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QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. Duo
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Stealthwatch
D. Cisco Security Connector
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: BC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en_ae/products/security/portfolio.html#~stickynav=2

QUESTION 2
Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile
B. Cloud
C. Email
D. Web
E. Endpoints
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
What are two ways Cisco addresses customers\\’ growing business needs? (Choose two.)
A. Multi/hybrid cloud platforms
B. Highly-scalable DC platforms
C. Bulletproof NGFW appliances
D. Consolidated tracking and reporting
E. Multiple solution deployment choices
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their business?

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Cisco 700-751 Exam Practice Test Questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true regarding Next Generation Firewall?
A. Providing the fastest threat detection in the industry
B. Blocking malicious destinations before a connection is ever established
C. Facilitating critical protection from constant, dynamic, and rapidly evolving web threats
D. Integrating deep visibility, preeminent intelligence and superior protection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user
management.
B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a
distributed enterprise.
C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.
D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How does Catalyst Access Switching provide two improved workforce experiences? (Choose two.)
A. Flexible workspace
B. Manual configuration of end devices
C. Core data center deployments
D. Internet of things, such as flexible workspace (open office, branch office, conference and classrooms)
E. Controller-based management
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which are two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.)
A. Improve Application Performance
B. Delivered from the cloud
C. Subscription-based model
D. Provides protection when on the VPN
E. Simple manual installation of hardware
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which are two features of the Cisco 1100 or 4000 series ISR router product lines? (Choose two.)
A. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM
B. Advanced LTE backup connectivity offering network resiliency for business continuity
C. Cloud-based hardware management
D. Limited connectivity options
E. 50 to 200 Mbps WAN connections with rich branch services – the same services found at HQ
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which is a key solution for a Cisco small to medium-sized business router to enable the transport industry?

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Key topics (Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies)

  1. Deploy and configure infrastructure (40-45%)
  2. Implement workloads and security (25-30%)
  3. Create and deploy apps (5-10%)
  4. Implement authentication and secure data (5-10%)
  5. Develop for the cloud and for Azure storage (15-20%)

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QUESTION 1
You plan to migrate an on-premises Hyper-V environment to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. The Hyper-V
environment is managed by using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).

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Microsoft Azure Developer Associate AZ-204 PExamractice Test (With a total of 13 Practice Questions)

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have an app that stores player scores for an online game. The app stores data in Azure tables using a class named
PlayerScore as the table entity. The table is populated with 100,000 records. You are reviewing the following section of
code that is intended to retrieve 20 records where the player score exceeds 15,000. (Line numbers are included for
reference only.)

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Certhand AZ-204 exam questions-q1-3

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a
Service Bus queue.
A rule already exists to scale up the App Service when the average queue length of unprocessed and valid queue
messages is greater than 1000.
You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not
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QUESTION 1
Can the Webex Administrator restrict external communications including sending messages?
A. Yes, the Webex Administrator can set policy restricting users from sending messages to external organizations.
B. No, the Webex Administrator is unable to restrict any communications.
C. Yes, only if everyone agrees.
D. No, this configuration is not yet available and needs to be developed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes Webex Edge Audio?
A. Webex Edge Audio uses the existing Cisco UCM and Expressway products to pass the audio traffic over the Internet
to the Webex meeting.
B. Webex Edge Audio only works with ISDN lines.
C. Webex Edge Audio requires Webex Edge Video Mesh to function correctly.
D. Webex Audio is limited to 10 participants.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which buying model for Meetings in the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan is valid?
A. Meetings are not available on the Collaboration Flex Plan
B. Named User only
C. Enterprise Agreement only
D. Enterprise Agreement, Active User and Named User
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which TLS version(s) are supported by Webex Teams applications?

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Please select the incorrect statement in context of “Online Privacy”:
A. A person\\’s act of `Selective disclosure” (of themselves) in an online environment
B. A person\\’s concern over usage of information that were collected during an online activity
C. A person\\’s control over collection of information during an online activity
D. A person\\’s concern on the software licensing agreement they sign with any organization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Effective 2013, HIPAA Omnibus rule applies to which of the following?
A. Covered Entities only
B. Business Associates only
C. Covered Entities and Business Associates
D. Federal Health Bodies only
Correct Answer: C
The final Omnibus Rule becomes effective on March 26, 2013. Covered entities and Business Associates Reference:
http://www.hipaasurvivalguide.com/hipaa-omnibus-rule.php

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Indian constitution does not expressly provide for the “right to privacy” to its citizens. However, there were various
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subsumed under Article 21 of the constitution of India. Article 21 inter alia provides and protects the
__________________.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following options is not set in the Master Policy?
A. Password Expiration Time
B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM
C. Password Complexity
D. The use of “One-Time Passwords”
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Is it possible to modify the CyberArk Vault Audit Log?
A. Yes, a Vault administrator can modify the Audit log
B. No, the audit trail is tamper proof and cannot be edited, not even by Master
C. Yes, but only the Master user can modify the Audit log
D. Yes, a Vault administrator can edit the Audit log but only with explicit permission from CyberArk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of levels of authorizations you can set up in Dual Control?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In order to retrieve data from the vault a user MUST use an interface provided by CyberArk.

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Exam Code: 70-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 220

Related Exams

70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange
70-342 Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
70-410 Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012
70-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-285 Designing a Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 Organization
70-293 Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure
70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

Related Certifications

Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Microsoft Specialist
Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Microsoft Silverlight 4
MCSDMCSA2003
MCSA
MCPD

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A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the datetimeoffset data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No: 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that containsthe SourceID.

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QUESTION 11
The software contained in a software package can be installed by ________ or by ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. using the following syntax on the command line: installer -pkg <package_name> -target <target_volume>
B. opening the package contents and dragging the contents to / (root of the volume)
C. expanding the package and dragging the contents to the applications folder
D. double-clicking on the package to open it in the Installer application
E. expanding the package and running the installer contained inside

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
When using Disk Utility to create a disk image from a model system volume, you need free space on your destination volume that is equal to ________.
A. the data size on the source volume
B. at least two times the data size on the source volume
C. at least three times the data size on the source volume
D. at least four times the data size on the source volume

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
In Mac OS X v10.4, disk images provide ________.
A. extra disk space for running BSD scripts
B. a way to bring systems quickly back to a clean state
C. a means of tracking changes made to startup volumes
D. a means of compressing applications while they are being run
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A package receipt ________.

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