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Exam Code: 70-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 220

Related Exams

70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange
70-342 Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
70-410 Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012
70-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-285 Designing a Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 Organization
70-293 Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure
70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

Related Certifications

Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Microsoft Specialist
Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
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Question No: 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 2)
You discover that one of the Client Access servers in the New York office does not trust the standalone CA. You need to ensure that all of the users who have Windows Phone devices can connect successfully to their mailbox. In which node should you install the root CA certificate? To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
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Question No: 19 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend changes to the network to ensure that you can deploy the planned Exchange Server 2013 infrastructure. What should you recommend?
A. Transfer of the FSMO roles to a domain controller in the Chicago office.
B. Change the forest functional level.
C. Change the domain functional level.
D. Change the operating system on one of the domain controllers in the Chicago office
Answer: D
Explanation:
DIFFICULT QUESTION
FSMO ( Flexible Single Master Operations )
In a forest, there are five FSMO roles that are assigned to one or more domain controllers.
The five FSMO roles are:
Schema Master:
The schema master domain controller controls all updates and modifications to the schema. Once the Schema update is complete, it is replicated from the schema master to all other DCs in the directory. To update the schema of a forest, you must have access to the schema master. There can be only one schema master in the whole forest.
Domain naming master:
The domain naming master domain controller controls the addition or removal of domains in the forest. This DC is the only one that can add or remove a domain from the directory. It can also add or remove cross-references to domains in external directories. There can be only one domain naming master in the whole forest.
Infrastructure Master:
When an object in one domain is referenced by another object in another domain, it represents the reference by the GUID, the SID (for references to security principals), and the DN of the object being referenced. The infrastructure FSMO role holder is the DC responsible for updating an object’s SID and distinguished name in a cross-domain object reference. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the infrastructure master in each domain.
Note: The Infrastructure Master (IM) role should be held by a domain controller that is not a Global Catalog server (GC). If the Infrastructure Master runs on a Global Catalog server it will stop updating object information because it does not contain any references to objects that it does not hold. This is because a Global Catalog server holds a partial replica of
every object in the forest. As a result, cross-domain object references in that domain will not be updated and a warning to that effect will be logged on that DC’s event log. If all the domain controllers in a domain also host the global catalog, all the domain controllers have the current data, and it is not important which domain controller holds the infrastructure master role.
Relative ID (RID) Master:
The RID master is responsible for processing RID pool requests from all domain controllers in a particular domain. When a DC creates a security principal object such as a user or group, it attaches a unique Security ID (SID) to the object. This SID consists of a domain SID (the same for all SIDs created in a domain), and a relative ID (RID) that is unique for each security principal SID created in a domain. Each DC in a domain is allocated a pool of RIDs that it is allowed to assign to the security principals it creates. When a DC’s allocated RID pool falls below a threshold, that DC issues a request for additional RIDs to the domain’s RID master. The domain RID master responds to the request by retrieving RIDs from the domain’s unallocated RID pool and assigns them to the pool of the requesting DC. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the RID master in the domain.
PDC Emulator:
The PDC emulator is necessary to synchronize time in an enterprise.
The PDC emulator of a domain is authoritative for the domain. The PDC emulator at the root of the forest becomes authoritative for the enterprise and should be configured to gather the time from an external source.
All PDC FSMO role holders follow the hierarchy of domains in the selection of their inbound time partner.
NOTA
All of the FSMO roles are located on a domain controller in the Baltimore Office. All of the domain controllers are configured as a global catalog server
No need to transfer all of these roles to the Chicago domain controller as the question suggests.
NOT B
Apparently no need to change the forest functional level Forest functional levels enable features across all the domains in your forest. The following table lists the forest functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers.
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NOT C
Apparently no need to change the domain functional level
For all domain controllers to function accordingly in the domain the domain functional level would have to be set to Windows Server 2003
All domain controllers in the Chicago office run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 1. (SP1)
All domain controllers in the Los Angeles office run Windows Server 2008 R2.
All domain controllers in the Baltimore office run Windows Server 2012
Domain functional levels
Domain functionality enables features that affect the entire domain and that domain only. The following table lists the domain functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers:
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D
A mixture of exchange 2007,2010 and 2013 environment
Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server 2003/2008/2012 domain
functional level Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server
2003/2008/2012 forest functional level However to operate appropriately the min spec for Exchange 2013 is for an AD environment of Server 2003 SP2
Currently, all of the Chicago domain controllers are 2003 SP1
Need to upgrade a Chicago domain controller which will house Exchange 2013
Exchange 2013 System Requirements: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No: 20 HOTSPOT – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which names must be used as the URLs of each virtual directory on the planned Exchange Server 2013 servers. Which names should you identify? To answer, configure the appropriate name for each server in the answer area.
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Question No: 21 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to deliver email messages to the Internet if CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 fail to connect to the Internet. The solution must ensure that all queued email is sent. Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the retry-queue ch-to-internet command.
B. Create a new Send connector on a server in the Baltimore office.
C. Modify the cost of the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
D. Run the set-send connector -identity ch-to-internet -frontend-proxy enabled Strue command.
E. Disable the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
The Baltimore and Chicago offices have independent Internet connections. Internet connectivity for the Los Angeles office is provided through Chicago. Currently no mail servers in Chicago. Only in Baltimore and Los Angeles. Once the transition to Exchange Server 2013 in the Chicago office is complete, all mail flow to and from the Internet will be managed centrally through that office by using a Send connector that has the following configurations:
When you deploy Exchange 2013, outbound mail flow cannot occur until you configure a Send connector to route outbound mail to the Internet.
NOTA
Will not resolve the issue. Use the Retry-Queue cmdlet to force a connection attempt for a queue on a Mailbox server
or an Edge Transport server.
EXAMPLE 1
This example forces a connection attempt for all queues that meet the following criteria:
The queues are holding messages for the domain contoso.com.
The queues have a status of Retry.
The queues are located on the server on which the command is executed.
Retry-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com” -and Status -eq “Retry”}
NOT C
Modifying the cost will not fix the issue of CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 failing to connect to the Internet.
Cost is used to set the priority of this connector, used when two or more connectors are configured for the same address space. The lower the cost higher the priority.
NOT D
Modifying the send connector will not fix the internet connection from Chicago mail server to the internet.
Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
EXAMPLE 1
This example makes the following configuration changes to the Send connector named
Contoso.com Send Connector:
Sets the maximum message size limit to 10 MB.
Changes the connection inactivity time-out to 15 minutes.
Set-SendConnector “Contoso.com Send Connector” -MaxMessageSize 10MB – ConnectionInactivityTimeOut 00:15:00
The FrontendProxyEnabled parameter routes outbound messages through the CAS server, where destination specific routing, such as DNS or IP address, is set when the parameter is set to $true.
E
Need to disable the send connector from Chicago to the internet so that when a new send connector on the Baltimore server is created, email can be sent to the internet. Send Connectors: Exchange 2013 Help

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Question No: 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the datetimeoffset data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No: 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
70-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No: 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to lookup telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No: 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, employee number)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, employee number)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, employee number)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, employee number)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No: 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
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You need to create an audit record only when either the retail price or wholesale price column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(retail price, wholesale price)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(retail price, wholesale price)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(retail price) OR UPDATE(wholesale price)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No: 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
the table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
70-461 vce Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
The software contained in a software package can be installed by ________ or by ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. using the following syntax on the command line: installer -pkg <package_name> -target <target_volume>
B. opening the package contents and dragging the contents to / (root of the volume)
C. expanding the package and dragging the contents to the applications folder
D. double-clicking on the package to open it in the Installer application
E. expanding the package and running the installer contained inside

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
When using Disk Utility to create a disk image from a model system volume, you need free space on your destination volume that is equal to ________.
A. the data size on the source volume
B. at least two times the data size on the source volume
C. at least three times the data size on the source volume
D. at least four times the data size on the source volume

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
In Mac OS X v10.4, disk images provide ________.
A. extra disk space for running BSD scripts
B. a way to bring systems quickly back to a clean state
C. a means of tracking changes made to startup volumes
D. a means of compressing applications while they are being run
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A package receipt ________.
A. stores license information
B. contains information about an installed package
C. stores an archive of the data files received from a package
D. contains a list of packages installed within a set time parameter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When installing a custom installation package, the resource script reflight runs after VolumeCheck and InstallationCheck, and ________.
A. allows the user to select the destination volume
B. verifies that the installation or upgrade can take place
C. determines whether the installation is new or an upgrade
D. runs before all other scripts for new installations and upgrades

Correct Answer: D  cisco 210-260 dumps QUESTION 16
In Mac OS X v10.4, what information about an installed package do the .bom files contain?
A. list of files installed by package, proper permissions for each file, file sizes, and file checksums
B. file source locations, file sizes, target volume(s), and list of frameworks used during installation
C. list of files installed by package, package creation and modification dates, user account authenticated for installation
D. list of files installed by the package, list of resource forks installed by the package, list of source files in the package, list of scripts run by package

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
If you know the Open Firmware password for an Apple Macintosh computer, you can reset it by ________.
A. clearing the parameter RAM (Command+Option+p+r at startup)
B. changing the Master Password in the Security pane of System Preferences
C. starting up the computer from the installation disc and using the Reset Password utility in the Installer
D. starting up the computer into Open Firmware (Command+Option+o+f at startup) and using the reset commands

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
You have:
-a FireWire drive with Mac OS X installed that contains a copy of a model disk image -a target computer that is currently started from its hard drive
To deploy the model image to the target computer, plug the FireWire drive into the computer and ________.
A. execute the asr command in Terminal, specifying the model image as the source, and the local hard drive as the target.
B. restart from any external volume. Drag the model image from the FireWire drive to the local hard drive. When prompted, choose Restore.
C. restart from the FireWire drive. Open Terminal and run the asr command, specifying the model image as the source, and the local hard drive as the target.
D. shut down, then startup with the T key pressed. Once started, open Disk Utility and restore the model image as the source and the local hard drive as the target.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You have an application that must be installed to / (the root of the volume).
However, you wish to install the application on a computer that is in Target Disk Mode, and the target volume is in /Volumes. Identify a possible solution in Mac OS X v10.4.
A. Copy the volume from /Volumes to /.
B. Rename the target volume so that it matches the name of the root (/) volume.
C. Identify the files that were installed during testing and create a custom installation package that installs the files in the correct locations.
D. Create a disk image of the target volume, install the application, and restore the disk image to the
target volume without erasing the existing contents. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
How can you prevent a user from starting a computer from a DVD, CD-ROM, or FireWire drive?
A. Explicitly select a startup disk in System Preferences.
B. Enable the open firmware password on the computer.
C. Set up Classic to use a System Folder on a disk image.
D. Format your designated startup disk without Mac OS 9 drivers.

Correct Answer: B

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Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You need to modify the SAM account name of Group1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-object
F. Set AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User

Answer: G

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?

A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups

Answer: A  210-065 exam

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a single virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can manage the virtual machine settings of VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?

A. Server Operators
B. Administrators
C. Power Users
D. Hyper-V Administrators

Answer: D

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Your company has a remote office that contains 600 client computers on a single subnet. You need to select a subnet mask for the network that will support all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the number of unused addresses. Which subnet mask should you select?

A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128

Answer: A

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server 1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer : D

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules. Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C. You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?

A. Modify the action of the existing rules.
B. Create a new rule.
C. Add an exception to the existing rules.
D. Delete an existing rule.

Answer: B

Explanation:

AppLocker is a feature that advances the functionality of the Software Restriction Policies feature. AppLocker contains new capabilities and extensions that reduce administrative overhead and help administrators control how users can access and use files, such as executable files, scripts, Windows Installer files, and DLLs. By using AppLocker, you can:

Define rules based on file attributes that persist across application updates, such as the publisher’s name (derived from the digital signature), product name, file name, and file version. You can also create rules based on the file path and hash.

Assign a rule to a security group or an individual user. Create exceptions to rules. For example, you can create a rule that allows all users to run all Windows binaries except the Registry Editor (Regedit.exe). Use audit-only mode to deploy the policy and understand its impact before enforcing it. . Create rules on a staging server, test them, export them to your production environment, and then import them into a Group Policy Object. Simplify creating and managing AppLocker rules by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets for AppLocker. AppLocker default rules AppLocker allows you to generate default rules for each of the rule types.

Executable default rule types:
Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all applications. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Windows folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Program Files folder. Windows Installer default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run digitally signed Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run all Windows Installer files located in the Windows\Installer folder. Script
default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all scripts. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Program Files folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Windows folder. DLL default rule types:( this on can affect system performance ) Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all DLLs. Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Program Files folder.

Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Windows folder. You can apply AppLocker rules to individual users or to a group of users. If you apply a rule to a group of users, all users in that group are affected by that rule. If you need to allow a subset of a user group to use an application, you can create a special rule for that subset. For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run the Windows operating system, but it does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as Help Desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.

To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Help Desk user group: “Allow Help Desk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Help Desk user group to run

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[PDF & VCE] Microsoft 70-331 Exam For Free Download

Exam Code: 70-331 exam
Published: August 26, 2016
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals, Developers
Technology: SQL Server
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA

70-331 exam

Many of you are preparing for the Microsoft 70-331 certification exam. Well, gird your loins, my friends. Microsoft presents a list of skills that need to be mastered in order to be considered prepared for that exam. As a student, you want to consider these a checklist that should be examined with a critical, self-examining eye. The Exam is an MCSE level exam, which means that the Server Administration prerequisites of an MCSA are assumed for this class. Even if you are not taking the exam, these are the skills that keep you from having to install SharePoint multiple times or hire an outside consultant to fix your mistakes!

Exam takers can expect multiple questions based upon a detailed case study. In these questions, you will need to select the best answer using your understanding of the scenario and its objectives. Sometimes you might be given examples of 352-001 pdf and to accomplish a given task correctly you’ll need to put them in the correct order.  Or hot areas where you have to click the appropriate area in Central Admin to accomplish something. Case studies are separate sections of the test that don’t allow for the ability to return to previous case studies.

For each of the major sections of this class, you will find a checklist version of the preparation skills you need to master along with test tips, suggested web resource links on core technologies and details that are often known only to the subject matter experts. (We hope all links will still be available at the URLs given). In addition, bolster your skills – keep learning. Use your course sessions, your labs, and practice tests. Build your own lab environment to “make it and break it” on your own. You can learn much by using the free SharePoint Foundation server and using a trial version of Microsoft 70-331 dumps or downloading a trial VHD that you could install on Windows 8, Server 2012, or the free Hyper-V server installation. Read Microsoft’s documentation as well as the pain points described in blog articles on the same subject by professionals like yourself.

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Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft 70-331 pdf.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft 70-331 vce or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact https://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html

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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files 070-489 dumps.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the research papers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the research papers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You
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Select and Place:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
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How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION NO: 11
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a cluster
running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is a flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
70-489 dumps Answer: D,F
Note: Namenode stores modifications to the filesystem as a log appended to a
native filesystem file (edits). When a Namenode starts up, it reads HDFS state from an image file
(image) and then applies edits from the edits log file. It then writes a new HDFS state to (fsimage) and
starts normal operation with an empty edits file. Since namenode merges fsimage and edits files
only during start-up, edits file could get very large over time on a large cluster. Another side effect
of the larger edits file is that the next restart of Namenade takes longer.
The secondary name node merges fsimage and edits log periodically and keeps edits log size within a limit. It is usually run on a different machine than the primary Namenode since its memory
requirements are on the same order as the primary name mode. The secondary name node is
started by bin/start-of.sh on the nodes specified in the conf/masters file.

QUESTION NO: 12
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many task attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits a job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heartbeats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the
DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which writes the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
070-489 pdf Answer: A
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not received a
heartbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system begins replicating the blocks that were
stored on the dead data node. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
data node to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between data nodes and the
data never passes through the name node.
Note: If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be dead and
any data it had to be gone as well. Based on the block reports it had been receiving from the dead
node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along with the node and can make the
decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes. It will also consult the Rack Awareness
data in order to maintain the two copies in one rack, one copy in another rack replica rule when
deciding which Data Node should receive a new copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)

A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode sends a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not received a
heartbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
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data node to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between data nodes and the
data never passes through the name node. Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How NameNode Handles data node failures?

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Exam Code: 70-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 219

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8.HOTSPOT
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Lync Online.
The environment includes the domains shown in the following image and is configured as shown in the
exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)

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Lync is not deployed in a hybrid configuration. An employee requires specific Lync communication
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each
correct selection is worth one point
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9.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Management has requested a report of all
Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync-enabled employees and their devices. You need to generate a report that
contains employee display names and device types.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate
option from each list in the answer area.

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A company has an on-premises deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 with Service Pack 3.The
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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees share documents with internal and
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an external user named Customer1. You need to remove access to Document1 from Customer1.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. A user wants to share a link to a presentation with
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You have the following requirements:
– Make a read-only version of the presentation available to anonymous users.
– Notify the salesperson by email when the presentation is available.
You need to configure the sharing settings.
How should you configure the sharing settings? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog
box in the answer area.

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13. A customer runs two geographically dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers’ SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the 070-347 pdf 
ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC
14. Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B
15. When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new 70-347 vce application, which three metrics are necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer: ABE

16. Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC
17. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)

A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in the write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
070-347 exam Answer: CDE

18. A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization’s email users. Accordingly, they
want to set up Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D
19. A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slowdowns involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
70-347 dumps Answer: AD
20. A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio

E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD
21. When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
70-347 pdf Answer: BCE
22. To eliminate disk-related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD
23. Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager

C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
70-347 vce Answer: AB
24. In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB
25. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
070-347 exam Answer: AB
26. Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups

D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
Which default DSCP marking value do telepresence endpoints use for video?
A. CS4
B. CS2
C. AF41
D. EF
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/uc_system/design/guides/videodg/vidguide/qos.html

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication. On one cluster, she would like to prevent the local cluster from
routing calls to a specific pattern learned via ILS. What should be configured within the local CUCM cluster to
accomplish this?
A. Create a block transformation pattern
B. Create a block route pattern
C. Create a block translation pattern D. Create a block learned pattern
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A Cisco 3825 needs to be added in Cisco Unified Communications Manager as an H.323 gateway. What should the
gateway type be?
A. H.323 gateway
B. Cisco 3825
C. Cisco 3800 series router. The specific model will be selected after the Cisco 3800 is selected.
D. The gateway can be added either as an H.323 gateway or Cisco 3800 series router.
E. The gateway can be added either as an H.323 gateway or Cisco 3825 series router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In which two locations can you look to determine which subscriber the phone registers to if it loses registration with the
current Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber? (Choose two.)
A. phone webpage
B. on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration page, System > Device Pool > Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Group
C. on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration page, Server > Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration Page Device > Phone > Phone Configuration page
E. on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration page, System > Enterprise Parameters
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which component is needed to set up SAF CCD?
A. SAF-enabled H.323 intercluster (gatekeeper controlled) trunk
B. SAF forwarders on Cisco routers
C. Cisco Unified Communications cluster
D. SAF-enabled H.225 trunk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Select two commands. One of which can be used to verify Cisco IP phone sip registration, and one of which can be
used to verify Cisco IP phone sccp registration on Cisco Unified Communications Manger Express? (Choose two.)
A. show telephony-service ephone-dn
B. show voice register session-server
C. show ephone registered
D. show ccm-manager hosts
E. show sip-ua status registrar
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/troubleshooting/guide/ts_phreg.html (see the steps)

QUESTION 7
Which two tests can you perform to verify redundancy in the customer environment? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that Cisco Unified IP phones running SCCP go into SRST mode when the WAN connection is disconnected.
B. Verify that media resources fail over to a secondary subscriber server when the primary fails.
C. Verify that the H.323 redundant connection is active in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Verify that HSRP is active on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber servers.
E. Verify that SCCP fallback is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP
Phones.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco
Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
DNS Server:

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The intercluster URI call routing no longer allows calls between sites. What is the reason why this would happen?
A. Wrong SIP domain configured.
B. User is not associated with the device.
C. IP or DNS name resolution issue.
D. No SIP route patterns for cisco.lab exist.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An engineer wants to change a dialed URI into another format in Cisco VCS. Which location does the engineer navigate
to accomplish this task?
A. Transform
B. Translation pattern
C. Translation rule
D. Translation profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which CAC configuration on a gatekeeper restricts to 10 G.711 audio calls?
A. Use the command bandwidth 10.
B. Use the command bandwidth 1280.
C. Use the command bandwidth 160.
D. Use the command bandwidth session 10.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which action is performed by the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway with SRST configured, when it loses
connectivity with the primary and backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers?
A. The gateway continues to make an attempt to connect to the backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager
server.
B. The gateway falls back to the H.323 protocol for further call processing.
C. The gateway continues with the MGCP call processing without any interruption.
D. The gateway waits for the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to come alive.
E. All MGCP call processing is interrupted until the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers are online.
F. The MGCP calls are queued up until the Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers are online.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints
registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise
for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk
between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the
administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration
> Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two roaming sensitive settings, in the Device Pool Configuration window, override the device-level settings when
the device roams within or outside of a device mobility group? (Choose two.)
A. device pool
B. MRGL
C. codec
D. network locale
E. extension
Correct Answer: BD

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500-052 Exam Questions & Answers

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Others Cisco Certification
Exam Code: 500-052
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Updated: Nov 25, 2019
Q&As: 90
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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the design, implementation, and operation of Cisco Contact Center Express version 11.0 deployments.

  • 32% Design a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System Deployment
  • 40% Implement a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System
  • 28% Operate a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express System

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Cisco 500-052 UCCXD latest practice test questions

QUESTION 1
Which option can perform Call Progress Analysis in outbound IVR?
A. gateway
B. Unified CM transcoder
C. Automatic Speech Recognition server
D. agent (voice)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the
Java tab? (Choose three.)
A. to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
B. to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
C. to pass variables between two different workflows
D. to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
E. to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F. to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 5
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. the system page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
B. Cisco Desktop Administration
C. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Service ability
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
In a high availability over WAN deployment, which option cannot be across the WAN from the active Cisco Unified
Contact Center Express site?
A. ASR or TTS servers
B. wallboard server
C. SMTP server
D. enterprise database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco Unified CCX steps invoke another Unified CCX application script? (Choose two.)
A. CallSubflow step
B. On Exception Goto step
C. Trigger Application step
D. Connect step
E. Cache Document
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which tool is used to size Cisco Unified CCX?
A. Analysis Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
C. Expert Advisor
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three operations can be performed within the Cisco Finesse IP Phone Age (IPPA)? (Choose three.)
A. A supervisor can use Finesse IPPA to act as an agent and accept calls.
B. An agent can sign in to Finesse IPPA and initiate call recording.
C. A supervisor can sign in to Finesse IPPA and initiate call recording.
D. An agent using Finesse IPPA can enter Not Ready, Sign-out, and Wrap-up reasons.
E. Agents can log in to Finesse IPPA with Cisco Unified CCX deployed using a Standard license.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 11
What is the minimum package that is required to develop a custom Cisco Unified Intelligence Center report for a Cisco
Unified CCX deployment?
A. Cisco Unified CCX Premium
B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced
C. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Premium
D. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Standard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Serviceability
B. System page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
C. Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which information is readable to Cisco Collaboration Software in the cloud?
A. PII
B. plain text name value pair
C. PII and plain text name value pair
D. No information is readable to Cisco collaboration Software.
Correct Answer: D

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