High quality Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 exam Dump: 810-403 OUTCOMES

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Latest effective Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
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QUESTION 3
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QUESTION 6
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QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the steps of The Seven Elements framework on the left to the right in sequential order.pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -8 pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -8-1

 

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.pass4itsure 810-403 dumps -10

 

QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers?
(Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilizationCorrect Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following solutions enables business outcomes in the financial industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Remote Expert
C. Plant Floor Control Network
D. Internet of Everything
E. Medianet
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 22
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 23
Which characteristic of the Cisco Internet of Everything has the most impact on business?
A. connecting people for measuring the usage trends of services
B. delivering the services to the right person at the right time
C. leveraging data into more useful information for decision making
D. having physical devices and objects connected to the internet
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 24
How does a performance measurement help the customer business?
A. Provides feedback on progress towards settled goals.
B. Compliance of certain industries regulations.
C. Help companies monitor its past state.
D. To reward and to discipline employees.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 25
When shifting to business outcomes, which two of these relevant considerations and premises must be taken into account? (Choose two.)
A. Customers want to benefit from new, more flexible consumption models.
B. Technology is acquiring more importance.
C. Businesses prefer time-to-market acceleration regardless the costs of their IT solutions.
D. Business transformation dictates that CEOs and their teams become key partners.
E. Customers want solutions that address specific outcomes.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 26
Which framework is used to plan influential communication when seeking customer support for action?
A. business model canvas
B. principled negotiation
C. seven elements
D. stakeholder analysis matrixCorrect Answer: A

 

QUESTION 27
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)
A. What are the technical restrictions of business?
B. How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C. How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D. How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E. What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect benefits of a business outcome? (Choose two.)
A. Lower maintenance contract cost
B. Improved customer satisfaction
C. Lower purchase price of IT assets
D. Faster time to market for new solutions
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 29
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)
A. Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B. Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C. Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D. Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E. Know your audience and what is of interest to them.
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 30
Which two options are financial considerations related to determining business outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. Capital Expenditures, Operating Expenses.
B. Internal Return Rate, Discount Rate.
C. Payback, Chargeback.
D. Capital Expenditures, Working Capital.
E. Chargeback, Showback.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 31
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 32
Which two dimensions are used in the stakeholder power grid? (Choose two.)
A. Influence/Authority
B. Power/Influence
C. Interest/Empathy
D. Interest/Support
E. Consensus/Support
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 33
Which option is a difference in the set of questions that Cisco’s approach to outcomes- based sales users
A. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approach answers what capabilities are needed to achieve the solutions.
B. The product approach answers the question of how progress is displayed and correctly communicated, while the outcomes approach answers what the business objectives services must be included in each solution.
C. The product approach answers the question of what product is needed, while the outcomes approachanswers what the business objectives anddesired outcomes are.
D. The product approach answers the question of what capabilities are needed to deliver product & services, while the outcomes approach gives ananswer towhat the business rules and capabilities are.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 34
Why are customer stakeholders important to the business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Because understandingthe concerns, interests, power, and influence of stakeholders enables successful stakeholder engagement.
B. Because stakeholders consists of partners who are either part of the organization or are external to the organization.
C. Because stakeholder strategy influence business needs and their involvement in a project to change them.
D. Because relevant and potential stakeholders exist across customers’ and sales professionals’ organizational and functional roles.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 35
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 36
Which two options are benefits of effective communication with stakeholders? (Choose two.)
A. It allows other strengths to create maximum impact.
B. It lessen the impact of business weakness.
C. It helps mitigate the intrinsic risks with negotiation.
D. It allows effective interaction between stakeholders.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 37
When selling business outcomes, which two options are key points/ factors related to what the customer wants to achieve must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. What the business priorities and strategies are.
B. What the Critical Set of Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
C. What the mindset of customers is.
D. What the business priorities and goals are.
E. What the Critical Success Factors and Key Performance Indicators are.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 38
Which are two purposes of the Cisco enablement resources and Cisco Playbooks when articulating the business value to customers? (Choose two.)
A. To help the sales force develop new marketing strategies.B. To provide additional information on Cisco solutions and services.
C. To enhance the technology experience and influence the customer.
D. To improve the proposal and provide the bill of materials to the customer.
E. To help the sales force with the selling process.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 39
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 40
Which two options are characteristics of Critical Success Factors (CSFs)? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs describe what is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal.
B. CSFs receive special and continual attention from management.
C. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
D. CSFs link business initiatives to adopt solutions and services
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Which troubleshooting tool does an engineer use to determine whether a cat! is being subjected to
traversal bandwidth restrictions?
A. registration log
B. calls log
C. search history log
D. event log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which method does the Conductor use to determine the source of an incoming call to a rendezvous type
conference?
A. conference IP addresses
B. location IP addresses
C. management IP addresses
D. source IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS
database?
A. System > Navigator
B. System > System Overview
C. System > Provisioning
D. System > Manage Dial Plan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists
deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A. single combined server deployment
B. scaled and resilient server deployment
C. scaled and combined server deployment
D. single split server deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In an H.323 call that is not interworked, which three signaling protocols are routed through the
Expressway? (Choose three.)
A. RTP
B. Q.931
C. C. H.254
D. RAS
E. RTCP
F. H.245
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 6
Which two methods can be used in TMSto schedule conferences? (Choose two.)
A. Administrative Tools > Configuration > Conference Settings
B. Booking > New Conference
C. Scheduling > New Conference
D. Reporting > Conferences
E. Monitoring > Conference Control Center
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion
is the Cisco recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations?
A. transforms
B. user policy
C. service preference
D. call policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A. where user information comes from
B. how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D. API integration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about Call Service Connect on a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment is true?
A. Call Service Connect does not require media traversal capabilities or licenses to be installed.
B. Mutual TLS can be used to deploy Call Service Connect, but it is not required.
C. Call Service Aware does not need be deployed to use Call Service Connect.
D. Call Service Connect allows integration between Cisco Spark and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which statement about setting up a call bridge cluster for a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server
deployment is true?
A. Call bridges can connect to databases in full mesh.
B. Call bridges only connect to the master database.
C. Only one call bridge should be configured per domain in a database cluster.
D. Call bridges can read/write to any database in a cluster at anytime.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about subzones are true? (Choose two.)A. Endpointsare assigned to a particular subzone by their alias or IP subnet.
B. Subzones require the use of endpoint authentication
C. Subzones are used for routing calls to peers in other parts of the network.
D. Endpoints require the use of other endpoints for authentication
E. Subzones are used for bandwidth and authentication control of a logical grouping of endpoints within
the registration list of the Expressway
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about endpoint registration authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
B. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
C. The endpoint and Expressway must be configured and synchronized with an NTP server delivering an
identical time stamp.
D. Expressways and endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
E. When a subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint must have the correct authentications
configured.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which SIP message is sent from the called endpoint after the call request is accepted?
A. “Hello”
B. “404 OK”
C. “Connect”
D. “200 OK”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which H.323 functionality exists on the Cisco Meeting Server?
A. H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
B. H.323-to-SIP Interworking
C. H.323 registration and call only
D. H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which description of the role of the service preference in the Cisco Conductor is true?
A. It consists of a group of conference aliases and it determines, in order of priority, which alias to choose
for a conference.
B. It consists of one or more bridge pools and it determines which of these pools, in order of priority, to
use for a conference.
C. It determines the bandwidth that is supplied by the service provider.
D. It determines the conference template to be used for a particular conference based upon alias.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
While scheduling a CMS conference on TMS, an engineer notices that it will not add a WebEx meeting as
a participant. Which option is the possible issue?A. WebEx requires a domain be added to the CMS.
B. WebEx can be added to conferences only using Telepresence Server/Conductor.
C. A SIP trunk is required between the WebEx server and CMS.
D. The WebEx server address must be properly configured in TMS and the CMS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which description of Cisco WebEx Telepresence is true?
A. It is the Cisco term for a fully enabled on-premises collaboration solution.
B. It is a solution that allows on-premises endpoint to register to the WebEx meeting Center.
C. It allows endpoints on-premises to register to Cisco infrastructure in the cloud.
D. It is a Cisco WebEx solution that allows integration between WebEx Meeting Center and on-premises
collaboration solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.)
A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone.
C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone.
D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone.
E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
An engineer wants to use TMS to send registration configurations automatically every Sunday at 3:00 a.m.
to a group of endpoints in a remote office. Where does the engineer navigate to create this setting?
A. Systems> Manage Dial Plan
B. Systems > Configuration Templates
C. Systems > Provisioning
D. Systems > Navigator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to only allow the registration of endpoints with aliases containing cisco.com asthe
domain.
Which option accomplishes this task?
A. Set the restriction policy to “Deny” and include the expression.*@*in the deny list.
B. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression\[email protected] cisco.com in the allow list.
C. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression. *@cisco. com in the allow list.
D. Set the restriction policy to “None” and include the expression \[email protected] cisco.com in the allow list.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two primary protocols does TMS use to communicate with endpoints and infrastructure? (Choose
two.)
A. BFCDB. SIP
C. HTTPS
D. H.323
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
Which option governs the order in which the search rules query the local zone versus neighbored
Expressways?
A. priority number
B. call processing order
C. call policy
D. target zone
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two products are available as multipoint conferencing options in the CMR Premise platform?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Expressway
B. Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Switch
C. Telepresence Server
D. Cisco VCS
E. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 24
Which option is the correct format for a SIP alias?
A. 212-555-1212
B. +12125551212
C. [email protected]
D. John.doe
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature of AMP tracks the movement of a file within the environment and monitors its disposition
over time?
A. Trajectory
B. Fuzzy Fingerprinting
C. Machine Learning
D. ThreatGrid
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

QUESTION 2
Which three are deployment options for E-mail Security? (Choose three.)
A. ESA
B. CES
C. WSAv
D. AMP
E. ESAv
F. WebRoot
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product is a part of the Data Center threat centric solution?
A. Cloudlock
B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
C. NGFWv
D. Meraki MX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions – AM and SE Module 7

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco solution falls under Advanced Threat?
A. Umbrella
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Stealthwatch
D. Threat Grid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

QUESTION 5
What is a key difference between Basic Data Loss Prevention and Advanced Data Loss Prevention?
A. Providing content analysis
B. Instant visibility
C. Dynamic outbreak considerations
D. Ability to filter in real-time
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which feature of E-mail Security protects users from virus outbreaks using the Tabs database to
quarantine suspicious messages?
A. Antivirus defense
B. Outbreak fitters
C. Data Loss Prevention
D. Advanced Malware Protection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

QUESTION 7
Which Policy and Access solution technology combines posture checks and authentication across wired,
wireless, and VPN networks?
A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. ASA 2100 series
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 8
Which feature of AnyConnect provides you the ability to identify data breaches as they happen?
A. Flexible AAA Options
B. Network Visibility Module
C. Differentiated Mobile Access
D. Trusted Network Detection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

QUESTION 9
Which are three key features of DNS-layer security? (Choose three.)A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Retrospective Analysis
C. Real-time sandboxing
D. Provides visibility into all Internet activity
E. Acts as first level of protection by providing security at DNS layer
F. Resolves all DNS request through a single recursive DNS service
Correct Answer: DEF
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which three values are provided by NGFW and NGIPS in the “Campus NGFW”? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic routing port to meet all network needs.
B. Differentiated Mobile Access
C. Additional firewalls across all platforms
D. High throughput maintained while still protecting domain against threats
E. Identity Services Engine
F. Flexible AAA Options
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which is a Cisco solution features retrospective security?
A. AMP for Endpoint
B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
C. Umbrella
D. Investigate
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 12
Employee-sponsored network access, guest access, and activity tracking are contributors to which feature
of ISE?
A. Device profiting
B. Context-aware access
C. Guest access management
D. Platform exchange grid
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

QUESTION 13
Which of AMP’s File capabilities deals with the problem of files passing through perimeter defenses that
are later discovered to be a threat?A. Dynamic Analytics
B. Trajectory
C. Malware Security
D. File Retrospection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Tracks the spread of any file within your network and continuously monitors file reputation over time. If a
file reputation changes to malicious or is found by file sandboxing to be malicious, AMP provides
retrospective alerting in the after phase. AMP identifies every instance of the file within your network to
address the problem of malicious files passing through perimeter defenses that are later deemed a threat.

QUESTION 14
What are two main features of enabling Cloudlock in a customers environment? (Choose two)
A. Cloudlock connects via Oauth
B. Cloud App security works on plug-in
C. Easily creates network lags for different users
D. It takes less than five minutes to enable per platform
E. Protects against cloud-native malware
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 15
How does AMP’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It automatically detects polymorphic variants of known malware
B. It increases time to detection with exact data analytics
C. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which are two main features of ASAv and NGFWv? (Choose two.)
A. File trajectory
B. API-based management
C. File reputation
D. Agile provisioning
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security NGFW and NGIPS SE Module 4

QUESTION 17
Which three options are attack vectors protected by Email Security? (Choose three)A. Endpoints
B. Offline Devices
C. Mobile
D. E-mail
E. Voicemail
F. Backups
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

QUESTION 18
What feature of Anti-Spam Defense determines the reputation of an e-mail?
A. IP addresses
B. Threat analysis
C. Context analysis
D. Encryption score
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which feature of Cisco Web Security leverages the Outbreak Intelligence Engine to scan individual pieces
of websites before allowing access?
A. Antivirus Monitoring
B. Dynamic Content Analysis
C. Real-time Sandboxing Analysis
D. Visibility control
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2

QUESTION 20
Which three Cisco solutions are covered in the Advanced Threat module? (Choose three.)
A. Cognitive Threat Analytics
B. Intrusion Analytics
C. AMP
D. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
E. NGIPS
F. Cisco ThreatGrid
Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
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B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12

Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called
the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business
by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered
and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did we get there?”
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
2) Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3) Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration
Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration
Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration
control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the
Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Business Value
B. Functionality
C. IT Assets
D. Service Level Requirements
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute
is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development be outsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Solution
B. Customer / Business Needs
C. Service Release
D. Service Requirements
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B. A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
C. A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
D. A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. Facilities Management
C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Exhibit:

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? Please refer to the exhibit.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
“Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in
the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Markets and Customers
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business
by?
A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met
their targets?
A. Availability Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Business Relationship Management
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 37
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Incident Management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Access management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer: C

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  • Maintaining a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Monitoring a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution
  • Troubleshooting a Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solution

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator used the versioning feature of Provisioning Services to test changes made to a vDisk. After a successful test, the version is promoted. All users are using the latest production version. Over time, additional versions of the vDisk are created. To conserve space, the administrator decides to merge all of the versions to a new base version but the Merge option appears grayed out. Why does the Merge option appear grayed out?
A. Merging within the Provisioning Service console is only possible for an individual vDisk version.
B. The vDisk was NOT created with the latest version of the Provisioning Services target device software.
C. The administrator needs to promote the existing Maintenance Version to Test or Production, after that the Merge option becomes available.
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Correct Answer: C

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A. Citrix Licensing
B. Citrix Configuration
C. Citrix ICA File Signing
D. Citrix Credential Wallet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to manage XenDesktop 7.6 in an organization. One Delivery Group currently deploys 100 pooled-random Desktop OS machines. The administrator increased the number of Desktop OS machines in the machine catalog to 150. After increasing the number of machines, only 100 users are able to log in to the pooled-random Desktop OS machines. Which additional step must the administrator take to ensure 150 users are able to log in simultaneously to 150 Desktop OS machines?
A. Power on the newly added machines.
B. Join the new machines to the domain.
C. Add the new machines to the Delivery Group.
D. Remove the new Desktop OS machines from maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C

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The Designing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:

  • Assessing the Current Environment
  • Planning and Risk Assessment
  • Analyzing the Current Environment
  • Designing an Integrated Virtualization Solution
  • Designing and Documenting the Infrastructure
  • Designing and Documenting the Security Infrastructure

QUESTION 1
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases. How should the architect recommend that the target devices boot from the Provisioning Services server?
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B. By using SFTP
C. By using FTP
D. By using DHCP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21Y0-401 dumps
Why would having one farm with three configured sites, with three Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter, meet the requirements of a regional, single-image management strategy with minimal WAN traffic across datacenters?
A. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability within each region.
B. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, and reduces management overhead.
C. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance between hosts, and guarantees high availability between regions.
D. It ensures that Provisioning Services targets will NOT load balance across regions, guarantees high availability within each region, and reduces management overhead.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect identifies a fault in the Active Directory design for CGE\’s existing XenApp environments. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) from OUs across the Active Directory apply when end users log on to XenApp applications, creating undesirable end-user experiences. The architect determines that CGE needs full control over which GPOs apply in the new environment. Why would creating Citrix policies within a GPO, filtered by IP address, ensure full control over which GPOs are applied?
A. It provides central management and control.
B. It ensures that only policies with the correct filter in Active Directory are applied.
C. It ensures that only settings located in the root OU are applied.
D. It ensures that only Citrix policies are applied on the Virtual Desktop Agents where end users log on.
Correct Answer: C

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Q&As: 207

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A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CD

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An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
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B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
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B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
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What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
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B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
642-737 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
642-737 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 642-737 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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Exam Code: 642-732
Exam Name: Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
Q&As: 193

Pass4itsure 642-732 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-732 Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
  • 642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
  • 642-742 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0
  • 642-747 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services
  • 300-360 Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-365 Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-370 Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-375 Securing Wireless Enterprise Networks

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 642-732 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-24)

QUESTION 1
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
642-732 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You have a multinational customer that would like you to perform a wireless site survey for a new manufacturing facility in Singapore. They have had a local vendor install a point-to- point wireless bridge link between two buildings 1 km apart.
The ground between the buildings is flat but because facilities are in the mountains, dense fog is an issue. There are no line of sight issues between the buildings. The link is experiencing errors and throughput issues. Currently the two radios are set to operate at 2.4 GHz and the transmit power is set to 7 dBm with 7 dBm antennas. What do you need to take into consideration when performing the site survey for this link?
A. Change the radio power to 17 dBm.
B. Change the radio power to 20 dBm and replace with a 16 dBm antenna.
C. Change the radio power to 29 dBm.
D. Change the radio power to 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. blocks no more than 20 percent
B. blocks no more than 40 percent
C. blocks no more than 60 percent
D. comprises a single zone to keep clear
E. comprises multiple zones of which the first inside zone is the most important to keep clear
F. comprises multiple zones of which the outside zone is the most important to keep clear
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Given an AP that can transmit at 100 mW and the client at 40 mW, which power setting should be used for a site survey?
A. 10 mW
B. 20 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 60 mW
E. 80 mW
F. 100 mW
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
When ordering the software licenses for a Cisco WLAN project, what are the minimum software packages required if the location requires 390 lightweight APs, 100 of which will be used for location services, and a Cisco 3310 MSE?
A. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
B. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 500 device license for the MSE.
C. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
D. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 1000 device license for the MSE.
E. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 2000 device license for the MSE.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. single elliptical area surrounding an RF line of sight
B. multiple elliptical areas surrounding an RF line of sight
C. extends vertically
D. extends horizontally
E. extends three-dimensionally
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a data collection to validate wireless coverage. At what two locations should a linear point collection be performed? (Choose two.)
A. office cubicles
B. private offices
C. auditorium
D. warehouse
E. conference rooms
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 10
What three pieces of information should be included in an installation report? (Choose three.)
A. software versions of each AP
B. configuration files for each WLC
C. switch connection for each MAP
D. license file for each RAP
E. radio status for each AP
F. mobility group name for each WLC
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A company has requested an indoor wireless survey in a multi-tenant building for 2.4GHz data and 5GHz voice services. Data clients will require three spatial streams and 4×4 MIMO technology. What is the Cisco recommended Access Point for performing this survey?
A. 600
B. 1600
C. 2600
D. 3600
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices frame collisions occurring when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue is the engineer observing?
642-732 dumps
A. hidden node
B. exposed node
C. co-channel interference
D. CSMA-CA
E. backhaul latency
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You have a customer that is renovating a historic building for a new headquarters. The building was once an old manufacturing plant. It is constructed of brick with heavy timber beams. What type of RF issues do you expect to see while
performing the site survey?
A. The RF signal will be reflected by the brick walls.
B. The RF signal will be absorbed by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
C. The RF signal will be diffused by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
D. The brick walls and wooden beams and floors will cause the RF signal to be diffracted.
642-732 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You have a customer that operates a large open pit coal mine in the western United States. They need to deploy a wireless point-to-point bridge link across the mine. The distance of the link is 1.5 miles. Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey for this bridge link? (Choose three.)
A. What specific EPA training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
B. Is a specific Mine Safety and Health Administration training course and certificate required prior to entering the customer site?
C. What specific FCC training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
D. Will any specialized equipment or clothing will be required to perform the site survey?
E. Will customer escorts be needed during the site survey?
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are the best practice minimum and recommended signal level values for a Location Services Survey?
A. minimum: -65dBm; recommended: 60 dBm
B. minimum: -70dBm; recommended: -68 dBm
C. minimum: -75dBm; recommended: -72dBm
D. minimum: -80dBm; recommended: -78dBm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which three post-installation checks should an engineer perform after a new wireless installation? (Choose three.)
A. Check for co-channel interference.
B. Check for adequate signal levels as surveyed.
C. Conduct a passive survey of 802.11a and 802.11b.
D. Conduct a passive and active survey of each media type in use.
E. Verify that the minimum data rate is 24 Mbps.
F. Verify that the cell overlap is 20%.
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges?
A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm
F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
In performing a post-deployment audit, you are concerned by significant changes in measured RSSI and SNR values taken on a wireless client in one location. How do you explain the differences in these values?
A. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffusion in the environment.
B. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of multipath in the environment.
C. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal absorption in the environment.
D. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffraction in the environment.
642-732  pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which tool can best provide throughput verification?
A. WLC > Monitor > Clients > LinkTest
B. WaveDeploy
C. InSSIDer
D. Xirrus Wi-Fi Inspector
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. What two menus will an engineer navigate to in order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor – Summary
B. Controller – Inventory
C. Management – Summary
D. Wireless – Access Points
E. Monitor – Access Points
642-732 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which two details are specified in the Executive Summary section of the Site Survey Report? (Choose two.)
A. proposed location for each AP
B. customer and site surveyor contact details
C. total number of APs
D. expressed requirements set by customer
E. coverage map
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which two options describes the vertical RF coverage pattern of an antenna? (Choose two.)
A. View from the side
B. View from above
C. Azimuth
D. H-plane
E. E-plane
642-732 exam Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 24
How many location points are needed to validate both 802.11b/g and 802.11a in the Cisco WCS Calibration?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 300
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

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642-732 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 642-732 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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Exam Code: 640-916
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 182

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  • 200-155 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 640-916 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-24)

QUESTION 1
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP
640-916 exam Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are two functions of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. manages access control and policy
B. enables routing between VLANs
C. creates separate collision domains
D. acts as a high speed egress point
E. implements security policy
F. provides a resilient Layer 3 routed fabric
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a server for storage connectivity using a Cisco MDS switch. The engineer connects the server to the switch, powers up the server, and then wants to verify that the server has logged into the fabric. Which command does the engineer use to verify fabric login?
A. show flogi database
B. show vsan database
C. show interface
D. show zoneset active
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG

QUESTION 7
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
640-916 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to add four native Fibre Channel ports to a pair of UCS fabric interconnects. What two items would be the result of the engineer configuring four universal ports in the fabric interconnect expansion card for storage mode and selecting apply? (Choose two.)
A. The fabric interconnect port module reboots.
B. The fabric interconnect reboots.
C. The ports immediately transition to storage ports.
D. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel storage ports.
E. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel host adapter ports.
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A storage engineer has a new requirement to have control plane and data plane separation between the financing and student storage pools. What SAN technology can be used to facilitate this?
A. Zones
B. Zone Sets
C. VSANs
D. Port Security
E. VLANs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
640-916 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 16
Based on a modular approach in network design, what are the two functionalities of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. high-speed transport
B. connection between WAN and server farm blocks
C. access-list checking and filtering
D. data encryption
E. NAT
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 18
What data center networking technology is used to converge storage and IP networks within a data center?
A. ATA
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
What are three advantages to running FabricPath in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose three.)
A. provides multichassis EtherChannel capabilities
B. improves convergence times
C. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
D. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
E. has L2 multipath forwarding capabilities
F. uses 802.1q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 20
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
640-916 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Correct Answer: ACD

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 640-916 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Latest Upload Cisco 300-135 Dumps Vce CCNP Routing and Switching Certification Exam Youtube Guide Q1-Q18

What are the tools available for performing 300-135 dumps? Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT 300-135) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Routing and Switching certifications. The CCNP Routing and Switching pass4itsure 300-135 dumps vce exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching prior to taking this 300-135 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 647

Pass4itsure 300-135 Dumps Related Exams

  • 300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks

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The Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (300-135 TSHOOT) version is a 2-hour test with 15-25 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks and use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-135 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-18)

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site- to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is a protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices, in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the SNMP agent address of neighboring devices. This feature enables applications to send SNMP
queries to neighboring devices. In this case, the line protocol is up which means that the physical layer is operational (layer 1) but the data link layer is not.

QUESTION 8
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
300-135 exam Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp
neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
300-135 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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300-135 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. Pass4itsure Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the pass4itsure 300-135 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Pass4itsure Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

I believe that people want to have good prospects of career whatever industry they work in. Of course, there is no exception in the competitive IT industry. IT Professionals working in the IT area also want to have good opportunities for promotion of job and salary. A lot of IT professional know that pass4itsure 300-135 dumps exam exam tests can help you meet these aspirations. Pass4itsure is a website which help you successfully pass Cisco 300-135 dumps.
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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Useful Cisco 300-115 Dumps CCDP Exam Vce Youtube Training Files Will Be More Popular Q1-Q27

What are the tools available for performing 300-115 dumps? Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certifications. The CCDP pass4itsure 300-115 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use pass4itsure team Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at pass4itsure testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP prior to taking this 300-115 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 647

Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-871 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
  • 642-873 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
  • 642-874 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
  • 300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
  • 300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
  • 300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

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The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) version is a 2-hour test with 30-40 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-115 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-27)

QUESTION 1
Drag Drop
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 2
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QUESTION 3
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QUESTION 4
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QUESTION 5
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QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop
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QUESTION 8
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QUESTION 9
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QUESTION 10
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.
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QUESTION 13
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QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 16
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STP Timers
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QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop
Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
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QUESTION 18
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Guard Root / Guard Loop
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QUESTION 19
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STP Timer Delay
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QUESTION 20
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LLDP-TLV
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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
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300-115 pdf Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
Lab Simulation – AAA dot1x
SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2 only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server. Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:
– Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be authenticated before they are given access to the network.
Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
– Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
– Radius key: rad123
– Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as possible.
– Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
– Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be allowed on VLAN 20.
– Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
– Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as possible
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers. You must use the
available IOS switch features.
300-115 dumps
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]
2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:
ASW1> enable
ASW1# conf t
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and sources
can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:
ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:
ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:
ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto
Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.
ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config
3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on DSW1 Define an access-list:
DSW1> enable
DSW1# conf t
(syntax: ip access-list {standard | extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:
(syntax: vlan access-map map_name [0-65535] )
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10
(syntax: match ip address {acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
(drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:
(syntax: vlan filter mapname vlan-list list)
DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config
4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations. Most of the exam takers report that ” copy running-config startup- config” is not working. It does not a matter.
Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.

QUESTION 23
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?
300-115 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:
300-115 dumps
So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in
VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

QUESTION 24
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?
A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps

QUESTION 25
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
Examine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?
A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

QUESTION 27
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram. You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping
the server S1. Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1. Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create trunk links. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol. You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram. Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.
300-115 dumps
A. See the explanation
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires. The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing. We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)
Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.
SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1
-> without using this command, the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport
->RouterC has used IP 10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
(Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# ip routing
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said the “no auto-summary” command can’t be used in the
simulator, in fact it is not necessary because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.
In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit
above. If you use wrong AS number, no neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.
In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and “network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0” because it is the nature of distance vector routing
protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just
for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.

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