption checks must run each time data is uploaded. If corruption is detected, the corrupted data must be
removed.
You need to ensure that upload processes and data corruption checks do not impact reporting and analytics processes
that use the data warehouse.
Proposed solution: Create a user-defined restore point before data is uploaded. Delete the restore point after data
corruption checks complete.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
User-Defined Restore Points This feature enables you to manually trigger snapshots to create restore points of your
data warehouse before and after large modifications. This capability ensures that restore points are logically consistent,
which provides additional data protection in case of any workload interruptions or user errors for quick recovery time.
Note: A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted
data warehouse. Restoring your data warehouse is an essential part of any business continuity and disaster recovery
strategy because it re-creates your data after accidental corruption or deletion.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

 

QUESTION 13
A company stores data in multiple types of cloud-based databases.
You need to design a solution to consolidate data into a single relational database. Ingestion of data will occur at set
times each day.
What should you recommend?
A. SQL Server Migration Assistant
B. SQL Data Sync
C. Azure Data Factory
D. Azure Database Migration Service
E. Data Migration Assistant
Correct Answer: C

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-480: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-480.aspx Candidates for this exam are developers with at least one year of experience developing with HTML in an object-based, event-driven programming model, and programming essential business logic for a variety of application types, hardware, and software platforms using JavaScript.

Candidates should also have a thorough understanding of the following:

  • Managing program flow and events
  • Asynchronous programming
  • Data validation and working with data collections including JQuery
  • Handling errors and exceptions
  • Arrays and collections
  • Working with variables, operators, and expressions
  • Working with prototypes and methods
  • Decision and iteration statements

pass4itsure 70-480 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement and Manipulate Document Structures and Objects (20-25%)
  • Implement Program Flow (25-30%)
  • Access and Secure Data (25-30%)
  • Use CSS3 in Applications (25-30%)

Latest Microsoft Windows Store apps 70-480 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You are developing an application that reads information from a file. The application must:
Execute a block of code if there is an error accessing the file
Execute a second block of code whether or not there is an error accessing the file
You need to ensure that the error handling requirements are met.
Which three statements should you implement in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q1-1

The fileopen statement is put within the try clause.
The catch(e) will catch a fileopen error.
The finally clause will be executed regardless of whether an error occurs in the try clause proceeding it


QUESTION 2
You are developing a website that helps users locate restaurants in their area from a browser. You created a function
named findRestaurants().
The function must:
Get the current latitude and longitude of the user\\’s device
Pass the user\\’s location to findRestaurants()
You must ensure that the application accesses the geolocation information from the device before searching for
restaurants.
Which code segment should you use?pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
References: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/API/Geolocation/getCurrentPosition

 

QUESTION 3
You have the following code:pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q3

You need to ensure that the content appears as shown in the following exhibit:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q3-1

Which display attribute should you use for the red div?
A. grid
B. inline
C. block
D. flex
Correct Answer: B
https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/pr_class_display.asp

 

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have the following markup.pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q4

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select False.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
You are developing a customer web form that includes following HTML.
You need to develop the form so that customers can enter only a valid country code consisting of three English alphabet
characters.
Which code segment should you use?pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q5

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
*
The val() method returns or sets the value attribute of the selected elements.
*
HTML pattern Attribute
The pattern attribute specifies a regular expression that the element\\’s value is checked against.
Example
An HTML form with an input field that can contain only three letters (no numbers or special characters):
Country code:
Reference: HTML pattern Attribute
http://www.w3schools.com/tags/att_input_pattern.asp

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You have a page that uses HTML5 and CSS3. The page contains the following markup.pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q6

What is the background color of each link when the page renders? To answer, drag the appropriate colors to the correct
locations. Each color may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q6-2

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You have a page that uses HTML5 and CSS3. The page contains the following markup.pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q7

What are the font color and the background color of the links when the page renders? To answer, drag the appropriate
colors to the correct locations. Each color may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the
split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q7-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q7-2

Link font color: Yellow Link background color: Fuchsia Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/css_selectors.asp

 

QUESTION 8
You have two arrays of strings, customers and employees, and you want to combine them to create a contacts array.
Which method would be most suitable for this task?
A. Concat
B. Join
C. Push
D. Splice
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.w3schools.com/jsref/jsref_concat_array.asp


QUESTION 9
You are developing a web page that will be accessed from various types of devices.
You have the following requirements:
The appropriate display resolution must be selected dynamically based on the device connecting to the page.
Mobile devices with a maximum width of 480 pixels must be able to use the page.
You need to ensure that the page displays correctly on any device.
How should you build the code? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the dropdown lists in the answer area.)pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q9

Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-480 exam question q9-2

The @media rule is used to define different style rules for different media types/devices.
CSS Syntax
@media not|only mediatypeand (media feature) {
CSS-Code;
}
Media type: Screen
Used for computer screens.
References:
https://www.w3schools.com/cssref/css3_pr_mediaquery.asp
https://www.w3schools.com/css/css3_mediaqueries.asp


QUESTION 10
You are testing the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var height = “300”;
A block of code must execute if the following conditions are true:
The height variable is set to 300
The height variable is of type string
You need to implement the code to run the test.
Which line of code should you use?
A. if (height = = 300)
B. if (height = = “300”)
C. if (height ! “300”)
D. if (height ! = 300)
Correct Answer: B

Use = = to test for equality. Use “300” to test for the string.

 

QUESTION 11
You develop an HTML5 webpage with custom CSS. You have the following HTML markup:

You have the following requirements:
In addition to your CSS, you must use a corporate branded stylesheet named corporate.css.
The corporate.css file contains the style rule that must be used for .newsItem.
You must use the corporate.cssfile to ensure that the webpage changes when the brand changes.
You must add additional style rules to the webpage.
You cannot modify the corporate.css file.
You need to apply the appropriate CSS rules to meet the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Add a CSS class named .newsItemUpdates to the webpage, add only the new styles to this class, and update the
class attribute of the HTML markup:

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Latest effective Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 810-403 dumps - 1

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -2

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -3

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -4

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -5 pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -5-1

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -6 pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -6-1

 

QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -7

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the steps of The Seven Elements framework on the left to the right in sequential order.pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -8 pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -8-1

 

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -9

 

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -10

 

QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers?
(Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilizationCorrect Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of Everything
E. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 22
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 23
Which characteristic of the Cisco Internet of Everything has the most impact on business?
A. connecting people for measuring the usage trends of services
B. delivering the services to the right person at the right time
C. leveraging data into more useful information for decision making
D. having physical devices and objects connected to the internet
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 24
How does a performance measurement help the customer business?
A. Provides feedback on progress towards settled goals.
B. Compliance of certain industries regulations.
C. Help companies monitor its past state.
D. To reward and to discipline employees.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 25
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account? (Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 26
Which framework is used to plan influential communication when seeking customer support for action?
A. business model canvas
B. principled negotiation
C. seven elements
D. stakeholder analysis matrixCorrect Answer: A

 

QUESTION 27
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect benefits of a business outcome? (Choose two.)
A. Lower maintenance contract cost
B. Improved customer satisfaction
C. Lower purchase price of IT assets
D. Faster time to market for new solutions
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 29
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)
A. Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B. Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C. Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D. Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E. Know your audience and what is of interest to them.
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 30
Which two options are financial considerations related to determining business outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. Capital Expenditures, Operating Expenses.
B. Internal Return Rate, Discount Rate.
C. Payback, Chargeback.
D. Capital Expenditures, Working Capital.
E. Chargeback, Showback.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 31
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 32
Which two dimensions are used in the stakeholder power grid? (Choose two.)
A. Influence/Authority
B. Power/Influence
C. Interest/Empathy
D. Interest/Support
E. Consensus/Support
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 33
Which option is a difference in the set of questions that Cisco’s approach to outcomes- based sales users
A. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approach answers what capabilities are needed to achieve the solutions.
B. The product approach answers the question of how progress is displayed and correctly communicated, while the outcomes approach answers what the business objectives services must be included in each solution.
C. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approachanswers what the business objectives anddesired outcomes are.
D. The product approach answers the question of what capabilities are needed to deliver product & services, while the outcomes approach gives ananswer towhat the business rules and capabilities are.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 34
Why are customer stakeholders important to the business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Because understandingthe concerns, interests, power, and influence of stakeholders enables successful stakeholder engagement.
B. Because stakeholders consists of partners who are either part of the organization or are external to the organization.
C. Because stakeholder strategy influence business needs and their involvement in a project to change them.
D. Because relevant and potential stakeholders exist across customers’ and sales professionals’ organizational and functional roles.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 35
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of effective communication with stakeholders? (Choose two.)
A. It allows other strengths to create maximum impact.
B. It lessen the impact of business weakness.
C. It helps mitigate the intrinsic risks with negotiation.
D. It allows effective interaction between stakeholders.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 37
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 38
Which are two purposes of the Cisco enablement resources and Cisco Playbooks when articulating the business value to customers? (Choose two.)
A. To help the sales force develop new marketing strategies.B. To provide additional information on Cisco solutions and services.
C. To enhance the technology experience and influence the customer.
D. To improve the proposal and provide the bill of materials to the customer.
E. To help the sales force with the selling process.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 39
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 40
Which two options are characteristics of Critical Success Factors (CSFs)? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs describe what is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal.
B. CSFs receive special and continual attention from management.
C. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
D. CSFs link business initiatives to adopt solutions and services
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Which troubleshooting tool does an engineer use to determine whether a cat! is being subjected to
traversal bandwidth restrictions?
A. registration log
B. calls log
C. search history log
D. event log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which method does the Conductor use to determine the source of an incoming call to a rendezvous type
conference?
A. conference IP addresses
B. location IP addresses
C. management IP addresses
D. source IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS
database?
A. System > Navigator
B. System > System Overview
C. System > Provisioning
D. System > Manage Dial Plan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists
deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A. single combined server deployment
B. scaled and resilient server deployment
C. scaled and combined server deployment
D. single split server deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In an H.323 call that is not interworked, which three signaling protocols are routed through the
Expressway? (Choose three.)
A. RTP
B. Q.931
C. C. H.254
D. RAS
E. RTCP
F. H.245
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 6
Which two methods can be used in TMSto schedule conferences? (Choose two.)
A. Administrative Tools > Configuration > Conference Settings
B. Booking > New Conference
C. Scheduling > New Conference
D. Reporting > Conferences
E. Monitoring > Conference Control Center
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion
is the Cisco recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations?
A. transforms
B. user policy
C. service preference
D. call policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A. where user information comes from
B. how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D. API integration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about Call Service Connect on a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment is true?
A. Call Service Connect does not require media traversal capabilities or licenses to be installed.
B. Mutual TLS can be used to deploy Call Service Connect, but it is not required.
C. Call Service Aware does not need be deployed to use Call Service Connect.
D. Call Service Connect allows integration between Cisco Spark and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which statement about setting up a call bridge cluster for a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server
deployment is true?
A. Call bridges can connect to databases in full mesh.
B. Call bridges only connect to the master database.
C. Only one call bridge should be configured per domain in a database cluster.
D. Call bridges can read/write to any database in a cluster at anytime.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about subzones are true? (Choose two.)A. Endpointsare assigned to a particular subzone by their alias or IP subnet.
B. Subzones require the use of endpoint authentication
C. Subzones are used for routing calls to peers in other parts of the network.
D. Endpoints require the use of other endpoints for authentication
E. Subzones are used for bandwidth and authentication control of a logical grouping of endpoints within
the registration list of the Expressway
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about endpoint registration authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
B. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
C. The endpoint and Expressway must be configured and synchronized with an NTP server delivering an
identical time stamp.
D. Expressways and endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
E. When a subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint must have the correct authentications
configured.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which SIP message is sent from the called endpoint after the call request is accepted?
A. “Hello”
B. “404 OK”
C. “Connect”
D. “200 OK”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which H.323 functionality exists on the Cisco Meeting Server?
A. H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
B. H.323-to-SIP Interworking
C. H.323 registration and call only
D. H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which description of the role of the service preference in the Cisco Conductor is true?
A. It consists of a group of conference aliases and it determines, in order of priority, which alias to choose
for a conference.
B. It consists of one or more bridge pools and it determines which of these pools, in order of priority, to
use for a conference.
C. It determines the bandwidth that is supplied by the service provider.
D. It determines the conference template to be used for a particular conference based upon alias.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
While scheduling a CMS conference on TMS, an engineer notices that it will not add a WebEx meeting as
a participant. Which option is the possible issue?A. WebEx requires a domain be added to the CMS.
B. WebEx can be added to conferences only using Telepresence Server/Conductor.
C. A SIP trunk is required between the WebEx server and CMS.
D. The WebEx server address must be properly configured in TMS and the CMS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which description of Cisco WebEx Telepresence is true?
A. It is the Cisco term for a fully enabled on-premises collaboration solution.
B. It is a solution that allows on-premises endpoint to register to the WebEx meeting Center.
C. It allows endpoints on-premises to register to Cisco infrastructure in the cloud.
D. It is a Cisco WebEx solution that allows integration between WebEx Meeting Center and on-premises
collaboration solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.)
A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone.
C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone.
D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone.
E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
An engineer wants to use TMS to send registration configurations automatically every Sunday at 3:00 a.m.
to a group of endpoints in a remote office. Where does the engineer navigate to create this setting?
A. Systems> Manage Dial Plan
B. Systems > Configuration Templates
C. Systems > Provisioning
D. Systems > Navigator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to only allow the registration of endpoints with aliases containing cisco.com asthe
domain.
Which option accomplishes this task?
A. Set the restriction policy to “Deny” and include the expression.*@*in the deny list.
B. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression\[email protected] cisco.com in the allow list.
C. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression. *@cisco. com in the allow list.
D. Set the restriction policy to “None” and include the expression \[email protected] cisco.com in the allow list.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two primary protocols does TMS use to communicate with endpoints and infrastructure? (Choose
two.)
A. BFCDB. SIP
C. HTTPS
D. H.323
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
Which option governs the order in which the search rules query the local zone versus neighbored
Expressways?
A. priority number
B. call processing order
C. call policy
D. target zone
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two products are available as multipoint conferencing options in the CMR Premise platform?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Expressway
B. Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Switch
C. Telepresence Server
D. Cisco VCS
E. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 24
Which option is the correct format for a SIP alias?
A. 212-555-1212
B. +12125551212
C. [email protected]
D. John.doe
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature of AMP tracks the movement of a file within the environment and monitors its disposition
over time?
A. Trajectory
B. Fuzzy Fingerprinting
C. Machine Learning
D. ThreatGrid
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

QUESTION 2
Which three are deployment options for E-mail Security? (Choose three.)
A. ESA
B. CES
C. WSAv
D. AMP
E. ESAv
F. WebRoot
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product is a part of the Data Center threat centric solution?
A. Cloudlock
B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
C. NGFWv
D. Meraki MX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions – AM and SE Module 7

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco solution falls under Advanced Threat?
A. Umbrella
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Stealthwatch
D. Threat Grid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

QUESTION 5
What is a key difference between Basic Data Loss Prevention and Advanced Data Loss Prevention?
A. Providing content analysis
B. Instant visibility
C. Dynamic outbreak considerations
D. Ability to filter in real-time
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which feature of E-mail Security protects users from virus outbreaks using the Tabs database to
quarantine suspicious messages?
A. Antivirus defense
B. Outbreak fitters
C. Data Loss Prevention
D. Advanced Malware Protection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

QUESTION 7
Which Policy and Access solution technology combines posture checks and authentication across wired,
wireless, and VPN networks?
A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. ASA 2100 series
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 8
Which feature of AnyConnect provides you the ability to identify data breaches as they happen?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Network Visibility Module
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. Trusted Network Detection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

QUESTION 9
Which are three key features of DNS-layer security? (Choose three.)A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Retrospective Analysis
C. Real-time sandboxing
D. Provides visibility into all Internet activity
E. Acts as first level of protection by providing security at DNS layer
F. Resolves all DNS request through a single recursive DNS service
Correct Answer: DEF
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which three values are provided by NGFW and NGIPS in the “Campus NGFW”? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic routing port to meet all network needs.
B. Differentiated Mobile Access
C. Additional firewalls across all platforms
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domain against threats
E. Identity Services Engine
F. Flexible AAA Options
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which is a Cisco solution features retrospective security?
A. AMP for Endpoint
B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
C. Umbrella
D. Investigate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 12
Employee-sponsored network access, guest access, and activity tracking are contributors to which feature
of ISE?
A. Device profiting
B. Context-aware access
C. Guest access management
D. Platform exchange grid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

QUESTION 13
Which of AMP’s File capabilities deals with the problem of files passing through perimeter defenses that
are later discovered to be a threat?A. Dynamic Analytics
B. Trajectory
C. Malware Security
D. File Retrospection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Tracks the spread of any file within your network and continuously monitors file reputation over time. If a
file reputation changes to malicious or is found by file sandboxing to be malicious, AMP provides
retrospective alerting in the after phase. AMP identifies every instance of the file within your network to
address the problem of malicious files passing through perimeter defenses that are later deemed a threat.

QUESTION 14
What are two main features of enabling Cloudlock in a customers environment? (Choose two)
A. Cloudlock connects via Oauth
B. Cloud App security works on plug-in
C. Easily creates network lags for different users
D. It takes less than five minutes to enable per platform
E. Protects against cloud-native malware
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 15
How does AMP’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It automatically detects polymorphic variants of known malware
B. It increases time to detection with exact data analytics
C. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which are two main features of ASAv and NGFWv? (Choose two.)
A. File trajectory
B. API-based management
C. File reputation
D. Agile provisioning
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security NGFW and NGIPS SE Module 4

QUESTION 17
Which three options are attack vectors protected by Email Security? (Choose three)A. Endpoints
B. Offline Devices
C. Mobile
D. E-mail
E. Voicemail
F. Backups
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

QUESTION 18
What feature of Anti-Spam Defense determines the reputation of an e-mail?
A. IP addresses
B. Threat analysis
C. Context analysis
D. Encryption score
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which feature of Cisco Web Security leverages the Outbreak Intelligence Engine to scan individual pieces
of websites before allowing access?
A. Antivirus Monitoring
B. Dynamic Content Analysis
C. Real-time Sandboxing Analysis
D. Visibility control
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

QUESTION 20
Which three Cisco solutions are covered in the Advanced Threat module? (Choose three.)
A. Cognitive Threat Analytics
B. Intrusion Analytics
C. AMP
D. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
E. NGIPS
F. Cisco ThreatGrid
Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
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B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12

Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called
the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business
by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered
and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did we get there?”
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
2) Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3) Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration
Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration
Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration
control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the
Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Business Value
B. Functionality
C. IT Assets
D. Service Level Requirements
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute
is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development be outsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Solution
B. Customer / Business Needs
C. Service Release
D. Service Requirements
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B. A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
C. A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
D. A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. Facilities Management
C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Exhibit:

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? Please refer to the exhibit.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
“Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in
the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Markets and Customers
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business
by?
A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met
their targets?
A. Availability Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Business Relationship Management
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 37
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Incident Management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Access management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer: C

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2018 New Pass4isture Citrix 1Y0-201 Dumps Version:

The Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:

  • Managing a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Maintaining a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Monitoring a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Troubleshooting a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator used the versioning feature of Provisioning Services to test changes made to a vDisk. After a successful test, the version is promoted. All users are using the latest production version. Over time, additional versions of the vDisk are created. To conserve space, the administrator decides to merge all of the versions to a new base version but the Merge option appears grayed out. Why does the Merge option appear grayed out?
A. Merging within the Provisioning Service console is only possible for an individual vDisk version.
B. The vDisk was NOT created with the latest version of the Provisioning Services target device software.
C. The administrator needs to promote the existing Maintenance Version to Test or Production, after that the Merge option becomes available.
D. The last production version of the vDisk is locked and used by the Target Devices. After all locks are removed, the Merge option becomes available.
Correct Answer: C

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Scenario: Users are unable to log on to the Citrix StoreFront store. When users attempt to log in, they are presented with the following error:
\’Cannot complete your request. You can log on and try again, or contact your help desk for assistance.\’ Which service on the StoreFront server should a Citrix Administrator ensure is running in order to resolve this issue?
A. Citrix Licensing
B. Citrix Configuration
C. Citrix ICA File Signing
D. Citrix Credential Wallet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to manage XenDesktop 7.6 in an organization. One Delivery Group currently deploys 100 pooled-random Desktop OS machines. The administrator increased the number of Desktop OS machines in the machine catalog to 150. After increasing the number of machines, only 100 users are able to log in to the pooled-random Desktop OS machines. Which additional step must the administrator take to ensure 150 users are able to log in simultaneously to 150 Desktop OS machines?
A. Power on the newly added machines.
B. Join the new machines to the domain.
C. Add the new machines to the Delivery Group.
D. Remove the new Desktop OS machines from maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C

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  • Assessing the Current Environment
  • Planning and Risk Assessment
  • Analyzing the Current Environment
  • Designing an Integrated Virtualization Solution
  • Designing and Documenting the Infrastructure
  • Designing and Documenting the Security Infrastructure

QUESTION 1
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
A. By configuring a Windows deployment server
B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21Y0-401 dumps
Why would having one farm with three configured sites, with three Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter, meet the requirements of a regional, single-image management strategy with minimal WAN traffic across datacenters?
A. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability within each region.
B. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, and reduces management overhead.
C. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability between regions.
D. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, guarantees high availability within each region, and reduces management overhead.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect identifies a fault in the Active Directory design for CGE\’s existing XenApp environments. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) from OUs across the Active Directory apply when end users log on to XenApp applications, creating undesirable end-user experiences. The architect determines that CGE needs full control over which GPOs apply in the new environment. Why would creating Citrix policies within a GPO, filtered by IP address, ensure full control over which GPOs are applied?
A. It provides central management and control.
B. It ensures that only policies with the correct filter in Active Directory are applied.
C. It ensures that only settings located in the root OU are applied.
D. It ensures that only Citrix policies are applied on the Virtual Desktop Agents where end users log on.
Correct Answer: C

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What are the tools available for performing 642-737 dumps? Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 (IAUWS 642-737) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Wireless certifications. The CCNP Wireless pass4itsure 642-737 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete CCNP Wireless prior to taking this 642-737 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 642-737
Exam Name: Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
Q&As: 207

Pass4itsure 642-737 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-732 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
  • 642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
  • 642-742 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0
  • 642-747 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services
  • 300-360 Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-365 Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-370 Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-375 Securing Wireless Enterprise Networks

Pass4itsure 642-737 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Wireless LAN
  • WAASSE
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
  • VPN and Security
  • Unified Communications
  • Substation Automation
  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 (642-737 IAUWS) version is a 90 minutes test with 50-60 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to the wireless network from security threats via appropriate security policies and best practices, to properly implement security standards, and to properly configure wireless security components. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the IAUWS Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security course in pass4itsure.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 642-737 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-30)

QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
642-737 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
642-737 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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