[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Up To Date Cisco 600-510 Dumps Yumpu Free Download 2017: Developing with Network Programmability

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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/600-510.html

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20% 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements

1.1 Gather requirements

  • 1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements

1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities

  • 1.2.a Apply different API models
  • 1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
  • 1.2.b (i) Controller-based
  • 1.2.b (ii) Device-centric API (distributed)

1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)

  • 1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies

1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications

  • 1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work

1.5 Document application/networking touch points

  • 1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

600-510

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QUESTION 11
A developer is creating a process that will be a participant in an ebXML B2B conversation. Which control or node can be used to receive the first message in a conversation?
A. A TPM control
B. An ebXML control
C. A RosettaNet control
D. A Client Request node
E. An Application View control

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Certkiller .com Communications, the nation’s second leading cable TV provider, plans to provide application integration with an existing program directory. Certkiller .com will automate the service and sell it to subscribers. To make this subscriber service as dynamic as possible, Certkiller .com has a business requirement that the service functionality can be changed later, without having to change client applications. Which is the best way to accomplish this?
A. A loosely-coupled Message-driven EJB
B. A Message Broker control that all client applications subscribe to
C. An asynchronous Web service that uses the Dynamic Invocation Interface (DII) or dynamic proxy interfaces
D. A synchronous Web service that uses DII or dynamic proxy interfaces
E. Automated distribution of a generated stub

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The Olivari Group, an electronic-components broker, has a business requirement to exchange complex business documents with suppliers and brokers. It currently uses some sophisticated manual processes for exchanging information; its goal is to automate the processes as much as possible, to free its employees to focus on more meaningful tasks. The Olivari Group wants to use well-defined, industry-standard partner interface processes. Which protocol would be the best choice?
A. ebXML
B. An asynchronous message broker control
C. RosettaNet
D. SOAP 1.2 with attachments
E. Open Collaborate

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In the exhibit, consider the following snippet of a UML activity diagram.

What is the best way to implement the Notify Customer Service Agent task?
A. Create a Message Broker Publish control that sends a message to a customer service role.
B. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a customer service role.
C. Create a Message Broker Subscribe control receiving messages from the process for the customer service role.
D. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a specific customer service agent.
E. Create a Task control assigned to a specific customer service agent.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
A Client Request node is configured to validate its input with this XML Schema:
<xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema” targetNamespace=”http://openuri.org”>
<xs:element name=”item”>
<xs:complexType>
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name=”title” type=”xs:string”/>
<xs:element name=”code” type=”xs:string”/>
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
</xs:element>
</xs:schema>
Why does the following XML document fail validation by the Client Request node? <item xmlns=”http://
openuri.org”>
<title>MoserDozer</title>
<code>3A98-193SA-SF</code>
</item>

A. The document that is sent as an argument is not well-formed.
B. The <schema> element defaults the elementFormDefault attribute to unqualified.
C. The document that is sent as an argument requires the addition of the line xmlns:tns=”http:// openuri.org”.
D. The document that is sent as an argument must specify which schema to use for validation.
E. The document that is sent as an argument must set the targetNamespace, as the schema does.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Field Occurrence option should the developer select for the emailAddress field?
A. Once
B. Repeat Delimiter (followed by a text box)
C. Repeat Field (followed by a pull-down menu)
D. Repeat Number (followed by a text box)
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Group Delimiter option should the developer select for the emailAddresses group?
A. None
B. Delimiter Field, with delimiter shared
C. Delimiter Field, with delimiter NOT shared
D. A or B
E. A or C
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to an Event Choice node?
A. A maximum of one branch of an Event Choice node is executed; any number of branches of a Parallel node can be executed.
B. An Event Choice node can have only two branches; a Parallel node can have an unlimited number of branches.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
D. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
E. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Exhibit:

While creating a For Each node, a developer is shown the following schema representation in WebLogic
Workshop:
Which statement is false?

A. quoteRequest is an element.
B. zip is a child element of shipAddress.
C. The question marks imply optional (as opposed to mandatory) status.
D. widgetRequest is a valid repeating element over which the For Each node can iterate.
E. A maximum number of occurrences of widgetRequest can be specified in the schema.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A developer creates a Perform node, as shown in the exhibit.

Which is the generated Java method?
A. public void perform() { }
B. public boolean perform() { }
C. static public boolean perform() { }
D. public void perform() throws Exception { }
E. public boolean perform() throws Exception { }

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A developer creates a Message Broker Publish control to publish messages to the channel that is specified
by this channel file:
<channels xmlns=”http://www.bea.com/wli/broker/channelfile” channelPrefix=”/B2B”
xmlns:req=”http://www.example.org/request”>
<channel name=”xml” messageType=”none”>
<channel name=”qrChannel” messageType=”xml”
qualifiedMessageType=”req:quoteRequest”/>
</channel>
</channels>
What is the resulting name of the corresponding channel, from the viewpoint of the control?

A. B2B:qrChannel
B. /B2B/qrChannel
C. /B2B/xml/qrChannel
D. t3://www.example.org/request/B2B/qrChannel
E. http://www.example.org/request/B2B/xml/qrChannel

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Consider this code fragment: /**
*
@jc:task
*/
public interface ApprovalCtrl extends TaskControl, com.bea.control.ControlExtension
{
/**
*
@jc:task-create
*
name=”{name}”
*
@jc:task-update
*
request={xml}
*/
public String certkiller(String name, XmlObject xml); Which statement about the method Certkiller is
correct?
A.
Certkiller is a wrapper method.
B.
Certkiller is a custom query method.
C.
Certkiller is a custom callback method.
D.
The extension for this source file must be .dtf
E.
Certkiller has better type safety than the standard operations.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Consider this process diagram in the exhibit.

The timer timeout is set to 5 s and repeats-every is set to 15 s. What happens during execution of this
process?
A. The process instance completes in just over 5 seconds.
B. The process instance completes in just over 10 seconds.
C. The process instance completes in just over 15 seconds.
D. The process instance completes in just over 20 seconds.
E. The process instance does not successfully complete; it blocks indefinitely.

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 61
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html

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1.1 Describe common server types and connectivity found in a data center
1.2 Describe the physical components of the Cisco UCS
1.3 Describe the concepts and benefits of Cisco UCS hardware abstraction
1.4 Perform basic Cisco UCS configuration
1.4.a Cluster high availability
1.4.b Port roles
1.4.c Hardware discovery
1.5 Describe server virtualization concepts and benefits
1.5.a Hypervisors
1.5.b Virtual switches
1.5.c Shared storage
1.5.d Virtual Machine components
1.5.e Virtual Machine Manager

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QUESTION 34
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
16 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
View the Server group screen shot above.

A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?
17 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam
A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.

A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius
attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role.
What statements below are correct?

A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 40
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.
A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap ap mesh-radio-profile ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile ap-system-profile virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile ap-system profile aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile wlan ssid-profile virtual-ap profile

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role
B. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile
C. A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile
D. An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands: Vlan 55 Vlan 56 Vlan 57 Interface gigabitethernet 1/0 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk native vlan 55 switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57 Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged 20 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 45
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

21 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
22
Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned

Correct Answer: B

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  • 200-101 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2)
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2017 Useful Cisco 300-101 Practice Test CCNP Route v2.0 in First Attempt

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 247
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html

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Topics % Exam Content
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 10%
Layer 3 Technologies 40%
VPN Technologies 10%
Infrastructure Security 10%
Infrastructure Services 20%

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QUESTION 33
Which type of BlackBerry Enterprise Server database permission is required for a BlackBerry MVS software installation? (Choose one.)
A. db_datawriter
B. db_datareader
C. db_accessadmin
D. db_ddladmin
E. db_owner

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which three user settings can be used to determine if the BlackBerry device will ring for an incoming BlackBerry MVS call? (Choose three.)
A. Call direction
B. Call scheduling
C. Line Preference
D. Allowed caller list
E. Unknown caller

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

QUESTION 35
Which two statements describe a template? (Choose two.)
A. Templates are used to define the configuration properties of new BlackBerry MVS user accounts
B. Changes to templates affect settings for both new user accounts and existing user accounts
C. Templates are used to configure Wi-Fi Profile Control settings
D. Templates can be used to set default Caller Restriction settings

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 36
When wireless data coverage is lost during a BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile call, what are DTMF tones used for? (Choose one.)
A. Switch to standby BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
B. Associate to a different Wi-Fi network
C. Send email messages
D. Send call control requests
E. Send logging information to the BlackBerry MVS administrator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which four factors should be considered and implemented with the Wi-Fi infrastructure vendor to ensure an optimal Voice over Wi-Fi experience? (Choose four.)  300-101 practice test
A. Thorough and detailed Wi-Fi site survey
B. Deploying end-to-endQoS
C. Wi-Fi protected voice setup
D. 802.11d
E. Separate voice VLAN
F. AP controller architecture
Correct Answer: ABEF

 

 

QUESTION 38

If a plus sign is part of the number dialed from a BlackBerry device when making a call, which BlackBerry MVS administrative feature can be used to remove the plus sign (+)? (Choose one.)
A. Smart dialing
B. Number translation
C. Class of service
D. Templates
E. Dial plan manipulation

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 39
Which two security features are available with BlackBerry MVS 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. AES encryption
B. Peer-to-Peer encryption
C. Call and Diagnostic Logging
D. Authentication of BlackBerry MVS users
E. S/MIME encryption

Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 40
Which three codecs are supported by the BlackBerry MVS Client for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose three.)
A. AMR
B. G.711 A-law
C. G.711 ?lawG.711 ?-law
D. G.722
E. G.729
F. WPA2

Correct Answer: BCE

 

 

QUESTION 41
A single BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance can be associated with how many BlackBerry MVS Session Managers? (Choose one.)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 42
What must an organization PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)What must an organization? PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)
A. Detect and intercept DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
B. Replace DTMF tones with silence from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
C. Remove DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
D. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using KPML notification
E. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using HTML notification

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 43

What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds

Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-434
Exam Name: Oracle SOA Suite 12c Essentials
Updated: Mar 29, 2017
Q&As: 84
Exam Languages:English; Japanese
Number of Questions:78
Passing Score:72% | Passing score is subject to change
Exam Validation:Exam validated against release
Exam Format:Multiple Choice
Duration:120 minutes
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You have determined that your J2EE EJB tier applications should deployed to a WebLogic Cluster in order to achieve the necessary scalability requirements. When considering adequate network bandwidth to minimize lost multicast packets, which activity is likely to generate the greatest concentration of multicast traffic?
A. JNDI updates
B. JMS Server migration
C. JMX Mbean monitoring
D. HTTP Session replication
E. WebLogic cluster heartbeats

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which UML artifact best describes a Business Process?
A. Data Model
B. State Diagram
C. Workflow Detail
D. Activity Diagram
E. Sequence Diagram

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
In planning most architecture it is considered to be a best practice to avoid long-running XA-transactions. Which of the following is the most compelling reason?
A. Performance can suffer due to potential XA-resource concurrency bottlenecks
B. With the XA two-phase commit protocol, there is a greater chance for heuristic conditions
C. Client applications with shorter transaction timeouts may not wait long enough for transactions to be completed.
D. Each in-flight transaction requires a unique XID, performance is impacted by excessive transaction context switching
E. Deadlock situations can occur within the Transaction Manager by typing up all the available threads involved in transaction

Correct Answer: A

1Z0-434 exam
1Z0-434 exam QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true related to java Virtual Machine (JVM) issues with your weblogic server deployments?
A. WebLogic Server does not permit manually forced garbage collection on the JVM
B. The BEA JRockit JVM must be used to allow for garbage collection scheme choice
C. WebLogic Server interfaces within the same cluster may use different typed of JVMs
D. A change to the maximum heap size of the JVM does not require a WebLogic server restart
E. Greater performance is usually achieved by deploying a single multithreaded weblogic server instance to multiple JVMs.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
You have determined that your web applications will be deployed to a weblogic cluster for high availability. You want to ensure that all HTTP session data is available to other members of the cluster in case of server failure., but replication performance is a high priority. Based on this requirement, which approach would be best to incorporate into your design?
A. File-based session persistence
B. In-memory session persistence
C. Single memory-based session
D. JDBC-based session persistence
E. XA-based rapid session synchronization

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, services in the Connectivity Layer tend to be;
A. Fine-grained and Synchronous
B. Fine-grained and Asynchronous
C. Coarse-grained and synchronous
D. Coarse-grained and Asynchronous
E. Both Coarse-grained and Fine-Grained

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following XML-related standards are NOT used in Liquid Data?
A. XSLT
B. Xpath
C. SOAP
D. XqUERY
E. Xml schema

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
1Z0-434 exam  QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
D. Create a serializable javaBean THAT DEFINES THE STATEFUL FIELDS AND THEIR METHODS AND PASSES THE DATA BETWEEN THE MODEL INVOCATION AND VIEW ELEMENTS
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E

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200-310 pdf QUESTION 1
You have determined that your J2EE EJB tier applications should deployed to a WebLogic Cluster in order to achieve the necessary scalability requirements. When considering adequate network bandwidth to minimize lost multicast packets, which activity is likely to generate the greatest concentration of multicast traffic?
A. JNDI updates
B. JMS Server migration
C. JMX Mbean monitoring
D. HTTP Session replication
E. WebLogic cluster heartbeats

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 2
Which UML artifact best describes a Business Process?
A. Data Model
B. State Diagram
C. Workflow Detail
D. Activity Diagram
E. Sequence Diagram

Correct Answer: D
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 3
In planning most architecture it is considered to be a best practice to avoid long-running XA-transactions. Which of the following is the most compelling reason?
A. Performance can suffer due to potential XA-resource concurrency bottlenecks
B. With the XA two-phase commit protocol, there is a greater chance for heuristic conditions
C. Client applications with shorter transaction timeouts may not wait long enough for transactions to be completed.
D. Each in-flight transaction requires a unique XID, performance is impacted by excessive transaction context switching
E. Deadlock situations can occur within the Transaction Manager by typing up all the available threads involved in transaction

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true related to java Virtual Machine (JVM) issues with your weblogic server deployments?
A. WebLogic Server does not permit manually forced garbage collection on the JVM
B. The BEA JRockit JVM must be used to allow for garbage collection scheme choice
C. WebLogic Server interfaces within the same cluster may use different typed of JVMs
D. A change to the maximum heap size of the JVM does not require a WebLogic server restart
E. Greater performance is usually achieved by deploying a single multithreaded weblogic server instance to multiple JVMs.

Correct Answer: C
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 5
You have determined that your web applications will be deployed to a weblogic cluster for high availability. You want to ensure that all HTTP session data is available to other members of the cluster in case of server failure., but replication performance is a high priority. Based on this requirement, which approach would be best to incorporate into your design?
A. File-based session persistence
B. In-memory session persistence
C. Single memory-based session
D. JDBC-based session persistence
E. XA-based rapid session synchronization

Correct Answer: B
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 6
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, services in the Connectivity Layer tend to be;
A. Fine-grained and Synchronous
B. Fine-grained and Asynchronous
C. Coarse-grained and synchronous
D. Coarse-grained and Asynchronous
E. Both Coarse-grained and Fine-Grained

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 7
Which of the following XML-related standards are NOT used in Liquid Data?
A. XSLT
B. Xpath
C. SOAP
D. XqUERY
E. Xml schema

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
The software contained in a software package can be installed by ________ or by ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. using the following syntax on the command line: installer -pkg <package_name> -target <target_volume>
B. opening the package contents and dragging the contents to / (root of the volume)
C. expanding the package and dragging the contents to the applications folder
D. double-clicking on the package to open it in the Installer application
E. expanding the package and running the installer contained inside

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
When using Disk Utility to create a disk image from a model system volume, you need free space on your destination volume that is equal to ________.
A. the data size on the source volume
B. at least two times the data size on the source volume
C. at least three times the data size on the source volume
D. at least four times the data size on the source volume

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
In Mac OS X v10.4, disk images provide ________.
A. extra disk space for running BSD scripts
B. a way to bring systems quickly back to a clean state
C. a means of tracking changes made to startup volumes
D. a means of compressing applications while they are being run
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A package receipt ________.
A. stores license information
B. contains information about an installed package
C. stores an archive of the data files received from a package
D. contains a list of packages installed within a set time parameter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When installing a custom installation package, the resource script reflight runs after VolumeCheck and InstallationCheck, and ________.
A. allows the user to select the destination volume
B. verifies that the installation or upgrade can take place
C. determines whether the installation is new or an upgrade
D. runs before all other scripts for new installations and upgrades

Correct Answer: D  cisco 210-260 dumps QUESTION 16
In Mac OS X v10.4, what information about an installed package do the .bom files contain?
A. list of files installed by package, proper permissions for each file, file sizes, and file checksums
B. file source locations, file sizes, target volume(s), and list of frameworks used during installation
C. list of files installed by package, package creation and modification dates, user account authenticated for installation
D. list of files installed by package, list of resource forks installed by package, list of source files in package, list of scripts run by package

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
If you know the Open Firmware password for an Apple Macintosh computer, you can reset it by ________.
A. clearing the parameter RAM (Command+Option+p+r at startup)
B. changing the Master Password in the Security pane of System Preferences
C. starting up the computer from the installation disc and using the Reset Password utility in the Installer
D. starting up the computer into Open Firmware (Command+Option+o+f at startup) and using the reset commands

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
You have:
-a FireWire drive with Mac OS X installed that contains a copy of a model disk image -a target computer that is currently started from its hard drive
To deploy the model image to the target computer, plug the FireWire drive into the computer and ________.
A. execute the asr command in Terminal, specifying the model image as the source, and the local hard drive as the target.
B. restart from any external volume. Drag the model image from the FireWire drive to the local hard drive. When prompted, choose Restore.
C. restart from the FireWire drive. Open Terminal and run the asr command, specifying the model image as the source, and the local hard drive as the target.
D. shut down, then start up with the T key pressed. Once started, open Disk Utility and restore the model image as the source and the local hard drive as the target.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You have an application that must be installed to / (root of the volume).
However, you wish to install the application on a computer that is in Target Disk mode, and the target volume is in /Volumes. Identify a possible solution in Mac OS X v10.4.
A. Copy the volume from /Volumes to /.
B. Rename the target volume so that it matches the name of the root (/) volume.
C. Identify the files that were installed during testing and create a custom installation package that installs the files in the correct locations.
D. Create a disk image of the target volume, install the application, and restore the disk image to the
target volume without erasing the existing contents. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
How can you prevent a user from starting a computer from a DVD, CD-ROM, or FireWire drive?
A. Explicitly select a startup disk in System Preferences.
B. Enable the open firmware password on the computer.
C. Set up Classic to use a System Folder on a disk image.
D. Format your designated startup disk without Mac OS 9 drivers.

Correct Answer: B

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Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You need to modify the SAM account name of Group1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User

Answer: G

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains five domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The contoso.com domain contains two user accounts named Admin1 and Admin2.
You need to ensure that Admin1 and Admin2 can configure hardware and services on all of the member servers in the forest. The solution must minimize the number of privileges granted to Admin1 and Admin2.
Which built-in groups should you use?

A. Administrators local groups
B. Administrators domain local groups
C. Domain Admins global groups
D. Server Operators global groups

Answer: A  210-065 exam

 

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a single virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can manage the virtual machine settings of VM1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1. To which group should you add User1?

A. Server Operators
B. Administrators
C. Power Users
D. Hyper-V Administrators

Answer: D

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Your company has a remote office that contains 600 client computers on a single subnet. You need to select a subnet mask for the network that will support all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the number of unused addresses. Which subnet mask should you select?

A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128

Answer : A

 

Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server 1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?

A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4

Answer : D

 

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You create and enforce the default AppLocker executable rules. Users report that they can no longer execute a legacy application installed in the root of drive C. You need to ensure that the users can execute the legacy application. What should you do?

A. Modify the action of the existing rules.
B. Create a new rule.
C. Add an exception to the existing rules.
D. Delete an existing rule.

Answer: B

Explanation:

AppLocker is a feature that advances the functionality of the Software Restriction Policies feature. AppLocker contains new capabilities and extensions that reduce administrative overhead and help administrators control how users can access and use files, such as executable files, scripts, Windows Installer files, and DLLs. By using AppLocker, you can:

Define rules based on file attributes that persist across application updates, such as the publisher name (derived from the digital signature), product name, file name, and file version. You can also create rules based on the file path and hash.

Assign a rule to a security group or an individual user. Create exceptions to rules. For example, you can create a rule that allows all users to run all Windows binaries except the Registry Editor (Regedit.exe). Use audit-only mode to deploy the policy and understand its impact before enforcing it. . Create rules on a staging server, test them, export them to your production environment, and then import them into a Group Policy Object. Simplify creating and managing AppLocker rules by using Windows PowerShell cmdlets for AppLocker. AppLocker default rules AppLocker allows you to generate default rules for each of the rule types.

Executable default rule types:
Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all applications. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Windows folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run applications that are located in the Program Filesfolder. Windows Installer default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run digitally signed Windows Installer files. Allow members of the Everyone group to run all Windows Installer files located in the Windows\Installer folder. Script
default rule types:

Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all scripts. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Program Files folder. Allow members of the Everyone group to run scripts located in the Windows folder. DLL default rule types:( this on can affect system performance ) Allow members of the local Administrators group to run all DLLs. Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Program Files folder.

Allow members of the Everyone group to run DLLs located in the Windows folder. You can apply AppLocker rules to individual users or to a group of users. If you apply a rule to a group of users, all users in that group are affected by that rule. If you need to allow a subset of a user group to use an application, you can create a special rule for that subset. For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run the Windows operating system, but it does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as Help Desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.

To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Help Desk user group: “Allow Help Desk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Help Desk user group to run

 

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Exam Code: 70-331 exam
Published: August 26, 2016
Languages: English
Audiences:IT professionals, Developers
Technology: SQL Server
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA

70-331 exam

Many of you are preparing for the Microsoft 70-331 certification exam. Well gird your loins my friends. Microsoft presents a list of skills that need to be mastered in order to be considered prepared for that exam. As a student, you want to consider these a checklist that should be examined with a critical, self-examining eye. The Exam is an MCSE level exam, which means that the Server Administration prerequisites of an MCSA are assumed for this class. Even if you are not taking the exam, these are the skills that keep you from having to install SharePoint multiple times or hire an outside consultant to fix your mistakes!

Exam takers can expect multiple questions based upon a detailed case study. In these questions you will need to select the best answer using your understanding of the scenario and its objectives. Sometimes you might be given examples of 352-001 pdf and to accomplish a given task correctly you’ll need to put them in the correct order.  Or hot areas where you have to click the appropriate area in Central Admin to accomplish something. Case studies are separate sections of the test that don’t allow for the ability to return to previous case studies.

For each of the major sections of this class you will find a checklist version of the preparation skills you need to master along with test tips, suggested web resource links on core technologies and details that are often known only to the subject matter experts. (We hope all links will still be available at the URLs given). In addition, bolster your skills – keep learning. Use your course sessions, your labs, and practice tests. Build your own lab environment to “make it and break it” on your own. You can learn much by using the free SharePoint Foundation server and using a trial version of Microsoft 70-331 dumps, or downloading a trial VHD that you could install on Windows 8, Server 2012, or the free Hyper-V server installation. Read Microsoft’s documentation as well as the pain points described in blog articles on the same subject by professionals like yourself.

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Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft 70-331 pdf.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.
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