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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 647

Pass4itsure 300-135 Dumps Related Exams

  • 300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks

Pass4itsure 300-135 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Wireless LAN
  • WAASSE
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
  • VPN and Security
  • Unified Communications
  • Substation Automation
  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (300-135 TSHOOT) version is a 2-hour test with 15-25 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks and use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting.

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-135 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-18)

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site- to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is a protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices, in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the SNMP agent address of neighboring devices. This feature enables applications to send SNMP
queries to neighboring devices. In this case, the line protocol is up which means that the physical layer is operational (layer 1) but the data link layer is not.

QUESTION 8
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
300-135 exam Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp
neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
300-135 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 15, 2017
Q&As: 118

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 300-135 DUMPS EXAM Q&AS:

25. In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, .
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
300-135 exam Answer: B
26. In a Behind the Switch configuration, the VCS carries out instructions from .
A. IVR Server only, in the form of IVR ServerXML
B. T-Server only, in the form of TLib Events
C. Web Server, in the form of VoiceXML
D. IVR Server client, in the form of XML
Answer: C
27. When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type – from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
300-135 dumps Answer: A
28. To bring up the 9810 listener window in EMPS you need to expand Server, CORE, click on
<ServerName> and then follow which links?
A. Right-click on the Server and view
B. Click link for Network Management GUI to open the 9810 listener
C. Click the link for Server Explorer to open the 9810 listener
D. There are no available links for the 9810 listener window in the EMPS.
Answer: B
29. After WatchDog is started, GVP.ini file contains .
A. no configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes
B. application specific configuration information such as DNIS
C. the configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes, such as default log levels
D. only Dialogic configuration information
300-135 pdf Answer: C

30. When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will .
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

31.If a user is denied read permission on a folder, which of the following is true?
A. The folder is not visible in the Navigator window in any PowerCenter client.
B. The folder becomes a shared folder.
C. The folder has a red “X” over it.
D. The folder is grayed out in the Navigator window for any PowerCenter client.
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
32.Which is a type of connection object you can create with PowerCenter?
A. FTP
B. TCP/IP
C. Partitioned
D. Dynamic database
Correct Answer: A
33.What needs to be done to inherit domain privileges”
A. Use domain folders.
B. Use domain groups.
C. Set the privileges on a set-vice level.
D. Set the privileges on a service or group level.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: B
34.When copying a folder across repositories, which statement is true?
A. The origin repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
B. The destination repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
C. PowerCenter will automatically create and delete XML files to facilitate transferring the objects.
D. The origin folder must first be exported as XML.
Correct Answer: B
35.The Service Manager runs which functions on the Master Gateway Node in the domain?
A. Workflows, Configuration, and Alerting.
B. Security, Web Services, and Alerting.
C. Security, Configuration, and Alerting.
D. Web Services, Configuration, and Licensing.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
36.If you attempt to delete a user who is the owner of a repository folder, what will happen?
A. The folder is deleted.
B. The folder becomes owned by Administrator.
C. You will be prompted to assign another owner to the folder.
D. This operation is not allowed.
Correct Answer: B
37.The IEEE 802.11 Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) service is capable of performing what
functions? (Choose 2)
A. Establishing an interference baseline on all 2.4 GHz channels
B. Using modulation switching techniques to avoid interfering with radar systems
C. Testing channels for radar before using a channel and while operating in a channel
D. Suspending operations on a channel with high IEEE 802.11 co-channel interference
E. Requesting and reporting of measurements in the current and other channels
300-135 pdf Answer: C,E
38.Which statements regarding an IEEE 802.11 Channel Switch Announcement frame are true?
(Choose 2)
A. Channel Switch Announcement frames use the Action frame body format.
B. Channel Switch Announcement frames are the only place where the Channel Switch
Announcement element is found.
C. Channel Switch Announcement frames are transmitted and retransmitted on a channel until all
associated STAs successfully move to the new channel.

D. Channel Switch Announcement elements may be carried in Beacon management frames.
E. In an infrastructure BSS, Channel Switch Announcement frames may be transmitted by either
the AP or an associated STA.
Answer: A,D
39.An HT STA does not receive an ACK for a first-attempt data frame that it transmitted. Assuming
this STA is not using BlockAcks in this case, what happens to the HT STA’s EDCA contention
window?
A. The slot time within the contention window decreases by 50%.
B. It varies because the backoff algorithm is random.
C. The contention window approximately doubles in size.
D. The contention window is not affected by failed Data frame delivery.
E. The contention window is immediately closed, and the frame is retransmitted.
300-135 vce Answer: C
40.What two IEEE 802.11 entities may be used to separate successful transmissions within an EDCA
TXOP? (Choose 2)
A. SIFS
B. AIFS
C. ACK
D. CAP
E. PIFS
F. EIFS
G. RIFS
Answer: A,G
41.Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
42.How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
43.Although you can specify sequence numbers for different ACL entries, the Summit 1i switch checks
incoming traffic on a match with the ACL entries in the order of their time in configuration
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
44.What is the meaning of the IEEE 802.3 SNAP field in an Ethernet frame?
A. The SNAP field allows you to support Ethernet II frame, it contains the ether typevalue.
B. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate token-ring traffic
C. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate FDDI traffic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
45.DVMRP is similar to OSPF in that it is Link State based.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
46.Traffic involved with Policy based QoS is handled by the switch its CPU.
A. true
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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