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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 117

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An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin authoritarian, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image (b) Restore the factory
settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the appliance anew or restore its
configuration from a backup (c) Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the
right one (d) Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any
Windows or Linux computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk
back in ProxySG, start it up and reset the admin’s password.
A. a only
B. a & b only
C. a & c only
D. a & d only
E. All of the above
 70-698 exam Correct Answer: B
The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a tunnel
(e.g. SSL tunneling)
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Correct Answer: C
Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A. http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoat.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
Which ProxySG technology uses the data processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
70-698 dumps

A. Blue Coat Reporter
D. ProxySG Services
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all that
(a) IWA
A. a, b & d only
B. b, c & d only
C. a, b &c only
D. All of the above
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C
What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) All
(b) Any
(c) Explicit
(d) Transparent
A. a, c & d only
B. a, b & c only
C. b, c &d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Administrator attempts to access Management console (b) user attempts to access the internet
(c) Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d) User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A. All of the above
B. b, c &d only
C. a, c & d only
D. a, b & c only

70-698 exam Correct Answer: D
A ProxySG is designed to do which of the following? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging. (b) Increase performance
through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining. (c) Control content with URL filtering, content
stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A. a & b only
B. b & c only
C. a & c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
 70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same time.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
 70-698 pdf Correct Answer: D
What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data

B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
 70-698 vce Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 309

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: B

Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different
Correct Answer: D

Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C

Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the
routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan

D. restrict
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
100-105 vce 
Answer: D

Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource
management is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented,
regularly reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
100-105 exam 
Answer: B

Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
100-105 dumps 
Answer: D

Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of
so doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
100-105 pdf 
Answer: A
If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
100-105 vce 
Answer: B

The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organization, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organization in meeting its
team objectives
B. Familiarize yourself with the goals and objectives of other organizations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organizations and within the support industry and your
Answer: D

You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk
currently operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action
should you undertake to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
100-105 dumps 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Jul 07, 2017
Q&As: 49

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Which is the best power saving mode to use while waiting to obtain a lock on a semaphore?
A. Dormant
B. Standby
C. Shutdown
D. Deep sleep
70-742 dumps 
Answer: B
Which privileged mode can kernel code use to get direct access to the User mode registers R13
and R14?

A. Abort mode
B. System mode
C. Hypeivisor mode
D. Supervisor mode
Answer: B
An Advanced SIMD intrinsic has the prototype:
int16x4_t vmul_n_s16(int16x4_t a, int16_t b);
How many multiplications does this intrinsic compute?
A. 1 multiplication
B. 4 multiplications
C. 16 multiplications
D. 64 multiplications
70-742 pdf 
Answer: B
Which of the following memory attributes, specified in a translation table entry, could be used to
protect a page containing a read-sensitive peripheral from speculative instruction fetches?
A. S (Secure)
B. nG (non-Global)
C. xN (Execute Never)
D. AP (Access Permission)
Answer: C
An ARMv7 implementation might include the VFPv4-D32 floating point extension. What does the
’32’ indicate?
A. The width of the datapath in bits
B. The number of double precision floating point registers implemented
C. The number of bits of data that can be loaded or stored at once
D. The number of integer operations that can be performed simultaneously
70-742 exam 
Answer: B
It is common to declare structures as “packed” in order to minimize data memory size. Which of
the following accurately describes the effect of this?
A. Members will be stored as bit-fields
B. Data Aborts will be disabled for all structure accesses
C. Structure members will be re-ordered so that the smallest are first
D. Multi-byte members are not required to be naturally aligned
Answer: D
When debugging an embedded Linux system, which one of the following techniques can be used
to halt a single user thread, while allowing other threads to continue to run during the debug
A. Halting a single user thread in an embedded Linux system is not possible
B. Use the Linux kernel printk() function to output messages to the console
C. Connect a Linux-aware JTAG debugger to the target, which allows single-stepping of the code
D. Connect a debugger running on an external host device to an instance of gdbserver running on
the target, using Ethernet
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
Which of the following processors includes a Generic Interrupt Controller as a standard
A. Cortex-A8
B. Cortex-M3
C. Cortex-R4F
D. Cortex-A9 MPCore
Answer: D
Assume a multicore processor with coherency management based on the MESI protocol. When a
core changes the contents of a shared cache line, what is the final status of that line in the local
A. Modified
B. Exclusive
C. Shared
D. Invalid
70-742 dumps 
Answer: A
How is data written into NOR flash memory?
A. Data can only be written once, when the flash device is being manufactured
B. Writing data to the memory locations using store instruction, as you would with RAM
C. Reading and writing specific registers following a device-specific procedure
D. Using an external programming device, which utilizes an ultra-violet lamp to alter the data
stored on the device

Answer: C
Under which of the following data-sharing scenarios would cache maintenance operations be
A. Sharing data with another thread running on the same core
B. Sharing data with another process running on the same core
C. Sharing data with an external device
D. Sharing data with another CPU in an SMP system
70-742 pdf 
Answer: C
A Just-In-Time compiler writes instructions to a region of memory that is configured using a
writeback cache strategy. For the locations that have been written, what is the MINIMUM cache
maintenance that MUST be performed before the new instructions can be reliably executed?
A. Instruction cache clean only
B. Instruction cache invalidate only
C. Data cache clean and instruction cache invalidate
D. Data cache invalidate and instruction cache invalidate
Answer: C
Which of the following statements best describes a Board Support Package (BSP)?
A. PC interface hardware for configuring a boot monitor
B. Hardware specific source code needed for operating system support
C. A working port of Linux for a specific hardware platform
D. Debugging hardware and software supplied with a development board
70-742 exam Answer: B
In the Generic Interrupt Controller (GIC) architecture, which of the following ID numbers are
reserved for interrupts that are private to a CPU interface?
A. ID0-ID7
B. ID0-ID15
C. ID0-ID31
D. ID0-ID63
Answer: C
What is the value of r0 after executing the following instruction sequence?
MOV r0, #200
MOV r5, #1
STR r3, [r0, r5, LSL#3]!
A. 200
B. 201
C. 204
D. 208
70-742 vce 
Answer: D
Which of the following properties is a required characteristic of a Symmetric Multiprocessing
(SMP) system?

A. All processors have the same view of memory
B. An even number of processors is included
C. All processors run in the same power state
D. All processors switch between operating system tasks in lock-step
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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Question: 53
Select the FALSE statement regarding the responsibilities of providers with direct treatment
relationships under HIPAA’s privacy rule.
A. Provide the individual with a Notice of Privacy Practices that describes the use of PHI.
B. Obtain a written authorization for each and every TPO event.
C. Obtain a written authorization for any disclosure or use of PHI other than for the purposes of TPO.
D. Provide access to the PHI that it maintains to the individual and make reasonable efforts to
correct possible errors when requested by the individual.
E. Establish procedures to receive complaints relating to the handling of PHI.
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: B
Question: 54
A business associate must agree to:
A. Report to the covered entity any security incident of which it becomes aware
B. Ensure the complete safety of all electronic protected health information
C. Compensate the covered entity for penalties incurred because of the business associate’s security
D. Register as a business associate with HHS
E. Submit to periodic audits by HHS of critical systems containing electronic protected health
Answer: A
Question: 55
Which one of the following security standards is part of Technical Safeguards?
A. Access control
B. Security Management Process
C. Facility Access Controls
D. Workstation Use
E. Device and Media Controls
1Z0-443 exam Answer: A
Question: 56
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must designate, and document, a privacy official, security officer and a HIPAA
compliance officer
B. A covered entity must designate and document1 the same person to be both privacy official and
as the contact person responsible for receiving complaints and providing further information about
the notice required by the regulations.
C. A covered entity must implement and maintain written or electronic policies and procedures with
respect to PHI that are designed to comply with HIPAA standards, implementation specifications and
other requirements.
D. A covered entity must train, and document the training of, at least one member of its workforce
on the policies and procedures with regard to PHI as necessary and appropriate for them to carry
out their function within the covered entity no later than the privacy rule compliance date.
E. A covered entity must retain the document required by the regulations for a period of ten years
from the time of it’s creation or the time it was last in effect, which ever is later.
Answer: C
Question: 57
The best example of a party that would use the 835 – Health Care Claim Payment/Advice transaction
B. A community health management information system.
C. Health statistics collection agency.
D. Government agency.
E. Insurance Company.
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: E
Question: 58
A State insurance commissioner is requesting specific, individually identifiable information from an
insurer as a part of a routine review of the insurer’s practices. What must the insurer do to decertify
the information?
A. The protected health information must be removed from the information. A substitute “key” may
be supplied to allow re-identification, if needed.
B. Limit the information to coverage, dates of treatment. and payment amounts to avoid collecting
any protected data.
C. Nothing. An oversight agency has the right to access this information without prior authorization.
D. Request that the insurance commissioner ask for an exception from HIPAA from the Department
of Health and Human Services.
E. B A written authorization is required from the patient.
Answer: C
Question: 59
Which HIPAA Title is fueling initiatives within organizations to address health care priorities in the
areas of transactions, privacy, and security’?
A. Title I.
B. Title II
C. Title III.
D. Title M
E. Title V.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: B
Question: 60
Select the correct statement regarding code sets and identifiers.
A. The social security number has been selected as the National Health Identifier for individuals
B. The CDT code set is maintained by the American Medical Association
C. Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO) are not covered by the definition of “health plan” for
purposes of the National Health Plan Identifier.
D. HIPAS requires health plans to accept every valid code contained in the approved code sets
E. An important objective of the Transaction Rule is to reduce the risk of security breaches through
Answer: D
Question: 61
HIPAA transaction standards apply to:
A. Employee drug tests.
B. Health component of auto insurance.
C. Stored health information data.
D. Eligibility inquiries.
E. Non-reimbursed employee medical expenses.
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: D
Question: 62
Under the Privacy Rule, an individual may request a covered provider to restrict routine use or
disclosure beyond what exists in the providers Notice of Privacy Practices. Upon that request, the
A. Must store the information in an encrypted format.
B. May refuse the request but still offer treatment.
C. Must comply within seventy-five (75) days.
D. Must only transfer the information using the ASC X12 format specification.
E. Can request binding arbitration
Answer: B
Question: 63
Select the correct statement regarding the “Minimum Necessary” standard in the HIPAA regulations.
A. In some circumstances a covered entity is permitted, but not required, to rely on the judgment of
the party requesting the disclosure as to the minimum amount of information necessary for the
intended purpose. Some examples of these requesting parties are: another covered entity or a
public official.
B. The privacy rule prohibits use, disclosure, or requests for an entire medical record,
C. Non-Covered entities need to redesign their facility to meet the requirement for minimum
necessary uses.
D. The minimum necessary standard requires covered entities to prohibit maintenance of medical
charts at bedside and to require that X-ray light boards be totally isolated.
E. If there is a request for more than the minimum necessary PHI, the privacy rule requires a covered
entity to deny the disclosure of information after recording the event in the individual’s case file.
1Z0-443 exam Answer: A
Question: 64
The version of the ANSI ASC Xl 2N standard required by HIPAA regulations is:
A. 3070
B. 3050
C. 3045
D. 4010
E. 4020
Answer: D
Question: 65
Which of the following is example of “Payment” as defined in the HIPAA regulations?
A. Annual Audits
B. Claims Management
C. Salary disbursement to the workforce having direct treatment relationships.
D. Life Insurance underwriting
E. Cash given to the pharmacist for the purchase of an over-the-counter drug medicine
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: B
Question: 66
Which of the following was not established under the Administrative Simplification title?
A. National P1<1 Identifier.
B. National Standard Health Care Provider Identifier.
C. National Standard Employer Identifier.
D. Standards for Electronic Transactions and Code Sets.
E. Security Rule.
Answer: A
Question: 67
Physical safeguards using media controls do not include procedures to:
A. Control access to tapes, floppies, and re-writeable CDs.
B. Track the access of record able media.
C. Dispose of storage devices,
D. Backup copies of health information.
E. Prohibit alteration of health information.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: E
Question: 68
When limiting protected health information (PHI) to the minimum necessary for a use or disclosure,
a covered entity can use:
A. Their professional judgment and standards,
B. The policies set by the security rule for the protection of the information,
C. Specific guidelines set by WEDI.
D. Measures that are expedient and reduce costs.
E. The information for research and marketing purposes only.
Answer: A


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Exam Code: 810-502
Exam Name: Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction – Written Exam
Updated: Jun 20, 2017
Q&As: 112
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You are installing HCM for managing Brocade HBAs. What are two ways to do this? (Choose two)
A. on the Brocade switch where the HBA connects
B. on the principal switch in the fabric
C. on the DCFM host
D. on the server where the HBA is installed
810-502 exam Correct Answer: CD
An administrator wants to display logged in devices and upgrade the firmware of a Brocade 825 HBA. What are three ways to perform these tasks? (Choose three.)
A. Use bcu on the server with the HBA.
B. Launch Web Tools on the server with the HBA.
C. Launch HCM GUI on the server with the HBA.
D. Right-click on the HBA in the DCFM connectivity map and select Element Manager.
E. Start a telnet session to the switch connected to any HBA FC port, and use in-band device management

Correct Answer: ABC
You must provide end-to-end performance monitoring and historical. What can provide this information?
B. Top Talkers
C. portperfshow
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
Which class of service uses end-to-end credits for flow control?
“A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 15 Brocade 143-410 Exam

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class F

Correct Answer: B
You have two separate fabrics in the same data center and you would like to share data between the server in one fabric and the storage in another fabric.
Which type of port would you use to allow the server to see the storage without merging the two fabrics?
A. M_Port
B. E_Port
C. EX_Port
D. VE_Port

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
Which well-known address is used to register for state change notifications?

Correct Answer: C
Which port types are represented by the numbers in the exhibit? <img src=”143-410-17_3.jpg” width=”600″ height=”479″>
A. 1 =N_Port; 2=F_Port; 3=E_Port; 4=N_Port
B. 1=F_Port;2=E_Port; 3=E_Port, 4=F_Port
C. 1 =N_Port; 2=E_Port 3=F_Port, 4=N_Port
D. 1 =F_Port; 2=F_Port; 3=E_Port, 4=F_Port

810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
Which port type is used by online FC-attached storage?
A. E_Port
B. EX_Port
C. F_Port
D. U_Port

Correct Answer: B
Which three components should be known when configuring a port for extended fabric?
A. average frame size
B. link speed
C. link distance
D. maximum frame size
E. link attenuation

810-502 dumps Correct Answer: ABE
The well-known address for the Management Server is FFFFFA. How many bits are in this reserved address?
A. 8
B. 24
C. 32 “A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 18 Brocade 143-410 Exam

D. 48
Correct Answer: A
What is the default port state on a switch before a device is plugged into it?
A. G_Port
B. U_Port
C. F_Port
D. N_Port

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
Which ISL will become the principal when there are multiple ISLs available?
A. the one with the highest deskew
B. the first to respond to the connection request
C. the one with the highest metric value
D. the one with the lowest link cost

Correct Answer: B
What will the principal switch do if a new switch attempts to join a fabric with a duplicate domain ID with the insistent domain ID set to -no”?
A. Segment the Inter-Switch Link.
B. Assign the incoming switch a different domain ID.
C. Merge the switch configurations.
D. Initiate the selection of a new principal switch.

Correct Answer: B
Which two statements should the buffer-to-buffer credit flow model are true? (Choose two)
A. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is implemented to limit the amount of data that a port may send.
B. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control isflow control between adjacent ports in the I/O path.
C. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is dependent on the use ofARBs to manage data flow.
D. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is dependent on the use ofIDLs to manage data flow.

810-502 vce Correct Answer: AD
What are three uses of the last byte in a 24-bit Fibre Channel address specific to a Brocade switch? (Choose three)
A. public loop
B. shared area
C. domain ID
E. routed fabric “A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 20 Brocade 143-410 Exam
Correct Answer: ACD
Which two commands will display device PIDs on a Brocade switch? (Choose two)
A. nsallshow
B. cfgshow
C. nscamshow
D. pdshow
810-502 exam Correct Answer: AB
Which port is the FCIP equivalent of an E_port?
A. N_Port
B. EX_Port
C. G_Port
D. VE_Port
Correct Answer: B
Which Fibre Channel well-known address service records the port and node attributes?
“A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 21 Brocade 143-410 Exam
Correct Answer: A


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Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
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20% 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements

1.1 Gather requirements

  • 1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements

1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities

  • 1.2.a Apply different API models
  • 1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
  • 1.2.b (i) Controller-based
  • 1.2.b (ii) Device-centric API (distributed)

1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)

  • 1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies

1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications

  • 1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work

1.5 Document application/networking touch points

  • 1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment



A developer is creating a process that will be a participant in an ebXML B2B conversation. Which control or node can be used to receive the first message in a conversation?
A. A TPM control
B. An ebXML control
C. A RosettaNet control
D. A Client Request node
E. An Application View control

Correct Answer: D
Certkiller .com Communications, the nation’s second leading cable TV provider, plans to provide application integration with an existing program directory. Certkiller .com will automate the service and sell it to subscribers. To make this subscriber service as dynamic as possible, Certkiller .com has a business requirement that the service functionality can be changed later, without having to change client applications. Which is the best way to accomplish this?
A. A loosely-coupled Message-driven EJB
B. A Message Broker control that all client applications subscribe to
C. An asynchronous Web service that uses the Dynamic Invocation Interface (DII) or dynamic proxy interfaces
D. A synchronous Web service that uses DII or dynamic proxy interfaces
E. Automated distribution of a generated stub

Correct Answer: C
The Olivari Group, an electronic-components broker, has a business requirement to exchange complex business documents with suppliers and brokers. It currently uses some sophisticated manual processes for exchanging information; its goal is to automate the processes as much as possible, to free its employees to focus on more meaningful tasks. The Olivari Group wants to use well-defined, industry-standard partner interface processes. Which protocol would be the best choice?
A. ebXML
B. An asynchronous message broker control
C. RosettaNet
D. SOAP 1.2 with attachments
E. Open Collaborate

Correct Answer: C
In the exhibit, consider the following snippet of a UML activity diagram.

What is the best way to implement the Notify Customer Service Agent task?
A. Create a Message Broker Publish control that sends a message to a customer service role.
B. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a customer service role.
C. Create a Message Broker Subscribe control receiving messages from the process for the customer service role.
D. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a specific customer service agent.
E. Create a Task control assigned to a specific customer service agent.

Correct Answer: B
A Client Request node is configured to validate its input with this XML Schema:
<xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema” targetNamespace=”http://openuri.org”>
<xs:element name=”item”>
<xs:element name=”title” type=”xs:string”/>
<xs:element name=”code” type=”xs:string”/>
Why does the following XML document fail validation by the Client Request node? <item xmlns=”http://

A. The document that is sent as an argument is not well-formed.
B. The <schema> element defaults the elementFormDefault attribute to unqualified.
C. The document that is sent as an argument requires the addition of the line xmlns:tns=”http:// openuri.org”.
D. The document that is sent as an argument must specify which schema to use for validation.
E. The document that is sent as an argument must set the targetNamespace, as the schema does.

Correct Answer: B
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Field Occurrence option should the developer select for the emailAddress field?
A. Once
B. Repeat Delimiter (followed by a text box)
C. Repeat Field (followed by a pull-down menu)
D. Repeat Number (followed by a text box)
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: C
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Group Delimiter option should the developer select for the emailAddresses group?
A. None
B. Delimiter Field, with delimiter shared
C. Delimiter Field, with delimiter NOT shared
D. A or B
E. A or C
Correct Answer: A
Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to an Event Choice node?
A. A maximum of one branch of an Event Choice node is executed; any number of branches of a Parallel node can be executed.
B. An Event Choice node can have only two branches; a Parallel node can have an unlimited number of branches.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
D. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
E. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19

While creating a For Each node, a developer is shown the following schema representation in WebLogic
Which statement is false?

A. quoteRequest is an element.
B. zip is a child element of shipAddress.
C. The question marks imply optional (as opposed to mandatory) status.
D. widgetRequest is a valid repeating element over which the For Each node can iterate.
E. A maximum number of occurrences of widgetRequest can be specified in the schema.

Correct Answer: B
A developer creates a Perform node, as shown in the exhibit.

Which is the generated Java method?
A. public void perform() { }
B. public boolean perform() { }
C. static public boolean perform() { }
D. public void perform() throws Exception { }
E. public boolean perform() throws Exception { }

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A developer creates a Message Broker Publish control to publish messages to the channel that is specified
by this channel file:
<channels xmlns=”http://www.bea.com/wli/broker/channelfile” channelPrefix=”/B2B”
<channel name=”xml” messageType=”none”>
<channel name=”qrChannel” messageType=”xml”
What is the resulting name of the corresponding channel, from the viewpoint of the control?

A. B2B:qrChannel
B. /B2B/qrChannel
C. /B2B/xml/qrChannel
D. t3://www.example.org/request/B2B/qrChannel
E. http://www.example.org/request/B2B/xml/qrChannel

Correct Answer: C
Consider this code fragment: /**
public interface ApprovalCtrl extends TaskControl, com.bea.control.ControlExtension
public String certkiller(String name, XmlObject xml); Which statement about the method Certkiller is
Certkiller is a wrapper method.
Certkiller is a custom query method.
Certkiller is a custom callback method.
The extension for this source file must be .dtf
Certkiller has better type safety than the standard operations.

Correct Answer: A
Consider this process diagram in the exhibit.

The timer timeout is set to 5 s and repeats-every is set to 15 s. What happens during execution of this
A. The process instance completes in just over 5 seconds.
B. The process instance completes in just over 10 seconds.
C. The process instance completes in just over 15 seconds.
D. The process instance completes in just over 20 seconds.
E. The process instance does not successfully complete; it blocks indefinitely.

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 61
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html

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1.1 Describe common server types and connectivity found in a data center
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1.4 Perform basic Cisco UCS configuration
1.4.a Cluster high availability
1.4.b Port roles
1.4.c Hardware discovery
1.5 Describe server virtualization concepts and benefits
1.5.a Hypervisors
1.5.b Virtual switches
1.5.c Shared storage
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As    

Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
D. IP Address

Correct Answer: C
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address

Correct Answer: C
16 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains

Correct Answer: D
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database

Correct Answer: C
View the Server group screen shot above.

A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?
17 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam
A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
Correct Answer: C
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.

A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius
attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role.
What statements below are correct?

A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role

Correct Answer: AC
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.
A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap ap mesh-radio-profile ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile ap-system-profile virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile ap-system profile aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile wlan ssid-profile virtual-ap profile

Correct Answer: B
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role
B. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile
C. A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile
D. An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile

Correct Answer: A

A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands: Vlan 55 Vlan 56 Vlan 57 Interface gigabitethernet 1/0 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk native vlan 55 switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57 Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged 20 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

Correct Answer: D
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto

Correct Answer: ABD
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

21 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell

Correct Answer: A
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned

Correct Answer: B


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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 247
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html

Here is the list of skills tested in ROUTE 300-101 practice test:

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Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 10%
Layer 3 Technologies 40%
VPN Technologies 10%
Infrastructure Security 10%
Infrastructure Services 20%

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Which type of BlackBerry Enterprise Server database permission is required for a BlackBerry MVS software installation? (Choose one.)
A. db_datawriter
B. db_datareader
C. db_accessadmin
D. db_ddladmin
E. db_owner

Correct Answer: E
Which three user settings can be used to determine if the BlackBerry device will ring for an incoming BlackBerry MVS call? (Choose three.)
A. Call direction
B. Call scheduling
C. Line Preference
D. Allowed caller list
E. Unknown caller

Correct Answer: BDE



Which two statements describe a template? (Choose two.)
A. Templates are used to define the configuration properties of new BlackBerry MVS user accounts
B. Changes to templates affect settings for both new user accounts and existing user accounts
C. Templates are used to configure Wi-Fi Profile Control settings
D. Templates can be used to set default Caller Restriction settings

Correct Answer: AD



When wireless data coverage is lost during a BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile call, what are DTMF tones used for? (Choose one.)
A. Switch to standby BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
B. Associate to a different Wi-Fi network
C. Send email messages
D. Send call control requests
E. Send logging information to the BlackBerry MVS administrator

Correct Answer: D
Which four factors should be considered and implemented with the Wi-Fi infrastructure vendor to ensure an optimal Voice over Wi-Fi experience? (Choose four.)  300-101 practice test
A. Thorough and detailed Wi-Fi site survey
B. Deploying end-to-endQoS
C. Wi-Fi protected voice setup
D. 802.11d
E. Separate voice VLAN
F. AP controller architecture
Correct Answer: ABEF




If a plus sign is part of the number dialed from a BlackBerry device when making a call, which BlackBerry MVS administrative feature can be used to remove the plus sign (+)? (Choose one.)
A. Smart dialing
B. Number translation
C. Class of service
D. Templates
E. Dial plan manipulation

Correct Answer: B



Which two security features are available with BlackBerry MVS 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. AES encryption
B. Peer-to-Peer encryption
C. Call and Diagnostic Logging
D. Authentication of BlackBerry MVS users
E. S/MIME encryption

Correct Answer: CD



Which three codecs are supported by the BlackBerry MVS Client for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose three.)
B. G.711 A-law
C. G.711 ?lawG.711 ?-law
D. G.722
E. G.729

Correct Answer: BCE



A single BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance can be associated with how many BlackBerry MVS Session Managers? (Choose one.)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

Correct Answer: A



What must an organization PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)What must an organization? PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)
A. Detect and intercept DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
B. Replace DTMF tones with silence from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
C. Remove DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
D. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using KPML notification
E. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using HTML notification

Correct Answer: AD




What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds

Correct Answer: D

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2017 Popular Oracle 1Z0-434 Exam Tips – Oracle SOA Suite 12c Essentials

1Z0-434 exam
Exam Code: 1Z0-434
Exam Name: Oracle SOA Suite 12c Essentials
Updated: Mar 29, 2017
Q&As: 84
Exam Languages:English; Japanese
Number of Questions:78
Passing Score:72% | Passing score is subject to change
Exam Validation:Exam validated against release
Exam Format:Multiple Choice
Duration:120 minutes
1Z0-434 exam Certifications Earned:

  • OPN Certified Specialist
  • Oracle SOA Suite 12c Certified Implementation Specialist


1Z0-434 exam Target Audience:

  • Completed 2-3 SOA project implementations including at least one substantial implementation using SOA Suite
  • Possess 2-3 years of field experience
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-434 Exam Q&As 

Exam A
You have determined that your J2EE EJB tier applications should deployed to a WebLogic Cluster in order to achieve the necessary scalability requirements. When considering adequate network bandwidth to minimize lost multicast packets, which activity is likely to generate the greatest concentration of multicast traffic?
A. JNDI updates
B. JMS Server migration
C. JMX Mbean monitoring
D. HTTP Session replication
E. WebLogic cluster heartbeats

Correct Answer: A
Which UML artifact best describes a Business Process?
A. Data Model
B. State Diagram
C. Workflow Detail
D. Activity Diagram
E. Sequence Diagram

Correct Answer: D
In planning most architecture it is considered to be a best practice to avoid long-running XA-transactions. Which of the following is the most compelling reason?
A. Performance can suffer due to potential XA-resource concurrency bottlenecks
B. With the XA two-phase commit protocol, there is a greater chance for heuristic conditions
C. Client applications with shorter transaction timeouts may not wait long enough for transactions to be completed.
D. Each in-flight transaction requires a unique XID, performance is impacted by excessive transaction context switching
E. Deadlock situations can occur within the Transaction Manager by typing up all the available threads involved in transaction

Correct Answer: A

1Z0-434 exam
1Z0-434 exam QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true related to java Virtual Machine (JVM) issues with your weblogic server deployments?
A. WebLogic Server does not permit manually forced garbage collection on the JVM
B. The BEA JRockit JVM must be used to allow for garbage collection scheme choice
C. WebLogic Server interfaces within the same cluster may use different typed of JVMs
D. A change to the maximum heap size of the JVM does not require a WebLogic server restart
E. Greater performance is usually achieved by deploying a single multithreaded weblogic server instance to multiple JVMs.

Correct Answer: C
You have determined that your web applications will be deployed to a weblogic cluster for high availability. You want to ensure that all HTTP session data is available to other members of the cluster in case of server failure., but replication performance is a high priority. Based on this requirement, which approach would be best to incorporate into your design?
A. File-based session persistence
B. In-memory session persistence
C. Single memory-based session
D. JDBC-based session persistence
E. XA-based rapid session synchronization

Correct Answer: B
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, services in the Connectivity Layer tend to be;
A. Fine-grained and Synchronous
B. Fine-grained and Asynchronous
C. Coarse-grained and synchronous
D. Coarse-grained and Asynchronous
E. Both Coarse-grained and Fine-Grained

Correct Answer: A
Which of the following XML-related standards are NOT used in Liquid Data?
B. Xpath
E. Xml schema

Correct Answer: A
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
1Z0-434 exam  QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E

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