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QUESTION 47
Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating an LA group? (Choose two.)
A. A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B. Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C. A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D. LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 48
Which Switch 8800 Fabric Status LED condition indicates the Fabric Module is powered-up and operating normally?
A. SFS LED is on
B. ACT LED is green
C. RUN LED is green
D. ACT LED is blinking green
E. RUN LED is blinking green
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
Which two are required to define an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. Create the ACL exception table
B. Enable the ACL on the switch port
C. Enter the ACL view and add the ACL rule(s)
D. For numbered ACL, specify the ACL number
E. For Layer 2 ACLs, configure the IP source/destination address

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 50
What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command nmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domainWhat is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command ?nmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A. Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B. Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C. Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address
129.102.149.23
D. Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Correct Answer: C
This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from 3Com 3M0-250. 3Com 3M0-250 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help 3Com 3M0-250 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as 3Com 3M0-250 exam day nears.

3COM 3M0-250 3Com Certified Enterprise Lan Post-Sales Expert 50 Q&A Version 2.73

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
A. Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B. Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C. Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D. Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click on the exhibit button.
Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules (review the output shown in the exhibit)?

A. [SW7700] display device
B. [SW7700] display version
C. [SW7700] display interfaces
D. [SW7700] display current-configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Click on the exhibit button.
What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP routing-table information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The default route is 200.0.0.1
B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24
C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch
D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two methods can be used for day-to-day copying of switch configuration and software files on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. USB port with a flash drive
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port #13 on switch unit #2?
A. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/13
B. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/0/13
C. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/1/13
D. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 13/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the reason to connect the p port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A. Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B. Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C. Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D. Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Click on the exhibit button.
Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked
B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual gateway path
C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the virtual gateway
D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Click on the exhibit button.
How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Click on the exhibit button.
Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2
B. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
C. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
D. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does a slow (once per second) flashing RUN LED indicate on the Switch 7700 Fabric I/O module?
A. The fabric module is faulty
B. The fabric module is running normally
C. The fabric module is faulty or out of position
D. The fabric module is booting or has not registered successfully

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs), i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?
A. All VLANs will be tagged
B. All VLANs will be untagged
C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged
D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?
A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View
B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from sending and receiving RIP updates?
A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command
B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server reside on?
A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper
B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound ip-group 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?
A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets identified by ACL 3010
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?
A. Use the port link-type hybrid command
B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)
A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area
B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 26
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC does not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN that are not OUI-based frames

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred to as VLAN-VPN)?
A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each VLAN’s parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers’ VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)
A. Define the ACL
B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?
A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports
B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?

A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
Correct Answer: B

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