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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 41 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view 70-346 exam content.
70-346 dumps

Question No : 42  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
70-346 dumps

You need to grant the appropriate administrative role to each user.
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may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.

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Question No : 44 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 45
A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely
used to generate these data points.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. Data Sampling
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT
organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?
A. Developing Test Plans
B. Conducting Design Inspections
C. Developing Test Processes
D. Performing Acceptance Testing
E. Performing Regression Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?
A. Automatic
B. Auditors
C. Peer Reviews
D. Supervisory
E. Third Party
70-346 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:
A. The documentation is consistent with the software execution
B. The documentation is understandable
C. Users will be adequately trained in the software
D. It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
A snapshot of an organization’s security program at a certain time is a:
A. Security Model
B. Security Baseline
C. Security Risk
D. Security Test Procedure
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the correct definition of a policy?
A. The intended future state of the organization
B. Managerial control over processes
C. The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met
D. Managerial desires and intents concerning processes and products
E. A standard that is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
B. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
C. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
D. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
E. None of the above
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly.
This statement shows relationship between:
A. Plan and Do Processes
B. Plan and Check Processes
C. Do and Check Processes
D. Do and Act Processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
To measure the customer’s perception of the quality of a software system, what type of measure would
you use?
A. Objective
B. Subjective
C. Process Measure
D. Process Variation
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to
penetrate, is called a:
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Control
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?
A. Developing a security budget
B. Determining the effectiveness of the security program
C. Determine where security training is necessary
D. Developing a security policy
E. As a basis for organizing a security function
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.
The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches? 200-125 dumps
A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-699
Exam Name: Windows Server 2003, MCSA Security Specialization Skills Update
Q&As: 122

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QUESTION: 11
Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces
in 5 virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100

70-699 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0.
The PVC should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format.
Which command accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
70-699 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose
two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 15
Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
70-699 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 17
In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to
advertise customer networks into the provider’s IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
70-699 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 19
Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
70-699 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a
large subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with an external DHCP server in a Bridged 1483
network?

A. It maintains DHCP leases on behalf of subscribers.
B. It initiates DHCP requests on behalf of subscribers.
C. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server; you must configure static host routes.
D. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server and inserts host routes into its routing table.
70-699 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A Bridged 1483 service offering is grouping DSL users into a large subnet. What are three
characteristics of this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. It burns IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. A group of PVCs is a subnet.
D. It provides a numbered IP address to the ERX.
E. It provides an IP unnumbered address to ERX.
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION: 23
In a Routed 1483 network which method of routing is typically employed on the DSL router?
A. static
B. OSPF
C. RIPv1
D. RIPv2
70-699 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with subscriber IP addresses assigned by an external
DHCP server?
A. It monitors messages from the external server and updates the routing table as needed.

B. It maintains the leases for the DHCP server and reassigns addresses to new subscribers.
C. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and makes the address available when the subscriber stops responding.
D. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and removes the host route when the subscriber stops
responding.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 25
Which two static routes are typically configured on your router when a Routed 1483 network is
grouping ATM PVCs into a large subnet? (Choose two.)
A. host route
B. default route
C. customer network
D. ISP’s routing domain
70-699 vce 
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 26
Which configuration command represents a static customer route in a Routed 1483 network?
A. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.10.1.2
B. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 atm 6/0.33
C. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.10.1.2
D. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 atm 6/0.33
Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
Which RADIUS configuration command implements a primary/backup scenario for multiple
servers?
A. radius algorithm direct
B. radius algorithm backup
C. radius algorithm primary
D. radius algorithm round-robin
70-699 exam 
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 1746

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT a form of detective technical control?
A. Audit trails
B. Access control software
C. Honeypot
D. Intrusion detection system
CISSP exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which type of security control is also known as “Logical” control?
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Administrative
D. Risk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following answers best describes the type of penetration testing where the analyst has full
knowledge of the network on which he is going to perform his CISSP dumps test?
A. White-Box Penetration Testing
B. Black-Box Pen Testing
C. Penetration Testing
D. Gray-Box Pen Testing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
During an IS audit, one of your auditor has observed that some of the critical servers in your organization
can be accessed ONLY by using shared/common user name and password. What should be the auditor’s
PRIMARY concern be with this approach?
A. Password sharing
B. Accountability
C. Shared account management
D. Difficulty in auditing shared account
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following media is MOST resistant to tapping?
A. microwave.
B. twisted pair.
C. coaxial cable.
D. fiber optic.
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Good security is built on which of the following concept?
A. The concept of a pass-through device that only allows certain traffic in and out
B. The Concept of defense in depth
C. The Concept of Preventative controls
D. The Concept of Defensive Controls
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
The communications products and services, which ensure that the various components of a network (such
as devices, protocols, and access methods) work together refers to:
A. Netware Architecture.
B. Network Architecture.
C. WAN Architecture.
D. Multiprotocol Architecture.
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols does not operate at the data link layer (layer 2)?
A. PPP
B. RARP
C. L2F
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
According to private sector data classification levels, how would salary levels and medical CISSP dumps information be
classified?
A. Public.
B. Internal Use Only.
C. Restricted.
D. Confidential.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Whose role is it to assign classification level to information?
A. Security Administrator
B. User
C. Owner
D. Auditor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an example of a detective control?
A. System Monitor
B. IDS
C. Monitor detector
D. Backup data restore

CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a CHARACTERISTIC of a decision support system (DSS) in regards to Threats
and Risks Analysis?
A. DSS is aimed at solving highly structured problems.
B. DSS emphasizes flexibility in the decision making approach of users.
C. DSS supports only structured decision-making tasks.
D. DSS combines the use of models with non-traditional data access and retrieval functions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally addresses Due Care and Due
Diligence?
A. Implementation
B. System feasibility
C. Product design
D. Software plans and requirements
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A shared resource matrix is a technique commonly used to locate:
A. Malicious code
B. Security flaws
C. Trap doors
D. Covert channels
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Brute force attacks against encryption keys have increased in potency because of increased CISSP dumps computing power. Which of the following is often considered a good protection against the brute force cryptography attack?
A. The use of good key generators.
B. The use of session keys.
C. Nothing can defend you against a brute force crypto key attack.
D. Algorithms that are immune to brute force key attacks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following services is NOT provided by the digital signature standard (DSS)?
A. Encryption
B. Integrity
C. Digital signature
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an Internet IPsec protocol to negotiate, establish, modify, and delete security
associations, and to exchange key generation and authentication data, independent of the details of any
specific key generation technique, key establishment protocol, encryption algorithm, or authentication
mechanism?
A. OAKLEY
B. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)
C. Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
D. IPsec Key exchange (IKE)
cissp exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the purpose of Trusted Distribution?
A. To ensure that messages sent from a central office to remote locations are free from tampering.
B. To prevent the sniffing of data as it travels through an untrusted network enroute to a trusted network.
C. To ensure that the Trusted Computing Base is not tampered with during shipment or installation.
D. To ensure that messages received at the Trusted Computing Base are not old messages being resent
as part of a replay attack.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements relating to the Biba security model is FALSE?
A. It is a state machine model.
B. A subject is not allowed to write up.
C. Integrity levels are assigned to subjects and objects.
D. Programs serve as an intermediate layer between subjects and objects.
cissp certification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is a trusted shell?
A. It means that someone who is working in that shell cannot “bust out of it”, and other processes cannot
“bust into it”.
B. It means that it is a communications channel between the user, or program, and the kernel.
C. It means that someone working in that shell can communicate with someone else in another trusted
shell.
D. It means that it won’t let processes overwrite other processes’ data.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following are the three CISSP dumps classifications of RAID identified by the RAID Advisory Board?
A. Failure Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Failure Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
B. Foreign Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Failure Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
C. Failure Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), File Transfer Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
D. Federal Resistant Disk Systems (FRDSs), Fault Tolerant Disk Systems, and Disaster Tolerant Disk
Systems.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Updated: Sep 11, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 1
When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP
address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
1Y0-301 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose two answers).
A. RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the
immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers
and how they interconnect
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1 ,, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1
advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3’s routing
table?
A. Router R3’s routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3’s routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3’s routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3’s route table.
1Y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks,
and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely
configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific
static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will
have a default route.
1Y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the
network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the “configure router static
route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1” command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static
route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
1Y0-301 vce  Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1 “using the “static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2” command. What
command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
1y0-301 simulations Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes
down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello
timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates
to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down.
At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.

C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is
down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to
their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
1y0-301 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
1y0-301 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that
there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that
is flooded to area 2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have been
performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
1Y0-301 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Correct Answer: CD

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
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QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files 070-489 dumps.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
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may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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QUESTION NO: 11
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a cluster
running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
070-489 dumps Answer: D,F
Note: Namenode stores modifications to the filesystem as a log appended to a
native filesystem file (edits). When a Namenode starts up, it reads HDFS state from an image file
(fsimage) and then applies edits from edits log file. It then writes new HDFS state to (fsimage) and
starts normal operation with an empty edits file. Since namenode merges fsimage and edits files
only during start up, edits file could get very large over time on a large cluster. Another side effect
of larger edits file is that next restart of Namenade takes longer.
The secondary namenode merges fsimage and edits log periodically and keeps edits log size with
in a limit. It is usually run on a different machine than the primary Namenode since its memory
requirements are on the same order as the primary namemode. The secondary namenode is
started by bin/start-dfs.sh on the nodes specified in conf/masters file.
QUESTION NO: 12
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the
DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
070-489 pdf Answer: A
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system begins replicating the blocks that were
stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be dead and
any data it had to be gone as well.Based on the block reports it had been receiving from the dead
node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along with the node and can make the
decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.It will also consult the Rack Awareness
data in order to maintain the two copies in one rack, one copy in another rack replica rule when
deciding which Data Node should receive a new copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)

A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
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Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
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QUESTION 1
Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre- deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC’s existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company’s security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
70-331 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose 4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
70-331 practice exam 
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 6
Contoso, Ltd. recently merged with Fabrikam, Inc. Each company has an Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS) domain. You are managing a SharePoint farm in the contoso.com domain.

You need to enable users in the fabrikam.com domain to access the Contoso SharePoint farm and prevent
users in the contoso.com domain from accessing resources in the fabrikam.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure a two-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
B. Add the fabrikam.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
C. Configure a two-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
D. Add the contoso.com AD security groups to the SharePoint farm.
E. Configure a one-way forest trust from the fabrikam.com domain to the contoso.com domain.
F. Configure a one-way forest trust from the contoso.com domain to the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 7
A company is planning to upgrade from SharePoint 2010 to SharePoint 2013.
You need to find out the web traffic capacity of the SharePoint farm by using a Microsoft Visual Studio
Team System project file.
Which tool should you use?
A. Network Monitor
B. SharePoint Health Analyzer
C. SharePoint Diagnostic Studio
D. Load Testing Kit (LTK)
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company is planning to deploy My Sites to its 25,000 employees. The company will maintain dedicated
content databases for the storage of personal site collections.
You need to create the minimum number of content databases required to support the My Sites.
What should you do?
A. Create three content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 10,000.
B. Create one content database. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of the content database
to 25,000.
C. Create one content database. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of the content database to
25,000.
D. Create three content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database
to 10,000.
E. Create five content databases. Set the value of the WarningSiteCount property of each content
database to 5,000.
F. Create five content databases. Set the value of the MaxSiteCount property of each content database to
5,000.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are managing a site collection in a SharePoint farm.
You need to configure the minimum level of permissions necessary for users to manage lists in the site
collection.
What permission level should you configure?

A. View Only
B. Edit
C. Full Control
D. Read
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A SharePoint farm has a very large search index.
Users report that search results are too broad.
You need to ensure that properties can be used to refine search results.
Which two options should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Searchable
B. Queryable
C. Complete Matching
D. Retrievable
E. Refinable
F. Sortable
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
A SharePoint farm includes two front-end web servers, one application server, and two clustered servers
that run Microsoft SQL Server. The SharePoint Foundation Web Application service is not running on the
application server.
You plan to configure the SharePoint farm to receive and store email messages and email message
attachments in libraries.
You need to ensure that users can send email messages and attachments directly to libraries across the
entire farm. You must accomplish this goal by using the least amount of effort.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each application server.
B. Install and configure the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service on each front-end web server.
C. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each application server.
D. Enable incoming email by using the Automatic settings mode.
E. Enable and start the SharePoint Foundation Web Application service on each front-end web server.
F. Enable incoming email by using the Advanced settings mode.
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Correct Answer: BF

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Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Lync Online.
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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees share documents with internal and
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Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list
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You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. A user wants to share a link to a presentation with
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You have the following requirements:
– Make a read-only version of the presentation available to anonymous users.
– Notify the salesperson by email when the presentation is available.
You need to configure the sharing settings.
How should you configure the sharing settings? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog
box in the answer area.

070-347 dumps

070-347 dumps

13. A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers’ SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the 070-347 pdf 
ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC
14. Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B
15. When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new 070-347 vce application, which three metrics are necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

16. Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC
17. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)

A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
070-347 exam Answer: CDE

18. A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization’s email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D
19. A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
070-347 dumps Answer:AD
20. A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio

E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD
21. When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
070-347 pdf Answer: BCE
22. To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD
23. Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager

C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
070-347 vce Answer:AB
24. In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB
25. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
070-347 exam Answer:AB
26. Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups

D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 10, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&AS:
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in
VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will
be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
200-105 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to
VLAN 1.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  What are two characteristics of a 200-105 dumps switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created,
deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in
VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement
request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server
Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode.
When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this
information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information.
Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by
switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not
actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that
particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management
domain.
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Answer: A
200-105 pdf Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and
switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is
converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated)
in all switches are selected
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in
VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the
topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port ,
designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is
not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the 200-105 dumps topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit200-105 dumps

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4
which is connected directly to the Printers.
Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are
designated ports.
Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here
switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role.
By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch
3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become
designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16.Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A.The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B.Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer’s hard
drive.
C.The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D.The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
200-105 pdf Answer:B
Question No : 17.When capturing a computer’s personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A..INI
B..A2I
C..ASI
D..PBT
Answer:B
Question No : 18 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the Deployment Server. Which statement is now true?
A.moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B.images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C.this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D.the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
200-105 vce Answer:B
Question No : 19 .Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A.ImgViewer
B.ImageExplorer
C.ImageEditor
D.ImageManager
E.ImgManager
Answer:B
Question No : 20.Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows 95
C.Windows NT
D.Windows XP
E.Windows 2003
F.Linux
G.Windows 98
200-105 exam Answer:A C D E
Question No : 21 .AClient has not been password protected. Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer? (Choose three.)
A.initiate Microsoft’s Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B.view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C.change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console

D.change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E.monitor AClient’s communication with the Deployment Server
F.reinstall AClient
G.edit the AClient template file
Answer:B C E
Question No : 22.Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A.SIDgenerator
B.SetupCapture
C.Sysprep
D.ImageExplorer
E.SIDconfig
Answer:C
Question No : 23.How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software 200-105 dumps virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A.layers can be imported to a managed computer
B.layers can be created
C.the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D.the content of a layer can be modified
Answer:A C
Question No : 24.Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A.%
B.#
C.$
D.*
Answer:A
Question No : 25.Deployment Solution’s Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A.Java
B.DirectX
C.ActiveX
D..NET framework
E.Pre-boot automation operating systems
F.SQL
Answer:D F

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Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 102

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Q&AS:

1.Model settings enabled in the Model Options dialog apply to Model settings enabled in the Model
Options dialog apply to
A. all models.
B. the current model only. C.
all models in the project. D.
archived models only.
300-170 exam 
Answer: B
2.Which of the following are ways of displaying the Palette? (Choose 2)
A. SelectTools ? Display Preferences
B. SelectTools ? Customize Toolbars
C. Right-click in the Toolbar area
D. SelectTools ? Model Options
Answer: B,C
3.When generating a diagram for an Impact and Lineage Analysis, what does PowerDesigner create?
A. New diagram in the same package of the same model
B. New diagram in a new package of the same model
C. New diagram in a new model
D. Visual display that cannot be saved
300-170 dumps 
Answer: C
4.A COPY of an object that is tied to its parent object is known as a .
A. Stereotype
B. Shortcut
C. Replica
D. Domain

Answer: C
5.Which of the following is FALSE about workspaces? (Choose 2)
A. Can hold a Repository
B. Can include external files
C. Can be saved locally
D. Multiple workspaces can be opened at the same time
300-170 pdf 
Answer: A,D
6.User Profiles can NOT create defaults for which of the following?
A. Database Generation Options
B. Display Preferences
C. Report Sections
D. Model Options
E. General Options
F. Repository Definitions
Answer: C
7.Which of the following are business rules types? (Choose 2)
A. Constraints
B. Annotation
C. Associative
D. Formula
300-170 vce 
Answer: A,D
8.Which of the following objects are NOT found in a Conceptual Data Model? (Choose 2)
A. Manyto many relationships
B. Relationship joins

C. Foreign identifiers
D. Domains
E. Primary identifiers
F. Data items
Answer: B,C
9.Which artifact can NOT be modeled in a Logical Data Model?
A. Entity
B. Attribute C.
Data item D.
Inheritance
300-170 exam 
Answer: C
10.Which of the following is FALSE about Model Generation?
A. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
B. New PDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
C. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing database
D. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing PDM
Answer: C
11.What are the ways in which you can enforce referential integrity? (Choose 2)
A. Use a Primary Key Constraint
B. Use a Foreign Key Constraint
C. Use Application Code
D. Use a Domain
300-170 dumps 
Answer: B,C
12.A(n) relationship is a relationship between an entity and itself.

A. Replica B.
Reflexive C.
Mandatory
D. Associative
Answer: B
13.Which one of the following Inheritance Generation modes will cause attributes to be lost when
generating a Physical Data Model?
A. Generate parent
B. Generate children, Inherit only primary attributes
C. Generate children, Inherit all attributes
D. Generate parent and children, Inherit all attributes
300-170 pdf 
Answer: B
14.A primary key must meet the following conditions. (Choose 2)
A. Be unique
B. Contain coded information
C. Have a definite value
D. Be a surrogate key
E. Be clustered
F. Be accessible to the table creator
Answer: A,C
15.What are some of the characteristics of a Domain? (Choose 2)
A. Can be used to define a standard data type, data length, and data precision
B. Can be used to define standard attributes of an entity
C. Can only be used within a Conceptual Data Model

D. Can provide consistency across common attributes
E. Cannot be modified once associated to an attribute
300-170 vce Answer: A,D
16.In which PowerDesigner model are stored procedures supported?
A. Conceptual Data Model
B. Logical Data Model C.
Physical Data Model D.
Requirements Model
Answer: C
17.What statement is FALSE about triggers?
A. Implemented in a physical database as internally stored code
B. Can be used to improve performance
C. Automatically invoked based upon insert, update, or delete actions taken against a table
D. Initiated directly from an application program
300-170 exam Answer: D
18.Where do you define Trigger Template items? (Choose 2)
A. Model ? Triggers
B. Database ? Generate Database
C. Tools ? Model Options
D. Tables property sheet, Triggers tab
E. Database ? Edit Current DBMS
Answer: A,E
19.Physical Data Model macros can be embedded into and to
generate SQL statements. (Choose 2)
A. Template Items
B. Table via the Script tab
C. Business Rules
D. Procedures
E. View Queries
F. Extended Objects
300-170 dumps Answer: A,D
20.Which of the following are TRUE about a given report template? (Choose 2)
A. Can only be used for a specific model type
B. Can be saved within the model
C. Cannot be built for a multi-model report
D. Cannot be built from more than one section
Answer: A,D
21.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
300-170 pdf Answer: C
22.Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A
23.Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
300-170 vce 
Answer: A
24.What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Correct Answer: C
24.
Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and 192.168.255.254/24 on a
Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the following command: config ospf routerid
automatic?
A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24
Correct Answer: D
25.
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address 192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan
300-170 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
26.VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
27.
How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
300-170 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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