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Top Cisco Certification Exams
- 200-301: Cisco Certified Network Associate
- 350-201: Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
- 350-401: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
- 300-410: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
- 300-415: Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
- 300-420: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
- 350-801: Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)
- 300-810: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)
- 300-815: Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLACCM)
- 300-825: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing (CLCNF)
- 350-601: Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR)
- 300-610: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)
- 300-615: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)
- 300-620: Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI)
- 350-701: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)
- 300-710: Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF)
- 300-715: Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (SISE)
- 300-720: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
- 300-725: Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)
- 350-501: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)
- 300-510: Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI)
- 350-901: Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)
- 300-910: Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)
- 200-901: Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)
- 500-490: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks
- 700-680: Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization (CSaaS)
- 500-220: Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist
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QUESTION 1: What is a key driver that is creating the need for customer success?
A. financial resources
B. subscription economy
C. advanced specializations
D. portfolio management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2: What is a type of expansion opportunity?
A. additional user groups
B. positive customer sentiment
C. strong stakeholder communication
D. using latest release versions
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3: Customer A has 120.000 employees and a meeting booking system that is 20 years old. It provides a personalized service that arranges all aspects of video conference meeting. This service includes 21 staff people globally.
Customer A has invested in a video conferencing solution. Their desired outcome is to create a cost-savings, self-serve approach to achieve business innovation through face-to-face communications. Which adoption barrier will the customer encounter?
A. technical barrier
B. cultural barrier
C. product barrier
D. cost barrier
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4: Which list of components of a Customer Success Quarterly Success Review is common?
A. results from prior quarter, product roadmap, proposed marketing new products, and confirm goals for the next quarter
B. results from prior quarter, agreed actions completed, benchmarking with the market, and confirm goals for next quarter
C. results from prior quarter, services delivered, issues and open services cases, and confirm goals for next quarter
D. results from prior quarter, cover roadmap and promote new products, and confirm goals for next quarter
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5: What is a barrier to adopting software tools?
A. limited resources
B. recurring cost
C. commercial decision
D. organization size
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6: Which two activities support Customer Success planning? (Choose two.)
A. service ticket tracking
B. adoption barrier identification
C. quality control
D. service delivery program management
E. KPI tracking
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7: Which action should be taken to identify and remove barriers when a customer moves from the Implement to the Use stage in the lifecycle?
A. Provide break-fix support for technical problems experienced or observed by the customer.
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1.Which service must be enabled when LDAP on cisco UCM is used?
A. Cisco AXL Web Service
B. Cisco CallManager SNMP Service
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco Bulk provisioning Service
Correct Answer: C
2. A company wants to provide remote users with access to its on-premises Cisco collaboration features. Which components are required to enable Cisco Mobile and Remote Access for the users?
A. Cisco Unified Border Element, Cisco IM and Presence Server, and Cisco Video Communication Server
B. Cisco Unified Border Element, Cisco UCM, and Cisco Video Communication Server
C. Cisco Expressway-E, Cisco Expressway-C, and Cisco UCM
D. Cisco Expressway-E, Cisco IM and Presence Server, and Cisco Video Communication Server\
Correct Answer: C
3. Which configuration step is necessary for a Cisco SIP phone to synchronize its time with a specific source?
A. Add a Phone NTP Reference to the Date/Time Group.
B. Assign the device to the correct region.
C. Change the Time Format from 24-hour to 12-hour.
D. Change the Time Zone from “America/Los_Angeles” to “Etc/GMT+8”.
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1. How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B
2. Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?
A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443
Correct Answer: A
3. What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?
A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company network.
B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them.
C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later.
D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified CommunicationsManager behind a firewall.
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1. An architect is working on a design to connect a company\\’s main site to several small to medium- sized remote
branches. The solution must include redundant WAN links, but the customer has a limited budget and wants the ability
to increase the link speed easily in the future. QoS will not on the branch routers so there is no need for consistent endto-end QoS. Which solution does the architect propose?
A. dual-homed WAN MPLS with single edge router
B. dual-homed Internet with a single edge router running a site-to-site VPN topology
C. dual-homed WAN MPLS and Internet links via dual edge routers
D. dual-homed Internet with dual edge routers running a hub-and-spoke VPN topology
Correct Answer: B
2. Which feature must be incorporated into the campus LAN design to enable Wake on LAN?
A. dynamic ARP Inspection Snooping on layer 2 devices
B. directed broadcasts on layer 3 devices
C. proxy ARP on layer 3 devices
D. DHCP Snooping on layer 2 devices
Correct Answer: B
3. When a first hop redundancy solution is designed, which protocol ensures that load balancing occurs over multiple routers using a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses?
A. GLBP
B. IRDP
C. VRRP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A
4. Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS number? (Choose two.)
A. advertise-best-external
B. bestpath as-path ignore
C. client-to-client reflection
D. as-override
E. allow-as-in
Correct Answer: DE
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Q1
In the test-driven development model, what is changed after a test fails?
A. test
B. schedule
C. project requirements
D. code
Q2
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP _______________ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network _______________ list in _______________ format.
A.
Q3
Which advantage does the agile process offer compared to waterfall software development?
A. to add or update features with incremental delivery
B. to view the full scope of end-to-end work
C. to have each phase end before the next begins
D. to fix any issues at the end of the development cycle
Q4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the corresponding software development methodologies on the right?
Select and Place:
Q5
What is a functionality of the Waterfall method as compared to the Agile method for software development?
A. Waterfall increases agility to implement faster while Agile promotes reliability.
B. A phase begins after the previous phase has ended in Waterfall while Agile phases run in parallel.
C. Customers get feedback during the process in Waterfall while they can see the result at the end in Agile.
D. Requirements can be updated in Waterfall while in Agile it should be gathered in the beginning.
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1. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A. 20
B. 90
C. 110
D. 115
Correct Answer: B
The Administrative Distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so the EIGRP route will be chosen to install into the routing table.
2. Which two statements describe the characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is :1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Correct Answer: AD
Below is the list of common kinds of IPv6 addresses:
3. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF
A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6 addresses are global addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface, unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that is a part of that anycast group.
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1. What is one charlatanistic differentiating the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?
A. comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
B. instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. centralized single pane of glass for access and management
Correct Answer: D
2. Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?
A. See, Try, Buy
B. Compete, Pilot, Support
C. POC, QandA, Rollout
D. Discover, Design, Demo
Correct Answer: A
3. Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?
A. RF optimization (Auto RF)
B. WLAN controller
C. Site survey planning
D. DHCP addresssing
Correct Answer: A
4. What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard?
A. Web browser
B. Terminal (Mac) or Command Prompt (Windows)
C. Cisco lOS command line interface (CLl)
D. Secure Shell (SSH)
Correct Answer: A
5. What is a key feature of the Meraki MV Dashboard?
A. drag and drop camera feeds to create video walls with up to 16 cameras per layout
B. bulk configuration changes and software updates
C. device security and location analytics in a single pane of glass
D. single pane of glass showing root cause analysis for all connected wireless clients
Correct Answer: A
6. Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for a small branch and campus deployments up to 200 APs?
A. Catalyst 9800-SW
B. Catalyst 9800-CL
C. Catalyst 9800-40
D. Catalyst 9800-80
Correct Answer: A
7. What is Cisco Switch Selector?
A. a tool that can help customers compare options and identify the right switch for their needs
B. a dashboard view of all an enterprise\’s
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500-220 Q&As
Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist
Q# 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the settings from the left into the boxes on the right to indicate if the setting will be cloned or not cloned using the Cisco Meraki MS switch cloning feature.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q# 2
Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses Co-Termination licensing model.
What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?
A. All APs immediately stop functioning.
B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.
C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.
D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.
Correct Answer: B
Q# 3
In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)
A. Renew the Dashboard license.
B. License a network.
C. License more devices.
D. Call Meraki support.
E. Wait for the devicesto auto-renew.
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Q-1
Refer to the exhibit. The cisco_devnet Docker swarm service runs across five replicas. The development team tags and imports a new image named devnet/test:1.1 and requests that the image be upgraded on each container.
There must be no service outages during the upgrade process. Which two design approaches must be used? (Choose two.)
A. Enable parallel upgrades by using the docker service update command.
B. Ensure that the service is hosted behind a VIP with no session persistence.
C. Ensure that the service replicas are set to a minimum of 5.
D. Update the restart policy of the containers to restart upon failure.
E. Implement rolling upgrades by using the docker service update command.
Correct Answer: BE
Q-2
AppGigabitEthernet interface is used as data port for a container on a Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series Switch. Which two interface configuration options should be used? (Choose two.)
A. trunk interface
B. bridged virtual interface
C. SPAN port
D. management interface
E. subinterface
Correct Answer: AC
Q-3
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to provision a new UCS server. Not all options are used.
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1. Which scenario does not support Cisco ISE guest services?
A. wired NAD with local WebAuth
B. wireless LAN controller with central WebAuth
C. wireless LAN controller with local WebAuth
D. wired NAD with central WebAuth
Correct Answer: B
2. An engineer is implementing network access control using Cisco ISE and needs to separate the traffic based on the network device ID and use the IOS device sensor capability. Which probe must be used to accomplish this task?
A. HTTP probe
B. NetFlow probe
C. network scan probe
D. RADIUS probe
Correct Answer: A
3. An engineer is configuring Cisco ISE and needs to dynamically identify the network endpoints and ensure that endpoint access is protected. Which service should be used to accomplish this task?
A. Guest access
B. Profiling
C. Posture
D. Client provisioning
Correct Answer: B
4. An administrator is migrating device administration access to Cisco ISE from the legacy TACACS+ solution that used only privilege 1 and 15 access levels. The organization requires more granular controls of the privileges and wants to customize access levels 2-5 to correspond with different roles and access needs. Besides defining a new shell profile in Cisco ISE. what must be done to accomplish this configuration?
A. Enable the privilege levels in Cisco ISE
B. Enable the privilege levels in the IOS devices.
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