[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Latest Cisco 642-737 Dumps CCNP Wireless Exam Preparation Materials With 100% Pass Rate Video Pass Q1-Q30

What are the tools available for performing 642-737 dumps? Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 (IAUWS 642-737) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Wireless certifications. The CCNP Wireless pass4itsure 642-737 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete CCNP Wireless prior to taking this 642-737 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 642-737
Exam Name: Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
Q&As: 207

Pass4itsure 642-737 Dumps Related Exams

642-732 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
642-742 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0
642-747 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services
300-360 Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
300-365 Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
300-370 Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
300-375 Securing Wireless Enterprise Networks

Pass4itsure 642-737 Dumps Related Certifications

Wireless LAN
WAASSE
Wireless BYOD Specialist
VPN and Security
Unified Communications
Substation Automation
TelePresence Video
Storage Networking

The Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 (642-737 IAUWS) version is a 90 minutes test with 50-60 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to the wireless network from security threats via appropriate security policies and best practices, to properly implement security standards, and to properly configure wireless security components. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the IAUWS Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security course in pass4itsure.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 642-737 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-30)

QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
642-737 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
642-737 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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642-737 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 642-737 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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What are the tools available for performing 642-732 dumps? Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0 (CUWSS 642-732) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Wireless certifications. The CCNP Wireless pass4itsure 642-732 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete CCNP Wireless prior to taking this 642-732 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 642-732
Exam Name: Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
Q&As: 193

Pass4itsure 642-732 Dumps Related Exams

642-732 Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
642-742 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0
642-747 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services
300-360 Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
300-365 Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
300-370 Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
300-375 Securing Wireless Enterprise Networks

Pass4itsure 642-732 Dumps Related Certifications

Wireless LAN
WAASSE
Wireless BYOD Specialist
VPN and Security
Unified Communications
Substation Automation
TelePresence Video
Storage Networking

The Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0 (642-732 CUWSS) version is a 75 minutes test with 50-60 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to plan and conduct a wireless site survey, to design the RF network and to conduct a post installation assessment to ensure compliancy. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the CUWSS Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey course in pass4itsure.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 642-732 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-24)

QUESTION 1
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
642-732 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You have a multinational customer that would like you to perform a wireless site survey for a new manufacturing facility in Singapore. They have had a local vendor install a point-to- point wireless bridge link between two buildings 1 km apart.
The ground between the buildings is flat but because facilities are in the mountains, dense fog is an issue. There are no line of sight issues between the buildings. The link is experiencing errors and throughput issues. Currently the two radios are set to operate at 2.4 GHz and the transmit power is set to 7 dBm with 7 dBm antennas. What do you need to take into consideration when performing the site survey for this link?
A. Change the radio power to 17 dBm.
B. Change the radio power to 20 dBm and replace with a 16 dBm antenna.
C. Change the radio power to 29 dBm.
D. Change the radio power to 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. blocks no more than 20 percent
B. blocks no more than 40 percent
C. blocks no more than 60 percent
D. comprises a single zone to keep clear
E. comprises multiple zones of which the first inside zone is the most important to keep clear
F. comprises multiple zones of which the outside zone is the most important to keep clear
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Given an AP that can transmit at 100 mW and the client at 40 mW, which power setting should be used for a site survey?
A. 10 mW
B. 20 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 60 mW
E. 80 mW
F. 100 mW
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
When ordering the software licenses for a Cisco WLAN project, what are the minimum software packages required if the location requires 390 lightweight APs, 100 of which will be used for location services, and a Cisco 3310 MSE?
A. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
B. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 500 device license for the MSE.
C. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
D. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 1000 device license for the MSE.
E. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 2000 device license for the MSE.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. single elliptical area surrounding an RF line of sight
B. multiple elliptical areas surrounding an RF line of sight
C. extends vertically
D. extends horizontally
E. extends three-dimensionally
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a data collection to validate wireless coverage. At what two locations should a linear point collection be performed? (Choose two.)
A. office cubicles
B. private offices
C. auditorium
D. warehouse
E. conference rooms
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 10
What three pieces of information should be included in an installation report? (Choose three.)
A. software versions of each AP
B. configuration files for each WLC
C. switch connection for each MAP
D. license file for each RAP
E. radio status for each AP
F. mobility group name for each WLC
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A company has requested an indoor wireless survey in a multi-tenant building for 2.4GHz data and 5GHz voice services. Data clients will require three spatial streams and 4×4 MIMO technology. What is the Cisco recommended Access Point for performing this survey?
A. 600
B. 1600
C. 2600
D. 3600
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices frame collisions occurring when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue is the engineer observing?
642-732 dumps
A. hidden node
B. exposed node
C. co-channel interference
D. CSMA-CA
E. backhaul latency
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You have a customer that is renovating a historic building for a new headquarters. The building was once an old manufacturing plant. It is constructed of brick with heavy timber beams. What type of RF issues do you expect to see while
performing the site survey?
A. The RF signal will be reflected by the brick walls.
B. The RF signal will be absorbed by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
C. The RF signal will be diffused by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
D. The brick walls and wooden beams and floors will cause the RF signal to be diffracted.
642-732 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You have a customer that operates a large open pit coal mine in the western United States. They need to deploy a wireless point-to-point bridge link across the mine. The distance of the link is 1.5 miles. Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey for this bridge link? (Choose three.)
A. What specific EPA training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
B. Is a specific Mine Safety and Health Administration training course and certificate required prior to entering the customer site?
C. What specific FCC training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
D. Will any specialized equipment or clothing will be required to perform the site survey?
E. Will customer escorts be needed during the site survey?
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are the best practice minimum and recommended signal level values for a Location Services Survey?
A. minimum: -65dBm; recommended: 60 dBm
B. minimum: -70dBm; recommended: -68 dBm
C. minimum: -75dBm; recommended: -72dBm
D. minimum: -80dBm; recommended: -78dBm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which three post-installation checks should an engineer perform after a new wireless installation? (Choose three.)
A. Check for co-channel interference.
B. Check for adequate signal levels as surveyed.
C. Conduct a passive survey of 802.11a and 802.11b.
D. Conduct a passive and active survey of each media type in use.
E. Verify that the minimum data rate is 24 Mbps.
F. Verify that the cell overlap is 20%.
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges?
A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm
F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
In performing a post-deployment audit, you are concerned by significant changes in measured RSSI and SNR values taken on a wireless client in one location. How do you explain the differences in these values?
A. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffusion in the environment.
B. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of multipath in the environment.
C. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal absorption in the environment.
D. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffraction in the environment.
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which tool can best provide throughput verification?
A. WLC > Monitor > Clients > LinkTest
B. WaveDeploy
C. InSSIDer
D. Xirrus Wi-Fi Inspector
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. What two menus will an engineer navigate to in order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor – Summary
B. Controller – Inventory
C. Management – Summary
D. Wireless – Access Points
E. Monitor – Access Points
642-732 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which two details are specified in the Executive Summary section of the Site Survey Report? (Choose two.)
A. proposed location for each AP
B. customer and site surveyor contact details
C. total number of APs
D. expressed requirements set by customer
E. coverage map
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which two options describes the vertical RF coverage pattern of an antenna? (Choose two.)
A. View from the side
B. View from above
C. Azimuth
D. H-plane
E. E-plane
642-732 exam Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 24
How many location points are needed to validate both 802.11b/g and 802.11a in the Cisco WCS Calibration?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 300
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

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642-732 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 642-732 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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Exam Code: 640-916
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 182

Pass4itsure 640-916 Dumps Related Exams

640-911 Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
640-916 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
200-150 Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
200-155 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 640-916 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-24)

QUESTION 1
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP
640-916 exam Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are two functions of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. manages access control and policy
B. enables routing between VLANs
C. creates separate collision domains
D. acts as a high speed egress point
E. implements security policy
F. provides a resilient Layer 3 routed fabric
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a server for storage connectivity using a Cisco MDS switch. The engineer connects the server to the switch, powers up the server, and then wants to verify that the server has logged into the fabric. Which command does the engineer use to verify fabric login?
A. show flogi database
B. show vsan database
C. show interface
D. show zoneset active
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG

QUESTION 7
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
640-916 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to add four native Fibre Channel ports to a pair of UCS fabric interconnects. What two items would be the result of the engineer configuring four universal ports in the fabric interconnect expansion card for storage mode and selecting apply? (Choose two.)
A. The fabric interconnect port module reboots.
B. The fabric interconnect reboots.
C. The ports immediately transition to storage ports.
D. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel storage ports.
E. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel host adapter ports.
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A storage engineer has a new requirement to have control plane and data plane separation between the financing and student storage pools. What SAN technology can be used to facilitate this?
A. Zones
B. Zone Sets
C. VSANs
D. Port Security
E. VLANs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
640-916 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 16
Based on a modular approach in network design, what are the two functionalities of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. high-speed transport
B. connection between WAN and server farm blocks
C. access-list checking and filtering
D. data encryption
E. NAT
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 18
What data center networking technology is used to converge storage and IP networks within a data center?
A. ATA
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
What are three advantages to running FabricPath in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose three.)
A. provides multichassis EtherChannel capabilities
B. improves convergence times
C. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
D. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
E. has L2 multipath forwarding capabilities
F. uses 802.1q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 20
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
640-916 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Correct Answer: ACD

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 640-916 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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What are the tools available for performing 300-135 dumps? Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT 300-135) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Routing and Switching certifications. The CCNP Routing and Switching pass4itsure 300-135 dumps vce exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching prior to taking this 300-135 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 647

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300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-135 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-18)

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site- to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is a protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices, in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the SNMP agent address of neighboring devices. This feature enables applications to send SNMP
queries to neighboring devices. In this case, the line protocol is up which means that the physical layer is operational (layer 1) but the data link layer is not.

QUESTION 8
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
300-135 exam Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp
neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
300-135 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 300-135 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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What are the tools available for performing 300-115 dumps? Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certifications. The CCDP pass4itsure 300-115 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP prior to taking this 300-115 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 647

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642-871 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
642-873 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
642-874 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-115 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-27)

QUESTION 1
Drag Drop
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QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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QUESTION 7
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QUESTION 9
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QUESTION 10
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 12
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Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.
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QUESTION 13
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QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
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QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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QUESTION 16
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STP Timers
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QUESTION 17
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Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
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QUESTION 18
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Guard Root / Guard Loop
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QUESTION 19
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STP Timer Delay
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QUESTION 20
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LLDP-TLV
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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the right.
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QUESTION 22
Lab Simulation – AAA dot1x
SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2 only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server. Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:
– Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be authenticated before they are given access to the network.
Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
– Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
– Radius key: rad123
– Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as possible.
– Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
– Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be allowed on VLAN 20.
– Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
– Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as possible
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers. You must use the
available IOS switch features.
300-115 dumps
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]
2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:
ASW1> enable
ASW1# conf t
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and sources
can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:
ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:
ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:
ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto
Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.
ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config
3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on DSW1 Define an access-list:
DSW1> enable
DSW1# conf t
(syntax: ip access-list {standard | extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:
(syntax: vlan access-map map_name [0-65535] )
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10
(syntax: match ip address {acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
(drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:
(syntax: vlan filter mapname vlan-list list)
DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config
4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations. Most of the exam takers report that ” copy running-config startup- config” is not working. It does not a matter.
Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.

QUESTION 23
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:
300-115 dumps
So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in
VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

QUESTION 24
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?
A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.
300-115 dumps

QUESTION 25
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2.
300-115 dumps

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
Examine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?
A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

QUESTION 27
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram. You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping
the server S1. Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1. Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create trunk links. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol. You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram. Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.
300-115 dumps
A. See the explanation
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires. The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing. We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)
Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.
SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1
-> without using this command, the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport
->RouterC has used IP 10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
(Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# ip routing
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said the “no auto-summary” command can’t be used in the
simulator, in fact it is not necessary because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.
In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit
above. If you use wrong AS number, no neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.
In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and “network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0” because it is the nature of distance vector routing
protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just
for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 636

Pass4itsure 300-101 Dumps Related Exams

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300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

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The Implementing Cisco IP Routing (300-101 ROUTE) version is a 2-hour test with 45-65 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-101 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-34)

QUESTION 1
Features of Netflow version 9? (choose two)
A. IEEE standard
B. IETF standard
C. ingress only
D. egress only
E. ingress/egress
300-101 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
How route tags can be set?(choose two)
A. ONLY within route tags
B. within taglists
C. can be set with ONLY route-maps
D. can be set DIRECTLY within route maps.
E. only used on link state RPs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which condition can cause unicast reverse path forwarding to fail?
A. split horizon
B. STP convergence
C. PortFast security violation
D. asymmetric routing
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
300-101 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1 Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1 Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
300-101 exam Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about OSPF E1 routes are true? (Choose two)
A. They are preferred over interarea routes
B. They use the OSPF cost from redistribution and the OSPF cost to the ASBR
C. They are preferred over E2 routes
D. They use only the OSPF cost to the ASBR
E. They use only the OSPF cost from redistribution
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
300-101 dumps
A senior network engineer tries to propagate a summary route 209.165.201.0/27 to R2 by redistributing static route on Rl, but setup is not working. What is the issue with the configuration in the exhibit.
A. The summary route is in the global routing table.
B. The wildcard bit in network command is incorrect.
C. The redistribute command is in the wrong address-family.
D. The route target is missing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect. What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent? Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
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All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1. Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Drag and Drop
DMVPN
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Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure (Windows Server 70-980) is a qualifying exam for the Microsoft MCP, MCSE certifications. The Windows Server pass4itsure 70-980 dumps exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in looking to maintain their MCSE: Server Infrastructure certification. It is based on the exam objectives from Exam 413 and Exam 414 that use pass4itsure team Recertification for Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCP, MCSE prior to taking this course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Pass4itsure.com » Microsoft » MCSE » 70-980
Exam Code: 70-980
Exam Name: Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure
Updated: Apr 14, 2018
Q&As: 450

Pass4itsure 70-980 Dumps Related Exams

070-086 Implementing and Supporting Systems Management Server 2.0
070-089 Planning, Deploying, and Managing Microsoft Systems Management Server 2003
070-121 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions for Small and Medium Organizations
070-122 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
070-123 Planning, Implementing and Maintaining a Software Asset Management (SAM) Program
070-210 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional
070-214 Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network
070-215 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Server

Pass4itsure 70-980 Dumps Related Certifications

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Microsoft Specialist
Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Microsoft Silverlight 4
MCSD
MCSA2003
MCSA
MCPD

The Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure (70-980 Windows Server) version is a test with 450 questions that validate individuals looking to maintain their MCSE: Server Infrastructure certification. It is based on the exam objectives from Exam 413 and Exam 414.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-980 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(15-28)

QUESTION 15
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager. The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Monitor multistep requests to the web site. Use a central console for monitoring. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
70-980 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement Microsoft System Center 20l2. You need to identity which soluti n automates the membership of security groups for contoso.com. The solution must use workflows that provide administrators with the ability to approve the addition of members to the security groups. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you identify?
A. Configuration Manager and Orchestrator
B. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. Orchestrator and Service Manager
D. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your network contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The servers have the HyperV server role installed. You plan to deploy a management solution.You need to recommend which Microsoft System Center 20l2 roles must be deployed to meet the following requirements: An administrator must be notified when an incident occurs, such as a serious error in the event log, on a HyperV host, or on a virtual machine. An administrator must be able to assign an incident to a specific administrator for resolution. An incident that remains unresolved for more than 10 hours must be escalated automatically to another administrator. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain the details of incidents and escalations. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
B. Operations Manager and Service Manager
C. Configuration Manager and Service Manager
D. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several hundred computers that run Windows 20l2.You plan to deploy two Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) servers. The WSUS servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to implement the WSUS infrastructure to meet the following requirements: All updates must be approved from a server in the main office. All client computers must connect to a WSUS server in their local office. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Serverl.
B. On Server2, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
C. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
D. On Server2, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
E. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Server2.
F. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 20l2 R2.The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automati ally by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CAl. You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Serverl.The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.You plan to register the company’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single signon for all users. You need to identify which certificate or certificates are required for the planned deployment. Which certificate or certificates should you identify? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
B. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name Serverl
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name Serverl
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
E. selfsigned server authentication certificates for serverl.contoso.com
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federati n servers. You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers. Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 20l0
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
70-980 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a HyperV host named Host1. Host1 hosts 25 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to start automatically when Hostl restarts. You discover that some of the virtual machines fail to start automatically when Host1 restarts and require an administrator to start them manually. You need to modify the settings of the virtual machines to ensure that they automatically restart when Host1 restarts. Which settings should you modify?
A. Maximum RAM
B. Minimum RAM
C. Memory weight
D. Startup RAM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Serverl. You use Serverl to manage 20 HyperV hosts. The network also contains five Citrix XenServer virtualization hosts. You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Serverl. What should you recommend installing?
A. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer hosts
B. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Serverl
C. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on Serverl
D. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on the Citrix XenServer hosts
70-980 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Network Load Balancing (NLB).
You need to identi y which network services and applications can be load balanced by using NLB.
Which services and applications should you identi y?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2 Reporting Services
B. A failover cluster
C. A DHCP server
D. A Microsoft Exchange Server 20l0 Mailbox server
E. A file server
F. A Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0 frontend Web server
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 25
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. Each node has four network adapters. The network adapters on each node are configured as shown in the following table.
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NIC4 supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) and Receive Side Scaling (RSS). The cluster networks are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork4 is used for Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) redirected traffic. What should you do?
A. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 90,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
B. On each server, replace NIC4 with a 1Gbps network adapter.
C. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 30,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
D. On each server, enable RDMA on NIC4.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 20l2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed. Server1 is configured as an offline standalone root certification authority (CA). You install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server2 and configure the server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You need to ensure that the certificate issued to Server2 is valid for 10 years.What should you do first?
A. Modify the subordinate CA certificate template.
B. Modify the registry on Server2.
C. Modify the registry on Server1.
D. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server2.
E. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 200 servers that run either Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows Server 2012, or Windows Server 200S R2. The servers run the
following enterprise applications:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Microsoft SQL Server 20l4
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. Operations Manager monitors all of the servers in the domain. Audit Collection Services (ACS) is installed.You need to recommend a monitoring strategy for the domain that meets the following requirements:
A group of administrators must be notified when an error is written to the System log on the servers that run Exchange Server 2013.
A group of administrators must be notified when a specific event is written to The Application log on the servers that run SQL Server 20l4.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, enable audit collection.
B. From Operations Manager, implement two monitors.
C. From Computer Management, implement one event subscription.
D. From Operations Manager, implement two rules.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains the following:
20 HyperV hosts
100 virtual machines
2,000 client computers
You need to recommend an update infrastructure design to meet the following requirements: Deploy updates to all of the virtual machines and the client computers from a single console. Generate reports that contain a list of the applied updates. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and a second WSUS server that is integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
B. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, a second WSUS server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), and a third standalone WSUS server.
D. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
Correct Answer: D

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 70-980 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “Skills measured” section.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Free Download Real Microsoft 70-744 Dumps MCSE Certification Try Free Youtube For Download (Question 14 – Question 24)

Securing Windows Server 2016 (Windows Server 70-744) is a qualifying exam for the Microsoft MCSE certifications. The Windows Server pass4itsure 70-744 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) that use pass4itsure team Securing Windows Server 2016 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCSE prior to taking this 70-744 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 70-744
Exam Name: Securing Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 50

Related Exams

070-086 Implementing and Supporting Systems Management Server 2.0
070-089 Planning, Deploying, and Managing Microsoft Systems Management Server 2003
070-121 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions for Small and Medium Organizations
070-122 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
070-123 Planning, Implementing and Maintaining a Software Asset Management (SAM) Program
070-210 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional
070-214 Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network
070-215 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Server

Related Certifications

Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Microsoft Specialist
Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Microsoft Silverlight 4
MCSD
MCSA2003
MCSA
MCPD

The Securing Windows Server 2016 (70-744 Windows Server) version is a test with 50 questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-744 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(14-24)

QUESTION 14
Note: Thi* question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2#W client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed (rom a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure each wie as a virtualization host You deploy the operating system on each host by using the customized Windows image. On each host you create a guest virtual machine and configure the virtual machine as a PAW. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario b repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown m the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario
You need to disable SMB 1.0 on Server2. What should you do?
A. From File Server Resource Manager, create a classification rule.
B. From the properties of each network adapter on Server2. modify the bindings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set -SmbClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From Server Manager, remove a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains five file servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Finance that contains all of the servers. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Finance OU. You need to ensure that when a user in the finance department deletes a file from a file server, the event is logged. The solution must log only users who have a manager attribute of Ben Smith. Which audit policy setting should you configure in the GPO?
A. File system in Global Object Access Auditing
B. Audit Detailed File Share
C. Audit Other Account Logon Events
D. Audit File System in Object Access
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?
A. Start-MpWDOScan
B. Start-MpScan
C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain.You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served.You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events.What should you configure?
A. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2
B. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1
C. Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1
D. Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host.
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.
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Sefver1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

Rule1 and Rule2 are configured a$ shown in the following table

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016 deployed. You implement Privileged Access Management (PAM). You need to request privileged access from a client computer in contoso.com by using PAM. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 23
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 24
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can implement the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) (or the finance department computers. What should you do in the contoso.com forest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Pass4itsure high success rate Microsoft 070-341 dumps Youtube study material Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. The Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 (070-341 Exchange) is a qualifying exam for the MCP, MCSE certifications. The Microsoft 070-341 dumps exam certifies the Microsoft Exchange Server knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator that use pass4itsure team Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCP, MCSE prior to taking this course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 070-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 220

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70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

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Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 2)
You discover that one of the Client Access servers in the New York office does not trust the standalone CA. You need to ensure that all of the users who have Windows Phone devices can connect successfully to their mailbox. In which node should you install the root CA certificate? To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
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070-341 exam Answer:

Question No : 19 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend changes to the network to ensure that you can deploy the planned Exchange Server 2013 infrastructure. What should you recommend?
A. Transfer of the FSMO roles to a domain controller in the Chicago office.
B. Change the forest functional level.
C. Change the domain functional level.
D. Change the operating system on one of the domain controllers in the Chicago office
Answer: D
Explanation:
DIFFICULT QUESTION
FSMO ( Flexible Single Master Operations )
In a forest, there are five FSMO roles that are assigned to one or more domain controllers.
The five FSMO roles are:
Schema Master:
The schema master domain controller controls all updates and modifications to the schema. Once the Schema update is complete, it is replicated from the schema master to all other DCs in the directory. To update the schema of a forest, you must have access to the schema master. There can be only one schema master in the whole forest.
Domain naming master:
The domain naming master domain controller controls the addition or removal of domains in the forest. This DC is the only one that can add or remove a domain from the directory. It can also add or remove cross references to domains in external directories. There can be only one domain naming master in the whole forest.
Infrastructure Master:
When an object in one domain is referenced by another object in another domain, it represents the reference by the GUID, the SID (for references to security principals), and the DN of the object being referenced. The infrastructure FSMO role holder is the DC responsible for updating an object’s SID and distinguished name in a cross-domain object reference. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the infrastructure master in each domain.
Note: The Infrastructure Master (IM) role should be held by a domain controller that is not a Global Catalog server (GC). If the Infrastructure Master runs on a Global Catalog server it will stop updating object information because it does not contain any references to objects that it does not hold. This is because a Global Catalog server holds a partial replica of
every object in the forest. As a result, cross-domain object references in that domain will not be updated and a warning to that effect will be logged on that DC’s event log. If all the domain controllers in a domain also host the global catalog, all the domain controllers have the current data, and it is not important which domain controller holds the infrastructure master role.
Relative ID (RID) Master:
The RID master is responsible for processing RID pool requests from all domain controllers in a particular domain. When a DC creates a security principal object such as a user or group, it attaches a unique Security ID (SID) to the object. This SID consists of a domain SID (the same for all SIDs created in a domain), and a relative ID (RID) that is unique for each security principal SID created in a domain. Each DC in a domain is allocated a pool of RIDs that it is allowed to assign to the security principals it creates. When a DC’s allocated RID pool falls below a threshold, that DC issues a request for additional RIDs to the domain’s RID master. The domain RID master responds to the request by retrieving RIDs from the domain’s unallocated RID pool and assigns them to the pool of the requesting DC. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the RID master in the domain.
PDC Emulator:
The PDC emulator is necessary to synchronize time in an enterprise.
The PDC emulator of a domain is authoritative for the domain. The PDC emulator at the root of the forest becomes authoritative for the enterprise, and should be configured to gather the time from an external source.
All PDC FSMO role holders follow the hierarchy of domains in the selection of their in bound time partner.
NOT A
All of the FSMO roles are located on a domain controller in the Baltimore Office. All of the domain controllers are configured as a global catalog server
No need to transfer all of these roles to the chicago domain controller as the question suggests.
NOT B
Apparently no need to change the forest functional level Forest functional levels enable features across all the domains in your forest. The following table lists the forest functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers.
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NOT C
Apparently no need to change the domain functional level
For all domain controllers to function accordingly in the domain the domain functional level would have to be set to Windows Server 2003
All domain controllers in the Chicago office run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 1. (SP1)
All domain controllers in the Los Angeles office run Windows Server 2008 R2.
All domain controllers in the Baltimore office run Windows Server 2012
Domain functional levels
Domain functionality enables features that affect the entire domain and that domain only. The following table lists the domain functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers:
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D
Mixture of exchange 2007,2010 and 2013 environment
Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server 2003/2008/2012 domain
functional level Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server
2003/2008/2012 forest functional level However to operate appropriately the min spec for Exchange 2013 is for an AD environment of Server 2003 SP2
Currently all of the chicago domain controllers are 2003 SP1
Need to upgrade a chicago domain controller which will house Exchange 2013
Exchange 2013 System Requirements: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 20 HOTSPOT – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which names must be used as the URLs of each virtual directory on the planned Exchange Server 2013 servers. Which names should you identify? To answer, configure the appropriate name for each server in the answer area.

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Question No : 21 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to deliver email messages to the Internet if CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 fail to connect to the Internet. The solution must ensure that all queued email is sent. Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the retry-queue ch-to-internet command.
B. Create a new Send connector on a server in the Baltimore office.
C. Modify the cost of the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
D. Run the set-sendconnector -identity ch-to-internet -frontendproxyenabled Strue command.
E. Disable the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The Baltimore and Chicago offices have independent Internet connections. Internet connectivity for the Los Angeles office is provided through Chicago. Currently no mail servers in Chicago.Only in Baltimore and Los Angeles. Once the transition to Exchange Server 2013 in the Chicago office is complete, all mail flow to and from the Internet will be managed centrally through that office by using a Send connector that has the following configurations:
When you deploy Exchange 2013, outbound mail flow cannot occur until you configure a Send connector to route outbound mail to the Internet.
NOT A
Will not resolve the issue. Use the Retry-Queue cmdlet to force a connection attempt for a queue on a Mailbox server
or an Edge Transport server.
EXAMPLE 1
This example forces a connection attempt for all queues that meet the following criteria:
The queues are holding messages for the domain contoso.com.
The queues have a status of Retry.
The queues are located on the server on which the command is executed.
Retry-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com” -and Status -eq “Retry”}
NOT C
Modifying the cost will not fix the issue of CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 failing to connect to the Internet.
Cost is used to set the priority of this connector, used when two or more connectors are configured for the same address space. The lower the cost higher the priority.
NOT D
Modifying the send connector will not fix the internet connection from chicago mail server to the internet.
Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
EXAMPLE 1
This example makes the following configuration changes to the Send connector named
Contoso.com Send Connector:
Sets the maximum message size limit to 10 MB.
Changes the connection inactivity time-out to 15 minutes.
Set-SendConnector “Contoso.com Send Connector” -MaxMessageSize 10MB – ConnectionInactivityTimeOut 00:15:00
The FrontendProxyEnabled parameter routes outbound messages through the CAS server, where destination specific routing, such as DNS or IP address, is set, when the parameter is set to $true.
E
Need to disable the send connector from Chicago to the internet so that when a new send connector on the Baltimore server is created, email can be sent to the internet. Send Connectors: Exchange 2013 Help

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