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Question No : 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
070-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
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You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No : 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
070-461 vce Answer: C

 

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Exam Name: TS: Developing Business Process and Integration Solutions by Using Microsoft BizTalk Server 2010
Q&As: 50

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QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution processes XML messages. The solution uses a single Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity and BAM tracking profile to extract content values from the message. Some of the values are bound to a receive port when the message is received. The other values are bound to a send port when the message is transmitted. At run time you find out that instead of one, two records are created in the BAM database for each processed message. One record contains only the values bound to the receive port. The second record contains only the values bound to the send port. You need to ensure that only one record is created that contains all the values for every message. What should you do?
A. Add a continuation and continuation ID to the tracking profile.
B. In the tracking profile, associate a unique value from the message payload to the ActivityID field.
C. Add a relationship to the tracking profile.
D. Add a document reference URL to the tracking profile.
70-595 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You are developing a BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration. In the Business Rule Composer, you create and save a policy named BonusPolicy that calculates an employees bonus based on year- to-date sales. You add a Call Rules shape to the orchestration. In the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, BonusPolicy is not listed in the menu of available policies to call. You need to make the policy available in the Orchestration Designer. What should you do?
A. Use the Rule Engine Deployment Wizard to export BonusPolicy.
B. In the Business Rules Composer, publish BonusPolicy.
C. In the Business Rules Composer, create a vocabulary with a definition that references the XML
schema used to evaluate BonusPolicy. Publish the vocabulary.
D. In the Business Rules Composer, use the Rule Store menu and load policies from the
BizTalkRuleEngineDb database.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A company tracks storage containers and integrates radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on BizTalk Server 2010. You define a custom tag event named ContainerArrivedEvent. You use the RFID manager to add the SqlServerSink component to the RFID process. You need to ensure that the SqlServerSink component logs only the custom tag event. What should you specify for the EventTypes property?
A. ContainerArrivedEvent
B. the fully qualified assembly name
C. All
D. Generic
70-595 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You use BizTalk Server 2010 to send EDI purchase orders to three trading partners. All of the trading partners use the same version of the purchase order message but define custom codes for the product types. The trading partners confirm purchase order acknowledgements by email instead of through response messages. The standard purchase order schemas included with BizTalk do not include the custom product type codes for each trading partner. You need to ensure that each trading partners purchase order schema is the schema that is used for orders that are sent to them. What should you do?
A. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
B. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For
  the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
C. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
D. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration calls a Business Rules Engine policy. This policy evaluates test scores to determine whether a candidate passes or fails. The BizTalk solution and the policy are deployed. Business users have decided that the value of a passing score should be raised from 60% to 70%. You need to adjust the policy to reflect the modified rule parameter. What should you do?
A. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then deploy the new version.
B. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then publish the new version.
C. Create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary and then publish the vocabulary.
D. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer and create a different policy with a new name. Then copy the currently deployed version to the new policy and modify to reflect the changed parameter. Deploy the new policy.
70-595 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution uses Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) to collect business information. The solution contains a BAM view named OrderView. After you deploy the view, application users can log on to the BAM portal but the OrderView view does not appear to them. You need to ensure that the BAM portal displays the OrderView view to application users. What should you do?
A. Use the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to add a subscription for the OrderView view.
C. Create a Microsoft SQL Server logins for the users on the server that hosts the BAMPrimaryImport database.
D. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to grant the users access to the OrderView view.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 45
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After performing a global gap analysis, the global HR team has identified an initiative to identify at
least three potential candidates for each Senior Director and VP position. In order to build
accountability for implementing this initiative, which of the following pieces of information is NOT
necessary?
A. Source of resources
B. Modes of communication
C. Benefit to the individual and organization
D. Developing S.M.A.R.T objectives
70-534 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following type of listening is occurring when a person is thinking. “Robert has some
legitimate points about the importance of quality and its importance in the company’s growth” while
listening to a ISO-9001 training session?

A. Active
B. Empathic
C. Informational
D. Evaluative
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is NOT a potential difference in benefits practices that Human Resources
should evaluate when developing a global compensation and benefits strategy?
A. Leaves of absences
B. Life insurance benefits
C. Medical coverage
D. Reasons for termination
70-534 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
A gap analysis is performed to measure the skill gap between current executives and the type of
executives in order to have a truly global workforce. Which of the following analysis techniques
does this measure utilize?
A. Ratio analysis
B. Criterion-referenced analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Norm-referenced analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
According to Claus, which of the following HR activities is considered an upstream function?
A. Compensation
B. Employee relations
C. HRIS
D. Staffing
70-534 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following represents a HR strategic activity?
A. Recruitment of staff for new R&D project
B. Implement annual performance appraisal programs
C. Designing an employment brand
D. Provide specific job training programs
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is NOT a potential reason for a company’s decision to fill a position through
an international assignment?
A. Assist in creating alignment with headquarters’ goals and objectives
B. Assist in developing a consistent culture across the corporation
C. Specific person is the most qualified candidate for the job
D. Lack of core skill sets for the position available in the area
70-534 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
In the European Union, many multinational companies have Work Councils that are created to
protect workers interests. A company with 50 employees working across the EU has decided to
create a Work Councils Recently, a court has fined the corporation for laying off 10% of the
employee population in one of its E.U sites without discussing it with its Work Councils. Which of
the following reasons represents the PRIMARY rationale for why this occurred?
A. The company did not follow the collective bargaining agreement
B. The company did not follow the voluntarily-provided program
C. The company did not follow the government-provided program
D. The company did not follow the government-mandated program
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 41 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
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Question No : 42  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
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Question No : 44 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 45
A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely
used to generate these data points.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. Data Sampling
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT
organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?
A. Developing Test Plans
B. Conducting Design Inspections
C. Developing Test Processes
D. Performing Acceptance Testing
E. Performing Regression Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?
A. Automatic
B. Auditors
C. Peer Reviews
D. Supervisory
E. Third Party
70-346 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:
A. The documentation is consistent with the software execution
B. The documentation is understandable
C. Users will be adequately trained in the software
D. It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
A snapshot of an organization’s security program at a certain time is a:
A. Security Model
B. Security Baseline
C. Security Risk
D. Security Test Procedure
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the correct definition of a policy?
A. The intended future state of the organization
B. Managerial control over processes
C. The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met
D. Managerial desires and intents concerning processes and products
E. A standard that is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
B. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
C. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
D. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
E. None of the above
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly.
This statement shows relationship between:
A. Plan and Do Processes
B. Plan and Check Processes
C. Do and Check Processes
D. Do and Act Processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
To measure the customer’s perception of the quality of a software system, what type of measure would
you use?
A. Objective
B. Subjective
C. Process Measure
D. Process Variation
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to
penetrate, is called a:
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Control
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?
A. Developing a security budget
B. Determining the effectiveness of the security program
C. Determine where security training is necessary
D. Developing a security policy
E. As a basis for organizing a security function
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: Windows Server 2003, MCSA Security Specialization Skills Update
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QUESTION: 11
Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces
in 5 virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100

70-699 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0.
The PVC should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format.
Which command accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose
two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 15
Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 17
In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to
advertise customer networks into the provider’s IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
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Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 19
Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
70-699 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a
large subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with an external DHCP server in a Bridged 1483
network?

A. It maintains DHCP leases on behalf of subscribers.
B. It initiates DHCP requests on behalf of subscribers.
C. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server; you must configure static host routes.
D. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server and inserts host routes into its routing table.
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Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A Bridged 1483 service offering is grouping DSL users into a large subnet. What are three
characteristics of this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. It burns IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. A group of PVCs is a subnet.
D. It provides a numbered IP address to the ERX.
E. It provides an IP unnumbered address to ERX.
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION: 23
In a Routed 1483 network which method of routing is typically employed on the DSL router?
A. static
B. OSPF
C. RIPv1
D. RIPv2
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with subscriber IP addresses assigned by an external
DHCP server?
A. It monitors messages from the external server and updates the routing table as needed.

B. It maintains the leases for the DHCP server and reassigns addresses to new subscribers.
C. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and makes the address available when the subscriber stops responding.
D. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and removes the host route when the subscriber stops
responding.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 25
Which two static routes are typically configured on your router when a Routed 1483 network is
grouping ATM PVCs into a large subnet? (Choose two.)
A. host route
B. default route
C. customer network
D. ISP’s routing domain
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Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 26
Which configuration command represents a static customer route in a Routed 1483 network?
A. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.10.1.2
B. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 atm 6/0.33
C. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.10.1.2
D. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 atm 6/0.33
Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
Which RADIUS configuration command implements a primary/backup scenario for multiple
servers?
A. radius algorithm direct
B. radius algorithm backup
C. radius algorithm primary
D. radius algorithm round-robin
70-699 exam 
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
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QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files 070-489 dumps.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
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may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION NO: 11
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a cluster
running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
070-489 dumps Answer: D,F
Note: Namenode stores modifications to the filesystem as a log appended to a
native filesystem file (edits). When a Namenode starts up, it reads HDFS state from an image file
(fsimage) and then applies edits from edits log file. It then writes new HDFS state to (fsimage) and
starts normal operation with an empty edits file. Since namenode merges fsimage and edits files
only during start up, edits file could get very large over time on a large cluster. Another side effect
of larger edits file is that next restart of Namenade takes longer.
The secondary namenode merges fsimage and edits log periodically and keeps edits log size with
in a limit. It is usually run on a different machine than the primary Namenode since its memory
requirements are on the same order as the primary namemode. The secondary namenode is
started by bin/start-dfs.sh on the nodes specified in conf/masters file.
QUESTION NO: 12
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the
DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
070-489 pdf Answer: A
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system begins replicating the blocks that were
stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be dead and
any data it had to be gone as well.Based on the block reports it had been receiving from the dead
node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along with the node and can make the
decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.It will also consult the Rack Awareness
data in order to maintain the two copies in one rack, one copy in another rack replica rule when
deciding which Data Node should receive a new copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)

A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system 070-489 dumps  begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
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data never passes through the namenode. Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How NameNode Handles data node failures?

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Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
Q&As: 226

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QUESTION 1
Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre- deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC’s existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company’s security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
70-331 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose 4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
70-331 practice exam 
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.

You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent
users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013.
You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio
Team System project file.
Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated
content databases for the storage of personal site collections.
You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites.
What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database
to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to
25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database
to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to
5,000.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm.
You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site
collection.
What permission level should you configure?

A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
70-331 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index.
Users report that search results are too broad.
You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results.
Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers
that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the
application server.
You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message
attachments in libraries.
You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the
entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
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Correct Answer: BF

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Exam Code: 070-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 219

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Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Lync Online.
The environment includes the domains shown in the following image, and is configured as shown in the
exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)

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Lync is not deployed in a hybrid configuration. An employee requires specific Lync communication
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each
correct selection is worth one point
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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Management has requested a report of all
Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync-enabled employees and their devices. You need to generate a report that
contains employee display names and device types.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate
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A company has an on-premises deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 with Service Pack 3.The
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11.DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees share documents with internal and
external users on Microsoft SharePoint Online sites. User1 inadvertently shares a link to Document1 with
an external user named Customer1. You need to remove access to Document1 from Customer1.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
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12.HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. A user wants to share a link to a presentation with
a salesperson. The salesperson will share the link with potential customers.
You have the following requirements:
– Make a read-only version of the presentation available to anonymous users.
– Notify the salesperson by email when the presentation is available.
You need to configure the sharing settings.
How should you configure the sharing settings? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog
box in the answer area.

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13. A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers’ SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the 070-347 pdf 
ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC
14. Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B
15. When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new 070-347 vce application, which three metrics are necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

16. Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC
17. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)

A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
070-347 exam Answer: CDE

18. A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization’s email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D
19. A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
070-347 dumps Answer:AD
20. A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio

E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD
21. When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
070-347 pdf Answer: BCE
22. To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD
23. Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager

C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
070-347 vce Answer:AB
24. In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB
25. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
070-347 exam Answer:AB
26. Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups

D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 117

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-698 DUMPS EXAM Q&As:

QUESTION 1
An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin authoritarian, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory
settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its
configuration from a backup (c) Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the
right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any
Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk
back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.
A. a only
B. a & b only
C. a & c only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
 70-698 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel
(e.g. SSL tunneling)
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A. http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoat.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which ProxySG technology uses the data processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
70-698 dumps

A. Blue Coat Reporter
B. MACH5
C. BCWF
D. ProxySG Services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) IWA
(b) RADIUS
(C) LDAP
(d) TACACS+
A. a, b & d only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, b &c only
D. All of the above
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) All
(b) Any
(c) Explicit
(d) Transparent
A. a, c & d only
B. a, b & c only
C. b, c &d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Administrator attempts to access Management console (b) user attempts to access the internet
(c) Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d) User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A. All of the above
B. b, c &d only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & c only

70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A ProxySG is designed to do which of the following? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance
through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content
stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same time.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data

B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
D. HTTP POST data
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 07, 2017
Q&As: 49

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70-742

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-742 DUMPS EXAM Q&AS:

QUESTION NO: 16
Which is the best power saving mode to use while waiting to obtain a lock on a semaphore?
A. Dormant
B. Standby
C. Shutdown
D. Deep sleep
70-742 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
Which privileged mode can kernel code use to get direct access to the User mode registers R13
and R14?

A. Abort mode
B. System mode
C. Hypeivisor mode
D. Supervisor mode
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
An Advanced SIMD intrinsic has the prototype:
int16x4_t vmul_n_s16(int16x4_t a, int16_t b);
How many multiplications does this intrinsic compute?
A. 1 multiplication
B. 4 multiplications
C. 16 multiplications
D. 64 multiplications
70-742 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following memory attributes, specified in a translation table entry, could be used to
protect a page containing a read-sensitive peripheral from speculative instruction fetches?
A. S (Secure)
B. nG (non-Global)
C. xN (Execute Never)
D. AP (Access Permission)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
An ARMv7 implementation might include the VFPv4-D32 floating point extension. What does the
’32’ indicate?
A. The width of the datapath in bits
B. The number of double precision floating point registers implemented
C. The number of bits of data that can be loaded or stored at once
D. The number of integer operations that can be performed simultaneously
70-742 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
It is common to declare structures as “packed” in order to minimize data memory size. Which of
the following accurately describes the effect of this?
A. Members will be stored as bit-fields
B. Data Aborts will be disabled for all structure accesses
C. Structure members will be re-ordered so that the smallest are first
D. Multi-byte members are not required to be naturally aligned
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
When debugging an embedded Linux system, which one of the following techniques can be used
to halt a single user thread, while allowing other threads to continue to run during the debug
process?
A. Halting a single user thread in an embedded Linux system is not possible
B. Use the Linux kernel printk() function to output messages to the console
C. Connect a Linux-aware JTAG debugger to the target, which allows single-stepping of the code
D. Connect a debugger running on an external host device to an instance of gdbserver running on
the target, using Ethernet
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following processors includes a Generic Interrupt Controller as a standard
component?
A. Cortex-A8
B. Cortex-M3
C. Cortex-R4F
D. Cortex-A9 MPCore
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Assume a multicore processor with coherency management based on the MESI protocol. When a
core changes the contents of a shared cache line, what is the final status of that line in the local
cache?
A. Modified
B. Exclusive
C. Shared
D. Invalid
70-742 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
How is data written into NOR flash memory?
A. Data can only be written once, when the flash device is being manufactured
B. Writing data to the memory locations using store instruction, as you would with RAM
C. Reading and writing specific registers following a device-specific procedure
D. Using an external programming device, which utilizes an ultra-violet lamp to alter the data
stored on the device

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Under which of the following data-sharing scenarios would cache maintenance operations be
necessary?
A. Sharing data with another thread running on the same core
B. Sharing data with another process running on the same core
C. Sharing data with an external device
D. Sharing data with another CPU in an SMP system
70-742 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
A Just-In-Time compiler writes instructions to a region of memory that is configured using a
writeback cache strategy. For the locations that have been written, what is the MINIMUM cache
maintenance that MUST be performed before the new instructions can be reliably executed?
A. Instruction cache clean only
B. Instruction cache invalidate only
C. Data cache clean and instruction cache invalidate
D. Data cache invalidate and instruction cache invalidate
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following statements best describes a Board Support Package (BSP)?
A. PC interface hardware for configuring a boot monitor
B. Hardware specific source code needed for operating system support
C. A working port of Linux for a specific hardware platform
D. Debugging hardware and software supplied with a development board
70-742 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC) architecture, which of the following ID numbers are
reserved for interrupts that are private to a CPU interface?
A. ID0-ID7
B. ID0-ID15
C. ID0-ID31
D. ID0-ID63
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
What is the value of r0 after executing the following instruction sequence?
MOV r0, #200
MOV r5, #1
STR r3, [r0, r5, LSL#3]!
A. 200
B. 201
C. 204
D. 208
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following properties is a required characteristic of a Symmetric Multiprocessing
(SMP) system?

A. All processors have the same view of memory
B. An even number of processors is included
C. All processors run in the same power state
D. All processors switch between operating system tasks in lock-step
Answer: A

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