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Question No : 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
070-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
070-461 dumps

You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No : 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
070-461 vce Answer: C

 

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Exam Code: 70-595
Exam Name: TS: Developing Business Process and Integration Solutions by Using Microsoft BizTalk Server 2010
Q&As: 50

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QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution processes XML messages. The solution uses a single Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity and BAM tracking profile to extract content values from the message. Some of the values are bound to a receive port when the message is received. The other values are bound to a send port when the message is transmitted. At run time you find out that instead of one, two records are created in the BAM database for each processed message. One record contains only the values bound to the receive port. The second record contains only the values bound to the send port. You need to ensure that only one record is created that contains all the values for every message. What should you do?
A. Add a continuation and continuation ID to the tracking profile.
B. In the tracking profile, associate a unique value from the message payload to the ActivityID field.
C. Add a relationship to the tracking profile.
D. Add a document reference URL to the tracking profile.
70-595 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You are developing a BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration. In the Business Rule Composer, you create and save a policy named BonusPolicy that calculates an employees bonus based on year- to-date sales. You add a Call Rules shape to the orchestration. In the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, BonusPolicy is not listed in the menu of available policies to call. You need to make the policy available in the Orchestration Designer. What should you do?
A. Use the Rule Engine Deployment Wizard to export BonusPolicy.
B. In the Business Rules Composer, publish BonusPolicy.
C. In the Business Rules Composer, create a vocabulary with a definition that references the XML
schema used to evaluate BonusPolicy. Publish the vocabulary.
D. In the Business Rules Composer, use the Rule Store menu and load policies from the
BizTalkRuleEngineDb database.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A company tracks storage containers and integrates radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on BizTalk Server 2010. You define a custom tag event named ContainerArrivedEvent. You use the RFID manager to add the SqlServerSink component to the RFID process. You need to ensure that the SqlServerSink component logs only the custom tag event. What should you specify for the EventTypes property?
A. ContainerArrivedEvent
B. the fully qualified assembly name
C. All
D. Generic
70-595 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You use BizTalk Server 2010 to send EDI purchase orders to three trading partners. All of the trading partners use the same version of the purchase order message but define custom codes for the product types. The trading partners confirm purchase order acknowledgements by email instead of through response messages. The standard purchase order schemas included with BizTalk do not include the custom product type codes for each trading partner. You need to ensure that each trading partners purchase order schema is the schema that is used for orders that are sent to them. What should you do?
A. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
B. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For
  the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
C. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
D. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration calls a Business Rules Engine policy. This policy evaluates test scores to determine whether a candidate passes or fails. The BizTalk solution and the policy are deployed. Business users have decided that the value of a passing score should be raised from 60% to 70%. You need to adjust the policy to reflect the modified rule parameter. What should you do?
A. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then deploy the new version.
B. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then publish the new version.
C. Create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary and then publish the vocabulary.
D. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer and create a different policy with a new name. Then copy the currently deployed version to the new policy and modify to reflect the changed parameter. Deploy the new policy.
70-595 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution uses Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) to collect business information. The solution contains a BAM view named OrderView. After you deploy the view, application users can log on to the BAM portal but the OrderView view does not appear to them. You need to ensure that the BAM portal displays the OrderView view to application users. What should you do?
A. Use the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to add a subscription for the OrderView view.
C. Create a Microsoft SQL Server logins for the users on the server that hosts the BAMPrimaryImport database.
D. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to grant the users access to the OrderView view.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 16
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions. The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical. How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
1Y0-250 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues. What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Which command-line interface command could an administrator use to display communication between the LDAP server and the NetScaler system?
A. cat /etc/krb5.conf
B. cat /etc/krb5.keytab
C. cat /tmp/aaad.debug
D. cat /var/log/aaad.debug
E. tail -f /var/log/aaad.debug
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Scenario: An administrator configured an LDAP authentication policy and bound it globally. The only system group configured on the Netscaler is NS_Admins. After reviewing the security logs, the administrator notices that users in the External_Contractors LDAP group are able to log on to NetScaler using SSH; however, members of the External_Contractors group are NOT authorized to run any commands. Which action could the administrator take to prevent the members of the External_Contractors LDAP Group from logging on to NetScaler using SSH without affecting other users?
A. Configure an authorization policy that allows logon only by members of the “External_Contractors” LDAP Group. Bind the new policy globally.
B. Specify (memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
C. Specify (!(memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”)) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
D. Create a new command policy with a DENY action. Create a System Group named “External_Contractors” and assign the new command policy to the External_Contractors group.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic.
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
1Y0-250 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection: The site’s security certificate is not trusted! One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.  Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure
the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
1Y0-250 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state
shows as UP on the production NetScaler. What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message: “Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10; STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.” What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
1Y0-250 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Scenario: After a restart of a single NetScaler, users complain that the logon page has changed. An administrator plans to verify that a startup script exists and contains the necessary command. Where can the administrator find the startup script?
A. /etc
B. /dev
C. /nsconfig
D. /netscaler
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION NO: 129
The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.
B. Only progress forward through the stages.

C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 130
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.
B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person’s abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 132
The five A’s of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess,Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
400-351 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.
B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being “on edge.”
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 137
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 138
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to
conduct an assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 139
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 140
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 142
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 45
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After performing a global gap analysis, the global HR team has identified an initiative to identify at
least three potential candidates for each Senior Director and VP position. In order to build
accountability for implementing this initiative, which of the following pieces of information is NOT
necessary?
A. Source of resources
B. Modes of communication
C. Benefit to the individual and organization
D. Developing S.M.A.R.T objectives
70-534 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following type of listening is occurring when a person is thinking. “Robert has some
legitimate points about the importance of quality and its importance in the company’s growth” while
listening to a ISO-9001 training session?

A. Active
B. Empathic
C. Informational
D. Evaluative
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is NOT a potential difference in benefits practices that Human Resources
should evaluate when developing a global compensation and benefits strategy?
A. Leaves of absences
B. Life insurance benefits
C. Medical coverage
D. Reasons for termination
70-534 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
A gap analysis is performed to measure the skill gap between current executives and the type of
executives in order to have a truly global workforce. Which of the following analysis techniques
does this measure utilize?
A. Ratio analysis
B. Criterion-referenced analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Norm-referenced analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
According to Claus, which of the following HR activities is considered an upstream function?
A. Compensation
B. Employee relations
C. HRIS
D. Staffing
70-534 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following represents a HR strategic activity?
A. Recruitment of staff for new R&D project
B. Implement annual performance appraisal programs
C. Designing an employment brand
D. Provide specific job training programs
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is NOT a potential reason for a company’s decision to fill a position through
an international assignment?
A. Assist in creating alignment with headquarters’ goals and objectives
B. Assist in developing a consistent culture across the corporation
C. Specific person is the most qualified candidate for the job
D. Lack of core skill sets for the position available in the area
70-534 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
In the European Union, many multinational companies have Work Councils that are created to
protect workers interests. A company with 50 employees working across the EU has decided to
create a Work Councils Recently, a court has fined the corporation for laying off 10% of the
employee population in one of its E.U sites without discussing it with its Work Councils. Which of
the following reasons represents the PRIMARY rationale for why this occurred?
A. The company did not follow the collective bargaining agreement
B. The company did not follow the voluntarily-provided program
C. The company did not follow the government-provided program
D. The company did not follow the government-mandated program
Answer: A
Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
CCD-410 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In a MapReduce job reducers do not start executing the reduce method until the all Map jobs have
completed. Reducers start copying intermediate key-value pairs from the mappers as soon as they are
available. The programmer defined reduce method is called only after all the mappers have finished.
Note: The reduce phase has 3 steps: shuffle, sort, reduce. Shuffle is where the data is collected by the
reducer from each mapper. This can happen while mappers are generating data since it is only a data
transfer. On the other hand, sort and reduce can only start once all the mappers are done.
Why is starting the reducers early a good thing? Because it spreads out the data transfer from the
mappers to the reducers over time, which is a good thing if your network is the bottleneck.
Why is starting the reducers early a bad thing? Because they “hog up” reduce slots while only copying
data. Another job that starts later that will actually use the reduce slots now can’t use them.
You can customize when the reducers startup by changing the default value of  CCD-410 dumps
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps in mapred-site.xml. A value of 1.00 will wait for all the mappers
to finish before starting the reducers. A value of 0.0 will start the reducers right away. A value of 0.5 will
start the reducers when half of the mappers are complete. You can also change
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps on a job-by-job basis. Typically, keep
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps above 0.9 if the system ever has multiple jobs running at once.
This way the job doesn’t hog up reducers when they aren’t doing anything but copying data. If you only
ever have one job running at a time, doing 0.1 would probably be appropriate.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, When is the reducers
are started in a MapReduce job?
QUESTION 2
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode returns the block location
(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode then queries the
DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode
redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s). The client then reads the
data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode contacts the DataNode
that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then
from the NameNode to the client.
CCD-410 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How the Client
communicates with HDFS?

QUESTION 3
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys,
IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
CCD-410 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the
mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
CCD-410 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hadoop streaming is a utility that comes with the Hadoop distribution. The utility allows you to create and
run Map/Reduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer.
QUESTION 5
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase
of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reducer has 3 primary phases:
1. Shuffle The Reducer copies the sorted output from each Mapper using HTTP across the network.
2. Sort The framework merge sorts Reducer inputs by keys (since different Mappers may have output the same key).
 The shuffle and sort phases occur simultaneously i.e. while outputs are being fetched they are merged. SecondarySort CCD-410 dumps  To achieve a secondary sort on the values returned by the value iterator, the application should extend the key with the secondary key and define a grouping comparator. The keys will be sorted using the entire key, but will be grouped using the grouping comparator to decide which keys and values are sent in the same call to reduce.
3. Reduce
In this phase the reduce(Object, Iterable, Context) method is called for each <key, (collection of values)>
in the sorted inputs. The output of the reduce task is typically written to a RecordWriter via TaskInputOutputContext.write (Object, Object).
The output of the Reducer is not re-sorted.
Reference: org.apache.hadoop.mapreduce, Class
Reducer<KEYIN,VALUEIN,KEYOUT,VALUEOUT>

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 437

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QUESTION NO: 14
Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec
data directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
300-115 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain
VLANs. What would cause this issue?
A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches
might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruning
eligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.
QUESTION 16
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate”
and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than
passively wait for the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
* Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
* Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment
* Alternate port A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is
a failure on the designated port for the segment.
* Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two
links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
QUESTION 17
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they
should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived
from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by
default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are
treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.
QUESTION 18
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to
only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the
appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
QUESTION 19
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
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Question No : 41 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
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Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
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Question No : 42  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
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Question No : 44 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 45
A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely
used to generate these data points.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. Data Sampling
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT
organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?
A. Developing Test Plans
B. Conducting Design Inspections
C. Developing Test Processes
D. Performing Acceptance Testing
E. Performing Regression Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?
A. Automatic
B. Auditors
C. Peer Reviews
D. Supervisory
E. Third Party
70-346 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:
A. The documentation is consistent with the software execution
B. The documentation is understandable
C. Users will be adequately trained in the software
D. It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
A snapshot of an organization’s security program at a certain time is a:
A. Security Model
B. Security Baseline
C. Security Risk
D. Security Test Procedure
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the correct definition of a policy?
A. The intended future state of the organization
B. Managerial control over processes
C. The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met
D. Managerial desires and intents concerning processes and products
E. A standard that is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
B. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
C. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
D. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
E. None of the above
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly.
This statement shows relationship between:
A. Plan and Do Processes
B. Plan and Check Processes
C. Do and Check Processes
D. Do and Act Processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
To measure the customer’s perception of the quality of a software system, what type of measure would
you use?
A. Objective
B. Subjective
C. Process Measure
D. Process Variation
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to
penetrate, is called a:
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Control
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?
A. Developing a security budget
B. Determining the effectiveness of the security program
C. Determine where security training is necessary
D. Developing a security policy
E. As a basis for organizing a security function
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Update Latest 200-125 Dumps Cisco PDF Questions And VCE Youtube Free Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.
The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches? 200-125 dumps
A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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