DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation: 300-170 Dumps | 300-170 exam youtube video

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Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 102

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300-170 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Q&AS:

1.Model settings enabled in the Model Options dialog apply to Model settings enabled in the Model
Options dialog apply to
A. all models.
B. the current model only. C.
all models in the project. D.
archived models only.
300-170 exam 
Answer: B
2.Which of the following are ways of displaying the Palette? (Choose 2)
A. SelectTools ? Display Preferences
B. SelectTools ? Customize Toolbars
C. Right-click in the Toolbar area
D. SelectTools ? Model Options
Answer: B,C
3.When generating a diagram for an Impact and Lineage Analysis, what does PowerDesigner create?
A. New diagram in the same package of the same model
B. New diagram in a new package of the same model
C. New diagram in a new model
D. Visual display that cannot be saved
300-170 dumps 
Answer: C
4.A COPY of an object that is tied to its parent object is known as a .
A. Stereotype
B. Shortcut
C. Replica
D. Domain

Answer: C
5.Which of the following is FALSE about workspaces? (Choose 2)
A. Can hold a Repository
B. Can include external files
C. Can be saved locally
D. Multiple workspaces can be opened at the same time
300-170 pdf 
Answer: A,D
6.User Profiles can NOT create defaults for which of the following?
A. Database Generation Options
B. Display Preferences
C. Report Sections
D. Model Options
E. General Options
F. Repository Definitions
Answer: C
7.Which of the following are business rules types? (Choose 2)
A. Constraints
B. Annotation
C. Associative
D. Formula
300-170 vce 
Answer: A,D
8.Which of the following objects are NOT found in a Conceptual Data Model? (Choose 2)
A. Manyto many relationships
B. Relationship joins

C. Foreign identifiers
D. Domains
E. Primary identifiers
F. Data items
Answer: B,C
9.Which artifact can NOT be modeled in a Logical Data Model?
A. Entity
B. Attribute C.
Data item D.
300-170 exam 
Answer: C
10.Which of the following is FALSE about Model Generation?
A. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
B. New PDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
C. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing database
D. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing PDM
Answer: C
11.What are the ways in which you can enforce referential integrity? (Choose 2)
A. Use a Primary Key Constraint
B. Use a Foreign Key Constraint
C. Use Application Code
D. Use a Domain
300-170 dumps 
Answer: B,C
12.A(n) relationship is a relationship between an entity and itself.

A. Replica B.
Reflexive C.
D. Associative
Answer: B
13.Which one of the following Inheritance Generation modes will cause attributes to be lost when
generating a Physical Data Model?
A. Generate parent
B. Generate children, Inherit only primary attributes
C. Generate children, Inherit all attributes
D. Generate parent and children, Inherit all attributes
300-170 pdf 
Answer: B
14.A primary key must meet the following conditions. (Choose 2)
A. Be unique
B. Contain coded information
C. Have a definite value
D. Be a surrogate key
E. Be clustered
F. Be accessible to the table creator
Answer: A,C
15.What are some of the characteristics of a Domain? (Choose 2)
A. Can be used to define a standard data type, data length, and data precision
B. Can be used to define standard attributes of an entity
C. Can only be used within a Conceptual Data Model

D. Can provide consistency across common attributes
E. Cannot be modified once associated to an attribute
300-170 vce Answer: A,D
16.In which PowerDesigner model are stored procedures supported?
A. Conceptual Data Model
B. Logical Data Model C.
Physical Data Model D.
Requirements Model
Answer: C
17.What statement is FALSE about triggers?
A. Implemented in a physical database as internally stored code
B. Can be used to improve performance
C. Automatically invoked based upon insert, update, or delete actions taken against a table
D. Initiated directly from an application program
300-170 exam Answer: D
18.Where do you define Trigger Template items? (Choose 2)
A. Model ? Triggers
B. Database ? Generate Database
C. Tools ? Model Options
D. Tables property sheet, Triggers tab
E. Database ? Edit Current DBMS
Answer: A,E
19.Physical Data Model macros can be embedded into and to
generate SQL statements. (Choose 2)
A. Template Items
B. Table via the Script tab
C. Business Rules
D. Procedures
E. View Queries
F. Extended Objects
300-170 dumps Answer: A,D
20.Which of the following are TRUE about a given report template? (Choose 2)
A. Can only be used for a specific model type
B. Can be saved within the model
C. Cannot be built for a multi-model report
D. Cannot be built from more than one section
Answer: A,D
21.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
300-170 pdf Answer: C
22.Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A
23.Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
300-170 vce 
Answer: A
24.What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Given router interfaces,,, and on a
Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the following command: config ospf routerid
Correct Answer: D
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan
C. config ipaddress vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress corporate vlan
300-170 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
26.VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
300-170 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1 What is one example of typical business requirements that are driving the design of installed base data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. virtualization
C. greater collaboration
D. physical space
Answer: C
QUESTION: 2 What documents are not typically an output that is deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. troubleshooting procedures
D. migration plan

Answer: C
QUESTION: 3 What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources

Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 What is a typical output of the design planning phase that characterizes an existing data center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. Layer 2 default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 6 Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B, E, G
QUESTION: 7 Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users

Answer: C, F, H
QUESTION: 8 Which protocols are Cisco recommended for connecting the main data center to a remote data center?
C. FabricPath
D. vPC

Answer: B
QUESTION: 9 When migrating an existing data center network to a unified fabric network, which transitions should you expect to see?
A. IOS to Nexus networking equipment
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Chanel to FCoE
Answer: C
QUESTION: 10 Which three protocols are effective in minimizing the use of STP in the data center design? (Choose three.)
B. vPC
C. vDC
D. FabricPath
E. 802.1ad

Answer: A, B, D
In a medium size Data Center, which three routing protocols would you use?
(Choose Three.)

D. RIPv2

Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 12 Layer 2 forwarding of multicast traffic with vPC is based on which modified protocol?
C. Auto-RP
D. IGMP snooping
E. Destination-based trees

Answer: D
QUESTION: 13 Which protocol is required in order for FabricPath to support switches or hosts that dual-attach through classical Ethernet?
B. vPC

Answer: B
QUESTION: 14 In a geographically diverse data center environment, which high-availability feature allows data centers to simultaneously serve the same content to all sites?

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15 Given the requirements, which Cisco Nexus product is Cisco recommended? A rich feature set that makes it well suited to top-of-rack, middle-of-row, or end- of-row access- layer applications. Data center racks with standards-based 1 and 10 Gigabit Ethernet and FCoE features, and virtual machine awareness features that allow IT departments to consolidate networks. A combination of high port density, lossless Ethernet, wire-speed performance, and extremely low latency that makes the switch family well suited to meet the growing demand for 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
A. 1000v
B. 1010
C. 2000
D. 3000
E. 4000
F. 5500

Answer: F
Which three control plane operations are used by vPC? (Choose three.)

A. ARP cache
B. MAC address learning
C. CGMP snooping

Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 17 In the data center architecture, which layer performs load balancing between data centers?
A. Core layer
B. Access layer
C. Aggregation layer
D. Collapse core

Answer: A
QUESTION: 18 Which innovation in the Cisco NX-OS Software brings an entirely new Layer 2 data plane by encapsulating the frames entering the device with a header that consists of a routable source and destination address?
C. Routing

Answer: A
QUESTION: 19 When designing a data center environment with ECMP and IP routing between the data center network segments, which design would be the most suitable?
A. Layer 3 data center core
B. Layer 3 data center core with Layer 2 extension
C. Layer 2 data center core
D. Layer 2 data center core with Layer 3 extension

Answer: A
What design will effect traffic flows in the Data Center Core layer?

A. The domain needed to extend a VLAN from one switch to another is determined at the core layer
B. With a 3 layer (Access, Aggregation, Core) design the Layer 2 domain must be configured across the Core for VLAN extension to occur
C. Extending Layer 2 through a core causes path blocking by STP and has the risk of uncontrollable broadcast issues related to extending Layer 2 domains, and therefore should be avoided
D. Server-to-server traffic typically travels between aggregation modules by way of the core, while backup and replication traffic remains within the aggregation module

Answer: C
QUESTION: 21 When designing a collapsed core data center, which two technologies are used to virtualize the core and aggregation layers? (Choose two.)

Answer: D, E

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