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Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure (Windows Server 70-980) is a qualifying exam for the Microsoft MCP, MCSE certifications. The Windows Server pass4itsure 70-980 dumps exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in looking to maintain their MCSE: Server Infrastructure certification. It is based on the exam objectives from Exam 413 and Exam 414 that use pass4itsure team Recertification for Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCP, MCSE prior to taking this course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Pass4itsure.com » Microsoft » MCSE » 70-980
Exam Code: 70-980
Exam Name: Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure
Updated: Apr 14, 2018
Q&As: 450

Pass4itsure 70-980 Dumps Related Exams

  • 070-086 Implementing and Supporting Systems Management Server 2.0
  • 070-089 Planning, Deploying, and Managing Microsoft Systems Management Server 2003
  • 070-121 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions for Small and Medium Organizations
  • 070-122 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
  • 070-123 Planning, Implementing and Maintaining a Software Asset Management (SAM) Program
  • 070-210 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional
  • 070-214 Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network
  • 070-215 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Server

Pass4itsure 70-980 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Microsoft SQL Server 2008
  • Microsoft Specialist
  • Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
  • Microsoft Silverlight 4
  • MCSD
  • MCSA2003
  • MCSA
  • MCPD

The Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure (70-980 Windows Server) version is a test with 450 questions that validate individuals looking to maintain their MCSE: Server Infrastructure certification. It is based on the exam objectives from Exam 413 and Exam 414.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-980 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(15-28)

QUESTION 15
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager. The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Monitor multistep requests to the web site. Use a central console for monitoring. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
70-980 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement Microsoft System Center 20l2. You need to identity which soluti n automates the membership of security groups for contoso.com. The solution must use workflows that provide administrators with the ability to approve the addition of members to the security groups. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you identify?
A. Configuration Manager and Orchestrator
B. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. Orchestrator and Service Manager
D. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your network contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The servers have the HyperV server role installed. You plan to deploy a management solution.You need to recommend which Microsoft System Center 20l2 roles must be deployed to meet the following requirements: An administrator must be notified when an incident occurs, such as a serious error in the event log, on a HyperV host, or on a virtual machine. An administrator must be able to assign an incident to a specific administrator for resolution. An incident that remains unresolved for more than 10 hours must be escalated automatically to another administrator. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain the details of incidents and escalations. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
B. Operations Manager and Service Manager
C. Configuration Manager and Service Manager
D. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several hundred computers that run Windows 20l2.You plan to deploy two Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) servers. The WSUS servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to implement the WSUS infrastructure to meet the following requirements: All updates must be approved from a server in the main office. All client computers must connect to a WSUS server in their local office. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Serverl.
B. On Server2, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
C. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
D. On Server2, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
E. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Server2.
F. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 20l2 R2.The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automati ally by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CAl. You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Serverl.The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.You plan to register the company’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single signon for all users. You need to identify which certificate or certificates are required for the planned deployment. Which certificate or certificates should you identify? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
B. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name Serverl
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name Serverl
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
E. selfsigned server authentication certificates for serverl.contoso.com
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federati n servers. You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers. Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 20l0
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
70-980 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a HyperV host named Host1. Host1 hosts 25 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to start automatically when Hostl restarts. You discover that some of the virtual machines fail to start automatically when Host1 restarts and require an administrator to start them manually. You need to modify the settings of the virtual machines to ensure that they automatically restart when Host1 restarts. Which settings should you modify?
A. Maximum RAM
B. Minimum RAM
C. Memory weight
D. Startup RAM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Serverl. You use Serverl to manage 20 HyperV hosts. The network also contains five Citrix XenServer virtualization hosts. You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Serverl. What should you recommend installing?
A. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer hosts
B. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Serverl
C. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on Serverl
D. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on the Citrix XenServer hosts
70-980 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Network Load Balancing (NLB).
You need to identi y which network services and applications can be load balanced by using NLB.
Which services and applications should you identi y?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2 Reporting Services
B. A failover cluster
C. A DHCP server
D. A Microsoft Exchange Server 20l0 Mailbox server
E. A file server
F. A Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0 frontend Web server
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 25
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. Each node has four network adapters. The network adapters on each node are configured as shown in the following table.
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NIC4 supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) and Receive Side Scaling (RSS). The cluster networks are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork4 is used for Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) redirected traffic. What should you do?
A. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 90,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
B. On each server, replace NIC4 with a 1Gbps network adapter.
C. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 30,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
D. On each server, enable RDMA on NIC4.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 20l2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed. Server1 is configured as an offline standalone root certification authority (CA). You install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server2 and configure the server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You need to ensure that the certificate issued to Server2 is valid for 10 years.What should you do first?
A. Modify the subordinate CA certificate template.
B. Modify the registry on Server2.
C. Modify the registry on Server1.
D. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server2.
E. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 200 servers that run either Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows Server 2012, or Windows Server 200S R2. The servers run the
following enterprise applications:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Microsoft SQL Server 20l4
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. Operations Manager monitors all of the servers in the domain. Audit Collection Services (ACS) is installed.You need to recommend a monitoring strategy for the domain that meets the following requirements:
A group of administrators must be notified when an error is written to the System log on the servers that run Exchange Server 2013.
A group of administrators must be notified when a specific event is written to The Application log on the servers that run SQL Server 20l4.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, enable audit collection.
B. From Operations Manager, implement two monitors.
C. From Computer Management, implement one event subscription.
D. From Operations Manager, implement two rules.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains the following:
20 HyperV hosts
100 virtual machines
2,000 client computers
You need to recommend an update infrastructure design to meet the following requirements: Deploy updates to all of the virtual machines and the client computers from a single console. Generate reports that contain a list of the applied updates. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and a second WSUS server that is integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
B. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, a second WSUS server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), and a third standalone WSUS server.
D. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
Correct Answer: D

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 70-980 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “Skills measured” section.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Free Download Real Microsoft 70-744 Dumps MCSE Certification Try Free Youtube For Download (Question 14 – Question 24)

Securing Windows Server 2016 (Windows Server 70-744) is a qualifying exam for the Microsoft MCSE certifications. The Windows Server pass4itsure 70-744 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) that use pass4itsure team Securing Windows Server 2016 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCSE prior to taking this 70-744 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 70-744
Exam Name: Securing Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 50

Related Exams

  • 070-086 Implementing and Supporting Systems Management Server 2.0
  • 070-089 Planning, Deploying, and Managing Microsoft Systems Management Server 2003
  • 070-121 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions for Small and Medium Organizations
  • 070-122 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
  • 070-123 Planning, Implementing and Maintaining a Software Asset Management (SAM) Program
  • 070-210 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional
  • 070-214 Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network
  • 070-215 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Server

Related Certifications

  • Microsoft SQL Server 2008
  • Microsoft Specialist
  • Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
  • Microsoft Silverlight 4
  • MCSD
  • MCSA2003
  • MCSA
  • MCPD

The Securing Windows Server 2016 (70-744 Windows Server) version is a test with 50 questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-744 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(14-24)

QUESTION 14
Note: Thi* question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2#W client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed (rom a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure each wie as a virtualization host You deploy the operating system on each host by using the customized Windows image. On each host you create a guest virtual machine and configure the virtual machine as a PAW. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario b repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown m the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario
You need to disable SMB 1.0 on Server2. What should you do?
A. From File Server Resource Manager, create a classification rule.
B. From the properties of each network adapter on Server2. modify the bindings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set -SmbClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From Server Manager, remove a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains five file servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Finance that contains all of the servers. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Finance OU. You need to ensure that when a user in the finance department deletes a file from a file server, the event is logged. The solution must log only users who have a manager attribute of Ben Smith. Which audit policy setting should you configure in the GPO?
A. File system in Global Object Access Auditing
B. Audit Detailed File Share
C. Audit Other Account Logon Events
D. Audit File System in Object Access
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?
A. Start-MpWDOScan
B. Start-MpScan
C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain.You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served.You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events.What should you configure?
A. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2
B. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1
C. Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1
D. Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host.
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.
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Sefver1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
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Rule1 and Rule2 are configured a$ shown in the following table
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No
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QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016 deployed. You implement Privileged Access Management (PAM). You need to request privileged access from a client computer in contoso.com by using PAM. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 23
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 24
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can implement the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) (or the finance department computers. What should you do in the contoso.com forest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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70-744 dumps exam

This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 70-744 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “Skills measured” section.

I believe that people want to have good prospects of career whatever industry they work in. Of course, there is no exception in the competitive IT industry. IT Professionals working in the IT area also want to have good opportunities for promotion of job and salary. A lot of IT professional know that pass4itsure 70-744 dumps exam exam tests can help you meet these aspirations. Pass4itsure is a website which help you successfully pass Microsoft 70-744 dumps.

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Pass4itsure high success rate Microsoft 070-341 dumps Youtube study material Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. The Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 (070-341 Exchange) is a qualifying exam for the MCP, MCSE certifications. The Microsoft 070-341 dumps exam certifies the Microsoft Exchange Server knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator that use pass4itsure team Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCP, MCSE prior to taking this course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 070-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 220

Related Exams

070-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange
070-342 Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
070-410 Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
070-411 Administering Windows Server 2012
070-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-285 Designing a Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 Organization
70-293 Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure
70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

Related Certifications

Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Microsoft Specialist
Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Microsoft Silverlight 4
MCSDMCSA2003
MCSA
MCPD

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Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 2)
You discover that one of the Client Access servers in the New York office does not trust the standalone CA. You need to ensure that all of the users who have Windows Phone devices can connect successfully to their mailbox. In which node should you install the root CA certificate? To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
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070-341 exam Answer:
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Question No : 19 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend changes to the network to ensure that you can deploy the planned Exchange Server 2013 infrastructure. What should you recommend?
A. Transfer of the FSMO roles to a domain controller in the Chicago office.
B. Change the forest functional level.
C. Change the domain functional level.
D. Change the operating system on one of the domain controllers in the Chicago office
Answer: D
Explanation:
DIFFICULT QUESTION
FSMO ( Flexible Single Master Operations )
In a forest, there are five FSMO roles that are assigned to one or more domain controllers.
The five FSMO roles are:
Schema Master:
The schema master domain controller controls all updates and modifications to the schema. Once the Schema update is complete, it is replicated from the schema master to all other DCs in the directory. To update the schema of a forest, you must have access to the schema master. There can be only one schema master in the whole forest.
Domain naming master:
The domain naming master domain controller controls the addition or removal of domains in the forest. This DC is the only one that can add or remove a domain from the directory. It can also add or remove cross references to domains in external directories. There can be only one domain naming master in the whole forest.
Infrastructure Master:
When an object in one domain is referenced by another object in another domain, it represents the reference by the GUID, the SID (for references to security principals), and the DN of the object being referenced. The infrastructure FSMO role holder is the DC responsible for updating an object’s SID and distinguished name in a cross-domain object reference. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the infrastructure master in each domain.
Note: The Infrastructure Master (IM) role should be held by a domain controller that is not a Global Catalog server (GC). If the Infrastructure Master runs on a Global Catalog server it will stop updating object information because it does not contain any references to objects that it does not hold. This is because a Global Catalog server holds a partial replica of
every object in the forest. As a result, cross-domain object references in that domain will not be updated and a warning to that effect will be logged on that DC’s event log. If all the domain controllers in a domain also host the global catalog, all the domain controllers have the current data, and it is not important which domain controller holds the infrastructure master role.
Relative ID (RID) Master:
The RID master is responsible for processing RID pool requests from all domain controllers in a particular domain. When a DC creates a security principal object such as a user or group, it attaches a unique Security ID (SID) to the object. This SID consists of a domain SID (the same for all SIDs created in a domain), and a relative ID (RID) that is unique for each security principal SID created in a domain. Each DC in a domain is allocated a pool of RIDs that it is allowed to assign to the security principals it creates. When a DC’s allocated RID pool falls below a threshold, that DC issues a request for additional RIDs to the domain’s RID master. The domain RID master responds to the request by retrieving RIDs from the domain’s unallocated RID pool and assigns them to the pool of the requesting DC. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the RID master in the domain.
PDC Emulator:
The PDC emulator is necessary to synchronize time in an enterprise.
The PDC emulator of a domain is authoritative for the domain. The PDC emulator at the root of the forest becomes authoritative for the enterprise, and should be configured to gather the time from an external source.
All PDC FSMO role holders follow the hierarchy of domains in the selection of their in bound time partner.
NOT A
All of the FSMO roles are located on a domain controller in the Baltimore Office. All of the domain controllers are configured as a global catalog server
No need to transfer all of these roles to the chicago domain controller as the question suggests.
NOT B
Apparently no need to change the forest functional level Forest functional levels enable features across all the domains in your forest. The following table lists the forest functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers.
070-341 dumps
NOT C
Apparently no need to change the domain functional level
For all domain controllers to function accordingly in the domain the domain functional level would have to be set to Windows Server 2003
All domain controllers in the Chicago office run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 1. (SP1)
All domain controllers in the Los Angeles office run Windows Server 2008 R2.
All domain controllers in the Baltimore office run Windows Server 2012
Domain functional levels
Domain functionality enables features that affect the entire domain and that domain only. The following table lists the domain functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers:
070-341 dumps
D
Mixture of exchange 2007,2010 and 2013 environment
Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server 2003/2008/2012 domain
functional level Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server
2003/2008/2012 forest functional level However to operate appropriately the min spec for Exchange 2013 is for an AD environment of Server 2003 SP2
Currently all of the chicago domain controllers are 2003 SP1
Need to upgrade a chicago domain controller which will house Exchange 2013
Exchange 2013 System Requirements: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 20 HOTSPOT – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which names must be used as the URLs of each virtual directory on the planned Exchange Server 2013 servers. Which names should you identify? To answer, configure the appropriate name for each server in the answer area.
070-341 dumps
070-341 dumps
070-341 dumps Answer:
070-341 dumps

Question No : 21 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to deliver email messages to the Internet if CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 fail to connect to the Internet. The solution must ensure that all queued email is sent. Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the retry-queue ch-to-internet command.
B. Create a new Send connector on a server in the Baltimore office.
C. Modify the cost of the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
D. Run the set-sendconnector -identity ch-to-internet -frontendproxyenabled Strue command.
E. Disable the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The Baltimore and Chicago offices have independent Internet connections. Internet connectivity for the Los Angeles office is provided through Chicago. Currently no mail servers in Chicago.Only in Baltimore and Los Angeles. Once the transition to Exchange Server 2013 in the Chicago office is complete, all mail flow to and from the Internet will be managed centrally through that office by using a Send connector that has the following configurations:
When you deploy Exchange 2013, outbound mail flow cannot occur until you configure a Send connector to route outbound mail to the Internet.
NOT A
Will not resolve the issue. Use the Retry-Queue cmdlet to force a connection attempt for a queue on a Mailbox server
or an Edge Transport server.
EXAMPLE 1
This example forces a connection attempt for all queues that meet the following criteria:
The queues are holding messages for the domain contoso.com.
The queues have a status of Retry.
The queues are located on the server on which the command is executed.
Retry-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com” -and Status -eq “Retry”}
NOT C
Modifying the cost will not fix the issue of CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 failing to connect to the Internet.
Cost is used to set the priority of this connector, used when two or more connectors are configured for the same address space. The lower the cost higher the priority.
NOT D
Modifying the send connector will not fix the internet connection from chicago mail server to the internet.
Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
EXAMPLE 1
This example makes the following configuration changes to the Send connector named
Contoso.com Send Connector:
Sets the maximum message size limit to 10 MB.
Changes the connection inactivity time-out to 15 minutes.
Set-SendConnector “Contoso.com Send Connector” -MaxMessageSize 10MB – ConnectionInactivityTimeOut 00:15:00
The FrontendProxyEnabled parameter routes outbound messages through the CAS server, where destination specific routing, such as DNS or IP address, is set, when the parameter is set to $true.
E
Need to disable the send connector from Chicago to the internet so that when a new send connector on the Baltimore server is created, email can be sent to the internet. Send Connectors: Exchange 2013 Help

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210-065 dumps

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-065 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20
C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500
210-065 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is manually configuring a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which two pieces of information must the administrator introduce, in order for the system to properly register to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager or to a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server? (Choose two.)
A. the MAC address of the Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint
B. a SIP URI
C. the name of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server or Cisco VCS server
D. an IP address for the endpoint
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
In this item, you will need to use all information presented to you to successfully answer the question.
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 andgt; CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
A network engineer wants to check the local system call ID on a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System. Which CLI command should the engineer use?
A. show call statistics addin
B. show call statistics all

C. show call statistics audio
D. show call status
E. show call statistics video
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 7
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Content Server. Which two services are provided by this product? (Choose two.)
A. video storage
B. multiconferencing C. scheduler
D. video conferencing

E. video recording
F. video overlay
210-065 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
A desktop video endpoint is needed that can support a PrecisionHD camera design and a built-in display, and is Bluetooth-ready and multisite-capable. Which desktop endpoint supports all of these requirements?
A. SX20
B. EX60
C. SX80
D. EX90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which Cisco Prime Collaboration capabilities are shown?
A. Endpoint and system inventory reporting
B. Proactive monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
C. End-to-end network path troubleshooting
D. Real-time monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
E. Dashboard view of overall voice and video network health
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.264
C. H.265
D. VP8
E. G.711
F. MP3

G. G.729
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
A video engineer has opened a ticket with Cisco TAC for support and the TAC engineer has requested system information such as software version of Cisco VCS. Where does the video engineer find this information?
A. System
B. Maintenance
C. Configuration
D. Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; Template
C. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; H.323 andgt; Template
D. Recording Alias andgt; Workflow andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement is correct regarding the difference between Multisite and Multiway conferencing?
A. Multisite requires configuration on the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires the Multiway options key to be installed.
B. Multisite requires the presence of a multipoint control unit, whereas Multiway relies on the endpoint conferencing capability.
C. Multisite is used to conference in multiple sites, whereas Multiway is intrasite multipoint conferencing.
D. Multisite requires the Multisite options key to be installed and configured at the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server and a centralized multipoint control unit.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is the correct order of steps to schedule a One Button to Push conference call between a Cisco TelePresence System 500 and a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40?
A. Configure the One Button to Push field under device configuration for the Cisco TelePresence System 500 and Codec C40.
B. Configure One Button to Push under Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server andgt; Applications andgt; OBTP Configuration.
C. Configure a new conference under Cisco TelePresence Management Suite andgt; Booking New Conference andgt; Type.
D. The One Button to Push feature cannot be configured without a scheduling plug-in application such as Microsoft Outlook.
E. Configure the Scheduler tool in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your customer has an EX60 at a home-office that is doing direct H.323 dialing. When they place calls to remote sites, they report that they cannot see video or hear audio from the remote sites. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. NAT mode is not configured on the EX60.
B. The HDMI cable that connects the EX60 to the monitor is not plugged in.
C. A username and password must be configured on the EX60.
D. QoS is not properly configured on the EX60.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which video-room solution supports internal and external microphones for audio transmission at the same time?
A. MX300G2
B. SX80
C. SpeakerTrack60
D. C90
E. Jabber for Windows
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265

B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 23
A customer wants to purchase a video endpoint that supports a touchscreen control. The engineer recommends a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which information about this endpoint should the engineer tell the customer?
A. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You can purchase the 10- inch touchscreen with an additional cost.
B. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the 10-inch touchscreen.
C. You can purchase the endpoint with either the 8-inch touchscreen or the 10-inch touchscreen. You need an additional option key for the 10-inch touchscreen.
D. The endpoint comes with the 10-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the endpoint with the 8-inch touchscreen.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A user is unable to make a video call from an endpoint that is registered to the Cisco VCS. To isolate the cause, which two menu choices should the user check first? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration andgt; Call Policy
B. Status andgt; Registrations
C. Status andgt; Search History
D. Status andgt; System Information
E. Configuration andgt; Dial Plan andgt; Search Rules
F. Status andgt; Event Log
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 25
Which of these involves combining visual elements from separate sources into a single image?
A. interlacing
B. compositing

C. video conferencing
D. interleaving
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-060 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
210-060 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 7
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the inbound direction.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway

B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension

B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
210-060 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile

D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
210-060 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile

E. device profile
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify

C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
210-060 vce Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to analyze the data rates that are available to a corporate laptop in its wireless deployment. The customer wants a heat map that displays actual data and shows the data rates that are available to the client in different areas of its facility. When using AirMagnet Survey PRO, which type of survey provides the actual data rates?
A. virtual
B. predictive
C. passive
D. active
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A customer is using central web authentication with a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller and Cisco Identity Services Engine. An error occurs when wireless clients are redirected to the hosted splash page. What is causing the client error?
A. Secure Web Mode is disabled on the WLC.
B. OCSP is disabled on the WLC.
C. Management Via Dynamic Interface is disabled on the WLC.
D. Ethernet Multicast Forwarding is enabled on the WLC.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization?
A. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Device andgt; Utilization
B. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports andgt; Saved Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
200-355 dumps

200-355 pdf Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm

C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12

G. 18
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor

200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 20
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. TXT
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application

E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
200-355 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their pre shared key. Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. WPA-PSK
E. WEP
F. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocol helps the administrator to determine whether a detected rogue AP is in the network of the organization?
A. RLDP

B. RCP
C. RDP
D. RAPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What three configuration options can be executed by navigating to the WCS Administration andgt; AAA menu? (Choose three.)
A. Add a Lobby Ambassador guest
B. Add a LDAP server
C. Add an administrative user
D. Add a MAC address list filter
E. Add a RADIUS server
F. Add a TACAS+ server
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 30
An engineer is seeing a pattern closest to that of an Isotropic Radiator. What other antenna will produce a similar pattern?
A. 5 dBi patch
B. 13.5 dBi Yagi
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 21 dBi parabolic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which device divides a signal between two antennas?
A. splitter
B. lightening arrestor
C. attenuator
D. amplifier
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
200-355 dumps

What is the meaning of the inverted orange triangle (marked andquot;0andquot;) in the Alarm Summary tab of Cisco WCS?
A. number of major alarms
B. number of minor alarms
C. number of critical alarms
D. number of system alarms
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
How many RADIUS servers can be configured globally and per WLAN on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 7 global; additional 1 per WLAN
B. 7 global; additional 3 per WLAN
C. 17 global; additional 1 per WLAN
D. 17 global; additional 3 per WLAN
E. 7 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
F. 17 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN

G. 17 global; reuse of up to 3 maximum per WLAN
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 35
Which key combination provides a detailed wireless connection status for an Apple MacBook running 10.6?
A. Command + Click the SSID of the network
B. Alt + Click the SSID of the network
C. Command + the Airport icon
D. Option + the Airport icon
E. Ctrl + the Airport Icon
F. Option + Click the SSID of the network
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 34
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF
QUESTION 36
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Before upgrading Secure Platform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the Secure Platform boot menu.
C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.

D. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R76. To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway. Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. snapshot
B. database revision
C. backup
D. upgrade export
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Your R76 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1. Create a database revision control backup using the Smart Dashboard
2. Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and »FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to another networked machine.
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite existing files.
B. 1. Download the latest upgrade export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3. Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4. Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5. Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the configuration
C. 1. Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Perform any requested upgcade_veriЈic«tion suggested steps
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4. Use Smart Update to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5. Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6. Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D. 1. Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade utilities
2. Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3. Save the export ” tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5. Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6. Run upgrade import to import the configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
True or false? After creating a snapshot of a Windows 2003 SP2 Security Management Server, you can restore it on a Secure Platform R76 Security Management Server, except you must load interface information manually.
A. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.20.
B. False, you cannot run the Check Point snapshot utility on a Windows gateway.

C. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.10.
D. False, all configuration information conveys to the new system, including the interface configuration settings.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major changes, such as upgrades?
A. snapshot
B. upgrade export
C. backup
D. migrate export
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months, depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. upgrade export
D. snapshot
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. backup export
D. snapshot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Snapshot is available on which Security Management Server and Security Gateway platforms?
A. Solaris
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. Windows XP Server
D. Secure Platform
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded

B. Individual members of a cluster configuration
C. Windows Server class systems
D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines?
A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration
B. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level
C. State, Secure Platform version, and patch level
D. State, Secure Platform version, and objects database
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?
A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components?
1 GUI Client
2 Security Management Server
3 Security Gateway
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 3, 1
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration?
A. Smart Event database
B. Smart Reporter database
C. classes. C file
D. System interface configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Both machines must have the same number of interfaces installed and configured before migration can be attempted.
B. The new machine may not have more Check Point products installed than the original Security Management Server.
C. All product databases are included in the migration.
D. The Security Management Server on the new machine must be the same or greater than the version on the original machine.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.
A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Event database.
B. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Reporter database.
C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/opt/backups
B. /var/backups
C. /var/CPbackup/backups

D. /var/tmp/backups
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Full Connectivity Upgrade
B. Fast path Upgrade
C. Minimal Effort Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment what command do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster.
A. cphaconf set mc_relod
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
In a “zero downtime” scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded?
A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set mc_relod
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which command provides cluster upgrade status?
A. cphaprob status
B. cphaprob ldstat
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. cphaprob tablestat
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R76. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message:
Title: Incompatible pattern.
What is happening?
A. R76 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.
B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be 
aborted.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R76. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R76 Security Gateways.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA Gateway?
A. netstat rn > [filename].txt
B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
C. ifconfig > [filename].txt
D. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
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Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. a storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
B. a spanned volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. a mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
E. a RAID-5 volume on Disk 1, Disk 2, and Disk 3
F. a storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
G. a spanned volume on Disk 0 and Disk 4
H. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. A mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
B. A storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. A storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. A mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Served, and Server3. You create a server group named ServerGroup1. You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-410 dumps

You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager. What should you do?
A. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
B. On Server2, run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. On Server2/ modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add a computer account named Server2, and then restart Server2.
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. You create a LUN on the SAN. You need to provide VM1 with access to the LUN. The solution must prevent other virtual machines from accessing the LUN. What should you configure?
A. A fixed-size VHDX
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A dynamically expanding VHDX
E. A pass-through disk
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a print server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a local group named Group1. You share a printer named Printer1 on Server1. You need to configure Printer1 to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the members of Group1, the Server Operators group, the Administrators group, and the Print Operators group can send print jobs to Printer1. Prevent other users from sending print jobs to Printer1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Assign the Print permission to the Server Operators group
B. Remove the permissions for the Creator Owner group.
C. Remove the permissions for the Everyone group.
D. Assign the Print permission to Group1.
E. Assign the Print permission to the Administrators group.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has two dual- core processors and 32 GB of RAM. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Dynamic Memory

C. NUMA topology
D. Memory weight
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet
C. the imagex.exe command
D. the setup.exe command
E. the ocsetup.exe command
F. the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
G. the Install-Module cmdlet
H. the Install-RoleService cmdlet
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. You need to configure storage for a virtual machine to meet the following requirements:
– Support up to 3 TB of data on a single hard disk.
– Allocate disk space as needed.
– Use a portable storage format.
What should you configure?
A. A pass-through disk
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A fixed-size VHDX
E. A dynamically expanding VHDX
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
You have a virtual machine named VM1. You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM1. You plan to use VM1 as an image that will be distributed to sales users to demonstrate the features of a custom application. The custom application only requires the Web Server (IIS) server role to be installed. You need to ensure that the VHD file for VM1 only contains the required Windows Server 2012 R2 source files. Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. ocsetup.exe
C. imagex.exe
D. servermanagercmd.exe
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named Employees. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. You link GP1 to the Employees OU. You need to ensure that GP1 does not apply to the members of a group named Managers. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of Employees
B. The WMI filter for GP1
C. The Block Inheritance option for Employees
D. The Security settings of GP1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps

You plan to create a snapshot of VM1. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the snapshot of VM1. What should you do before you create the snapshot?
A. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
B. Run the Convert-VHD cmdlet.
C. Decrease the Maximum RAM
D. Decrease the Minimum RAM.
70-410 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1. Share1 contains the home folder of each user. All users have the necessary permissions to access only their home folder. The users report that when they access Share1, they can see the home folders of all the users. You need to ensure that the users see only their home folder when they access Share1. What should you do from Server1?
A. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
B. From Server Manager, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
C. From Server Manager, modify the properties of Share1.
D. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of Share1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed. You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1. You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Install-ADDSDomainController
B. Install-ADDSDomatn
C. Install-ADDSForest
D. Install-WindowsFeature
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. You need to ensure that when new client computers join the domain, their computer accounts are created in OU1 by default. What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run the redircmp.exe command.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADObject cmdlet.
C. From Ldp, configure the properties of the Computers container.
D. From ADSI Edit, configure the properties of the OU1 object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a user account named User1 that resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. GPO1 is used to publish several applications to a user named User1. In the Users container, you create a new user named User2. You need to ensure that the same applications are published to User2. What should you do?
A. Modify the security of GPO1.
B. Modify the settings in GPO1.
C. Link a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. Move User2 to OU1.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has the AD DS, DHCP, and DNS server roles installed. L2P.com also has a server, named L2P-SR08, which has the DHCP, and Remote Access server roles installed. You have configured a server, which has the File and Storage Services server role installed, to automatically acquire an IP address. The server is named L2PSR09. You then create a filter on L2P-SR07. Which of the following is a reason for this configuration?
A. To make sure that L2P-SR07 issues L2P-SR09 an IP address.
B. To make sure that L2P-SR07 does not issue L2P-SR09 an IP address.
C. To make sure that L2P-SR09 acquires a constant IP address from L2P-SR08 only.
D. To make sure that L2P-SR09 is configured with a static IP address.
Correct Answer: B
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
070-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
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You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No : 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
070-461 vce Answer: C

 

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