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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 41 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view 70-346 exam content.
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Question No : 42  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
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Question No : 44 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 45
A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely
used to generate these data points.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. Data Sampling
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT
organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?
A. Developing Test Plans
B. Conducting Design Inspections
C. Developing Test Processes
D. Performing Acceptance Testing
E. Performing Regression Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?
A. Automatic
B. Auditors
C. Peer Reviews
D. Supervisory
E. Third Party
70-346 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:
A. The documentation is consistent with the software execution
B. The documentation is understandable
C. Users will be adequately trained in the software
D. It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
A snapshot of an organization’s security program at a certain time is a:
A. Security Model
B. Security Baseline
C. Security Risk
D. Security Test Procedure
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the correct definition of a policy?
A. The intended future state of the organization
B. Managerial control over processes
C. The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met
D. Managerial desires and intents concerning processes and products
E. A standard that is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
B. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
C. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
D. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
E. None of the above
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly.
This statement shows relationship between:
A. Plan and Do Processes
B. Plan and Check Processes
C. Do and Check Processes
D. Do and Act Processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
To measure the customer’s perception of the quality of a software system, what type of measure would
you use?
A. Objective
B. Subjective
C. Process Measure
D. Process Variation
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to
penetrate, is called a:
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Control
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?
A. Developing a security budget
B. Determining the effectiveness of the security program
C. Determine where security training is necessary
D. Developing a security policy
E. As a basis for organizing a security function
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-699
Exam Name: Windows Server 2003, MCSA Security Specialization Skills Update
Q&As: 122

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QUESTION: 11
Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces
in 5 virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100

70-699 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0.
The PVC should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format.
Which command accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose
two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 15
Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
70-699 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 17
In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to
advertise customer networks into the provider’s IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
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Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 19
Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
70-699 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a
large subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with an external DHCP server in a Bridged 1483
network?

A. It maintains DHCP leases on behalf of subscribers.
B. It initiates DHCP requests on behalf of subscribers.
C. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server; you must configure static host routes.
D. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server and inserts host routes into its routing table.
70-699 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A Bridged 1483 service offering is grouping DSL users into a large subnet. What are three
characteristics of this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. It burns IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. A group of PVCs is a subnet.
D. It provides a numbered IP address to the ERX.
E. It provides an IP unnumbered address to ERX.
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION: 23
In a Routed 1483 network which method of routing is typically employed on the DSL router?
A. static
B. OSPF
C. RIPv1
D. RIPv2
70-699 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with subscriber IP addresses assigned by an external
DHCP server?
A. It monitors messages from the external server and updates the routing table as needed.

B. It maintains the leases for the DHCP server and reassigns addresses to new subscribers.
C. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and makes the address available when the subscriber stops responding.
D. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and removes the host route when the subscriber stops
responding.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 25
Which two static routes are typically configured on your router when a Routed 1483 network is
grouping ATM PVCs into a large subnet? (Choose two.)
A. host route
B. default route
C. customer network
D. ISP’s routing domain
70-699 vce 
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 26
Which configuration command represents a static customer route in a Routed 1483 network?
A. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.10.1.2
B. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 atm 6/0.33
C. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.10.1.2
D. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 atm 6/0.33
Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
Which RADIUS configuration command implements a primary/backup scenario for multiple
servers?
A. radius algorithm direct
B. radius algorithm backup
C. radius algorithm primary
D. radius algorithm round-robin
70-699 exam 
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files 070-489 dumps.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You
may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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070-489 exam Correct Answer:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once,
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QUESTION NO: 11
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a cluster
running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
070-489 dumps Answer: D,F
Note: Namenode stores modifications to the filesystem as a log appended to a
native filesystem file (edits). When a Namenode starts up, it reads HDFS state from an image file
(fsimage) and then applies edits from edits log file. It then writes new HDFS state to (fsimage) and
starts normal operation with an empty edits file. Since namenode merges fsimage and edits files
only during start up, edits file could get very large over time on a large cluster. Another side effect
of larger edits file is that next restart of Namenade takes longer.
The secondary namenode merges fsimage and edits log periodically and keeps edits log size with
in a limit. It is usually run on a different machine than the primary Namenode since its memory
requirements are on the same order as the primary namemode. The secondary namenode is
started by bin/start-dfs.sh on the nodes specified in conf/masters file.
QUESTION NO: 12
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the
DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
070-489 pdf Answer: A
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system begins replicating the blocks that were
stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be dead and
any data it had to be gone as well.Based on the block reports it had been receiving from the dead
node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along with the node and can make the
decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.It will also consult the Rack Awareness
data in order to maintain the two copies in one rack, one copy in another rack replica rule when
deciding which Data Node should receive a new copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)

A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system 070-489 dumps  begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode. Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How NameNode Handles data node failures?

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Exam Code: 70-331
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
Q&As: 226

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QUESTION 1
Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre- deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC’s existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company’s security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
70-331 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose 4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
70-331 practice exam 
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.

You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent
users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013.
You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio
Team System project file.
Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated
content databases for the storage of personal site collections.
You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites.
What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database
to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to
25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database
to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to
5,000.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm.
You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site
collection.
What permission level should you configure?

A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
70-331 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index.
Users report that search results are too broad.
You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results.
Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers
that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the
application server.
You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message
attachments in libraries.
You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the
entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
70-331 certification 
Correct Answer: BF

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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 219

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8.HOTSPOT
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Lync Online.
The environment includes the domains shown in the following image, and is configured as shown in the
exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)

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Lync is not deployed in a hybrid configuration. An employee requires specific Lync communication
settings. The employee’s account is configured as shown in the following image.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each
correct selection is worth one point
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9.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Management has requested a report of all
Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync-enabled employees and their devices. You need to generate a report that
contains employee display names and device types.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate
option from each list in the answer area.

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10.HOTSPOT
A company has an on-premises deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 with Service Pack 3.The
company is migrating to Office 365. During the migration, users must be able to see availability
information between the on-premises deployment and Office 365. You need to identify the appropriate
mailbox migration strategy to use.
Which migration strategies are supported for this scenario? To answer, drag the appropriate answer
choices to the correct 070-347 dumps targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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11.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees share documents with internal and
external users on Microsoft SharePoint Online sites. User1 inadvertently shares a link to Document1 with
an external user named Customer1. You need to remove access to Document1 from Customer1.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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12.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. A user wants to share a link to a presentation with
a salesperson. The salesperson will share the link with potential customers.
You have the following requirements:
– Make a read-only version of the presentation available to anonymous users.
– Notify the salesperson by email when the presentation is available.
You need to configure the sharing settings.
How should you configure the sharing settings? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog
box in the answer area.

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070-347 dumps

13. A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers’ SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the 070-347 pdf 
ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC
14. Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B
15. When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new 070-347 vce application, which three metrics are necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

16. Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC
17. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)

A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
070-347 exam Answer: CDE

18. A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization’s email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D
19. A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
070-347 dumps Answer:AD
20. A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio

E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD
21. When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
070-347 pdf Answer: BCE
22. To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD
23. Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager

C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
070-347 vce Answer:AB
24. In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB
25. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
070-347 exam Answer:AB
26. Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups

D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 117

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QUESTION 1
An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin authoritarian, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory
settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its
configuration from a backup (c) Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the
right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any
Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk
back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.
A. a only
B. a & b only
C. a & c only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
 70-698 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel
(e.g. SSL tunneling)
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A. http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoat.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which ProxySG technology uses the data processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
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A. Blue Coat Reporter
B. MACH5
C. BCWF
D. ProxySG Services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) IWA
(b) RADIUS
(C) LDAP
(d) TACACS+
A. a, b & d only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, b &c only
D. All of the above
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) All
(b) Any
(c) Explicit
(d) Transparent
A. a, c & d only
B. a, b & c only
C. b, c &d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Administrator attempts to access Management console (b) user attempts to access the internet
(c) Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d) User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A. All of the above
B. b, c &d only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & c only

70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A ProxySG is designed to do which of the following? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance
through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content
stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same time.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data

B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
D. HTTP POST data
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 07, 2017
Q&As: 49

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QUESTION NO: 16
Which is the best power saving mode to use while waiting to obtain a lock on a semaphore?
A. Dormant
B. Standby
C. Shutdown
D. Deep sleep
70-742 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
Which privileged mode can kernel code use to get direct access to the User mode registers R13
and R14?

A. Abort mode
B. System mode
C. Hypeivisor mode
D. Supervisor mode
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
An Advanced SIMD intrinsic has the prototype:
int16x4_t vmul_n_s16(int16x4_t a, int16_t b);
How many multiplications does this intrinsic compute?
A. 1 multiplication
B. 4 multiplications
C. 16 multiplications
D. 64 multiplications
70-742 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following memory attributes, specified in a translation table entry, could be used to
protect a page containing a read-sensitive peripheral from speculative instruction fetches?
A. S (Secure)
B. nG (non-Global)
C. xN (Execute Never)
D. AP (Access Permission)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
An ARMv7 implementation might include the VFPv4-D32 floating point extension. What does the
’32’ indicate?
A. The width of the datapath in bits
B. The number of double precision floating point registers implemented
C. The number of bits of data that can be loaded or stored at once
D. The number of integer operations that can be performed simultaneously
70-742 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
It is common to declare structures as “packed” in order to minimize data memory size. Which of
the following accurately describes the effect of this?
A. Members will be stored as bit-fields
B. Data Aborts will be disabled for all structure accesses
C. Structure members will be re-ordered so that the smallest are first
D. Multi-byte members are not required to be naturally aligned
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
When debugging an embedded Linux system, which one of the following techniques can be used
to halt a single user thread, while allowing other threads to continue to run during the debug
process?
A. Halting a single user thread in an embedded Linux system is not possible
B. Use the Linux kernel printk() function to output messages to the console
C. Connect a Linux-aware JTAG debugger to the target, which allows single-stepping of the code
D. Connect a debugger running on an external host device to an instance of gdbserver running on
the target, using Ethernet
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following processors includes a Generic Interrupt Controller as a standard
component?
A. Cortex-A8
B. Cortex-M3
C. Cortex-R4F
D. Cortex-A9 MPCore
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Assume a multicore processor with coherency management based on the MESI protocol. When a
core changes the contents of a shared cache line, what is the final status of that line in the local
cache?
A. Modified
B. Exclusive
C. Shared
D. Invalid
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
How is data written into NOR flash memory?
A. Data can only be written once, when the flash device is being manufactured
B. Writing data to the memory locations using store instruction, as you would with RAM
C. Reading and writing specific registers following a device-specific procedure
D. Using an external programming device, which utilizes an ultra-violet lamp to alter the data
stored on the device

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Under which of the following data-sharing scenarios would cache maintenance operations be
necessary?
A. Sharing data with another thread running on the same core
B. Sharing data with another process running on the same core
C. Sharing data with an external device
D. Sharing data with another CPU in an SMP system
70-742 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
A Just-In-Time compiler writes instructions to a region of memory that is configured using a
writeback cache strategy. For the locations that have been written, what is the MINIMUM cache
maintenance that MUST be performed before the new instructions can be reliably executed?
A. Instruction cache clean only
B. Instruction cache invalidate only
C. Data cache clean and instruction cache invalidate
D. Data cache invalidate and instruction cache invalidate
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following statements best describes a Board Support Package (BSP)?
A. PC interface hardware for configuring a boot monitor
B. Hardware specific source code needed for operating system support
C. A working port of Linux for a specific hardware platform
D. Debugging hardware and software supplied with a development board
70-742 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC) architecture, which of the following ID numbers are
reserved for interrupts that are private to a CPU interface?
A. ID0-ID7
B. ID0-ID15
C. ID0-ID31
D. ID0-ID63
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
What is the value of r0 after executing the following instruction sequence?
MOV r0, #200
MOV r5, #1
STR r3, [r0, r5, LSL#3]!
A. 200
B. 201
C. 204
D. 208
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following properties is a required characteristic of a Symmetric Multiprocessing
(SMP) system?

A. All processors have the same view of memory
B. An even number of processors is included
C. All processors run in the same power state
D. All processors switch between operating system tasks in lock-step
Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
The software contained in a software package can be installed by ________ or by ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. using the following syntax on the command line: installer -pkg <package_name> -target <target_volume>
B. opening the package contents and dragging the contents to / (root of the volume)
C. expanding the package and dragging the contents to the applications folder
D. double-clicking on the package to open it in the Installer application
E. expanding the package and running the installer contained inside

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
When using Disk Utility to create a disk image from a model system volume, you need free space on your destination volume that is equal to ________.
A. the data size on the source volume
B. at least two times the data size on the source volume
C. at least three times the data size on the source volume
D. at least four times the data size on the source volume

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
In Mac OS X v10.4, disk images provide ________.
A. extra disk space for running BSD scripts
B. a way to bring systems quickly back to a clean state
C. a means of tracking changes made to startup volumes
D. a means of compressing applications while they are being run
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A package receipt ________.
A. stores license information
B. contains information about an installed package
C. stores an archive of the data files received from a package
D. contains a list of packages installed within a set time parameter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When installing a custom installation package, the resource script reflight runs after VolumeCheck and InstallationCheck, and ________.
A. allows the user to select the destination volume
B. verifies that the installation or upgrade can take place
C. determines whether the installation is new or an upgrade
D. runs before all other scripts for new installations and upgrades

Correct Answer: D  cisco 210-260 dumps QUESTION 16
In Mac OS X v10.4, what information about an installed package do the .bom files contain?
A. list of files installed by package, proper permissions for each file, file sizes, and file checksums
B. file source locations, file sizes, target volume(s), and list of frameworks used during installation
C. list of files installed by package, package creation and modification dates, user account authenticated for installation
D. list of files installed by package, list of resource forks installed by package, list of source files in package, list of scripts run by package

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
If you know the Open Firmware password for an Apple Macintosh computer, you can reset it by ________.
A. clearing the parameter RAM (Command+Option+p+r at startup)
B. changing the Master Password in the Security pane of System Preferences
C. starting up the computer from the installation disc and using the Reset Password utility in the Installer
D. starting up the computer into Open Firmware (Command+Option+o+f at startup) and using the reset commands

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
You have:
-a FireWire drive with Mac OS X installed that contains a copy of a model disk image -a target computer that is currently started from its hard drive
To deploy the model image to the target computer, plug the FireWire drive into the computer and ________.
A. execute the asr command in Terminal, specifying the model image as the source, and the local hard drive as the target.
B. restart from any external volume. Drag the model image from the FireWire drive to the local hard drive. When prompted, choose Restore.
C. restart from the FireWire drive. Open Terminal and run the asr command, specifying the model image as the source, and the local hard drive as the target.
D. shut down, then start up with the T key pressed. Once started, open Disk Utility and restore the model image as the source and the local hard drive as the target.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You have an application that must be installed to / (root of the volume).
However, you wish to install the application on a computer that is in Target Disk mode, and the target volume is in /Volumes. Identify a possible solution in Mac OS X v10.4.
A. Copy the volume from /Volumes to /.
B. Rename the target volume so that it matches the name of the root (/) volume.
C. Identify the files that were installed during testing and create a custom installation package that installs the files in the correct locations.
D. Create a disk image of the target volume, install the application, and restore the disk image to the
target volume without erasing the existing contents. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
How can you prevent a user from starting a computer from a DVD, CD-ROM, or FireWire drive?
A. Explicitly select a startup disk in System Preferences.
B. Enable the open firmware password on the computer.
C. Set up Classic to use a System Folder on a disk image.
D. Format your designated startup disk without Mac OS 9 drivers.

Correct Answer: B

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70-410 Dumps Questions And Answers For Microsoft

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70-410 dumps

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You need to modify the SAM account name of Group1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User

Answer: G

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?

A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups

Answer: A  210-065 exam

 

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a single virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can manage the virtual machine settings of VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?

A. Server Operators
B. Administrators
C. Power Users
D. Hyper-V Administrators

Answer: D

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Your company has a remote office that contains 600 client computers on a single subnet. You need to select a subnet mask for the network that will support all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the number of unused addresses. Which subnet mask should you select?

A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128

Answer : A

 

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server 1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer : D

 

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules. Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C. You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?

A. Modify the action of the existing rules.
B. Create a new rule.
C. Add an exception to the existing rules.
D. Delete an existing rule.

Answer: B

Explanation:

AppLocker is a feature that advances the functionality of the Software Restriction Policies feature. AppLocker contains new capabilities and extensions that reduce administrative overhead and help administrators control how users can access and use files, such as executable files, scripts, Windows Installer files, and DLLs. By using AppLocker, you can:

Define rules based on file attributes that persist across application updates, such as the publisher name (derived from the digital signature), product name, file name, and file version. You can also create rules based on the file path and hash.

Assign a rule to a security group or an individual user. Create exceptions to rules. For example, you can create a rule that allows all users to run all Windows binaries except the Registry Editor (Regedit.exe). Use audit-only mode to deploy the policy and understand its impact before enforcing it. . Create rules on a staging server, test them, export them to your production environment, and then import them into a Group Policy Object. Simplify creating and managing AppLocker rules by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets for AppLocker. AppLocker default rules AppLocker allows you to generate default rules for each of the rule types.

Executable default rule types:
Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all applications. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Windows folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Program Filesfolder. Windows Installer default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run digitally signed Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run all Windows Installer files located in the Windows\Installer folder. Script
default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all scripts. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Program Files folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Windows folder. DLL default rule types:( this on can affect system performance ) Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all DLLs. Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Program Files folder.

Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Windows folder. You can apply AppLocker rules to individual users or to a group of users. If you apply a rule to a group of users, all users in that group are affected by that rule. If you need to allow a subset of a user group to use an application, you can create a special rule for that subset. For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run the Windows operating system, but it does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as Help Desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.

To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Help Desk user group: “Allow Help Desk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Help Desk user group to run

 

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[PDF & VCE] Microsoft 70-331 Exam For Free Download

Exam Code: 70-331 exam
Published: August 26, 2016
Languages: English
Audiences:IT professionals, Developers
Technology: SQL Server
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA

70-331 exam

Many of you are preparing for the Microsoft 70-331 certification exam. Well gird your loins my friends. Microsoft presents a list of skills that need to be mastered in order to be considered prepared for that exam. As a student, you want to consider these a checklist that should be examined with a critical, self-examining eye. The Exam is an MCSE level exam, which means that the Server Administration prerequisites of an MCSA are assumed for this class. Even if you are not taking the exam, these are the skills that keep you from having to install SharePoint multiple times or hire an outside consultant to fix your mistakes!

Exam takers can expect multiple questions based upon a detailed case study. In these questions you will need to select the best answer using your understanding of the scenario and its objectives. Sometimes you might be given examples of 352-001 pdf and to accomplish a given task correctly you’ll need to put them in the correct order.  Or hot areas where you have to click the appropriate area in Central Admin to accomplish something. Case studies are separate sections of the test that don’t allow for the ability to return to previous case studies.

For each of the major sections of this class you will find a checklist version of the preparation skills you need to master along with test tips, suggested web resource links on core technologies and details that are often known only to the subject matter experts. (We hope all links will still be available at the URLs given). In addition, bolster your skills – keep learning. Use your course sessions, your labs, and practice tests. Build your own lab environment to “make it and break it” on your own. You can learn much by using the free SharePoint Foundation server and using a trial version of Microsoft 70-331 dumps, or downloading a trial VHD that you could install on Windows 8, Server 2012, or the free Hyper-V server installation. Read Microsoft’s documentation as well as the pain points described in blog articles on the same subject by professionals like yourself.

70-331 exam

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft 70-331 pdf.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft 70-331 vce or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact http://www.lead4sure.com/70-331.html

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