[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Realistic Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions Study Guide CCIE Wireless Written Exam [With Video]

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.
B. Only progress forward through the stages.

C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
400-351 exam Answer: C
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.
B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Answer: C
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person’s abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Answer: D
The five A’s of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess,Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
400-351 dumps Answer: C

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.
B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.
400-351 pdf Answer: A
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being “on edge.”
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
400-351 vce Answer: B
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to
conduct an assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: D
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
400-351 vce Answer: B
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 437

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Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec
data directory option?
300-115 exam 
Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain
VLANs. What would cause this issue?
A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: C
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches
might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruning
eligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate”
and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than
passively wait for the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
* Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
* Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment
* Alternate port A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is
a failure on the designated port for the segment.
* Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two
links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they
should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived
from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by
default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are
treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to
only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the
appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 10, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&AS:
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in
VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will
be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
200-105 exam Answer: D
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  What are two characteristics of a 200-105 dumps switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created,
deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in
VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement
request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server
Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode.
When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this
information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information.
Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by
switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not
actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that
particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Answer: A
200-105 pdf Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and
switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is
converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated)
in all switches are selected
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port ,
designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is
not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the 200-105 dumps topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit200-105 dumps

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4
which is connected directly to the Printers.
Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are
designated ports.
Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here
switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role.
By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch
3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become
designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16.Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A.The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B.Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer’s hard
C.The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D.The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
200-105 pdf Answer:B
Question No : 17.When capturing a computer’s personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
Question No : 18 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the Deployment Server. Which statement is now true?
A.moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B.images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C.this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D.the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
200-105 vce Answer:B
Question No : 19 .Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
Question No : 20.Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows 95
C.Windows NT
D.Windows XP
E.Windows 2003
G.Windows 98
200-105 exam Answer:A C D E
Question No : 21 .AClient has not been password protected. Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer? (Choose three.)
A.initiate Microsoft’s Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B.view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C.change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console

D.change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E.monitor AClient’s communication with the Deployment Server
F.reinstall AClient
G.edit the AClient template file
Answer:B C E
Question No : 22.Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
Question No : 23.How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software 200-105 dumps virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A.layers can be imported to a managed computer
B.layers can be created
C.the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D.the content of a layer can be modified
Answer:A C
Question No : 24.Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
Question No : 25.Deployment Solution’s Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
D..NET framework
E.Pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer:D F

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DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation: 300-170 Dumps | 300-170 exam youtube video

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Updated: Aug 23, 2017
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1.Model settings enabled in the Model Options dialog apply to Model settings enabled in the Model
Options dialog apply to
A. all models.
B. the current model only. C.
all models in the project. D.
archived models only.
300-170 exam 
Answer: B
2.Which of the following are ways of displaying the Palette? (Choose 2)
A. SelectTools ? Display Preferences
B. SelectTools ? Customize Toolbars
C. Right-click in the Toolbar area
D. SelectTools ? Model Options
Answer: B,C
3.When generating a diagram for an Impact and Lineage Analysis, what does PowerDesigner create?
A. New diagram in the same package of the same model
B. New diagram in a new package of the same model
C. New diagram in a new model
D. Visual display that cannot be saved
300-170 dumps 
Answer: C
4.A COPY of an object that is tied to its parent object is known as a .
A. Stereotype
B. Shortcut
C. Replica
D. Domain

Answer: C
5.Which of the following is FALSE about workspaces? (Choose 2)
A. Can hold a Repository
B. Can include external files
C. Can be saved locally
D. Multiple workspaces can be opened at the same time
300-170 pdf 
Answer: A,D
6.User Profiles can NOT create defaults for which of the following?
A. Database Generation Options
B. Display Preferences
C. Report Sections
D. Model Options
E. General Options
F. Repository Definitions
Answer: C
7.Which of the following are business rules types? (Choose 2)
A. Constraints
B. Annotation
C. Associative
D. Formula
300-170 vce 
Answer: A,D
8.Which of the following objects are NOT found in a Conceptual Data Model? (Choose 2)
A. Manyto many relationships
B. Relationship joins

C. Foreign identifiers
D. Domains
E. Primary identifiers
F. Data items
Answer: B,C
9.Which artifact can NOT be modeled in a Logical Data Model?
A. Entity
B. Attribute C.
Data item D.
300-170 exam 
Answer: C
10.Which of the following is FALSE about Model Generation?
A. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
B. New PDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
C. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing database
D. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing PDM
Answer: C
11.What are the ways in which you can enforce referential integrity? (Choose 2)
A. Use a Primary Key Constraint
B. Use a Foreign Key Constraint
C. Use Application Code
D. Use a Domain
300-170 dumps 
Answer: B,C
12.A(n) relationship is a relationship between an entity and itself.

A. Replica B.
Reflexive C.
D. Associative
Answer: B
13.Which one of the following Inheritance Generation modes will cause attributes to be lost when
generating a Physical Data Model?
A. Generate parent
B. Generate children, Inherit only primary attributes
C. Generate children, Inherit all attributes
D. Generate parent and children, Inherit all attributes
300-170 pdf 
Answer: B
14.A primary key must meet the following conditions. (Choose 2)
A. Be unique
B. Contain coded information
C. Have a definite value
D. Be a surrogate key
E. Be clustered
F. Be accessible to the table creator
Answer: A,C
15.What are some of the characteristics of a Domain? (Choose 2)
A. Can be used to define a standard data type, data length, and data precision
B. Can be used to define standard attributes of an entity
C. Can only be used within a Conceptual Data Model

D. Can provide consistency across common attributes
E. Cannot be modified once associated to an attribute
300-170 vce Answer: A,D
16.In which PowerDesigner model are stored procedures supported?
A. Conceptual Data Model
B. Logical Data Model C.
Physical Data Model D.
Requirements Model
Answer: C
17.What statement is FALSE about triggers?
A. Implemented in a physical database as internally stored code
B. Can be used to improve performance
C. Automatically invoked based upon insert, update, or delete actions taken against a table
D. Initiated directly from an application program
300-170 exam Answer: D
18.Where do you define Trigger Template items? (Choose 2)
A. Model ? Triggers
B. Database ? Generate Database
C. Tools ? Model Options
D. Tables property sheet, Triggers tab
E. Database ? Edit Current DBMS
Answer: A,E
19.Physical Data Model macros can be embedded into and to
generate SQL statements. (Choose 2)
A. Template Items
B. Table via the Script tab
C. Business Rules
D. Procedures
E. View Queries
F. Extended Objects
300-170 dumps Answer: A,D
20.Which of the following are TRUE about a given report template? (Choose 2)
A. Can only be used for a specific model type
B. Can be saved within the model
C. Cannot be built for a multi-model report
D. Cannot be built from more than one section
Answer: A,D
21.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
300-170 pdf Answer: C
22.Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A
23.Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
300-170 vce 
Answer: A
24.What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Given router interfaces,,, and on a
Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the following command: config ospf routerid
Correct Answer: D
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan
C. config ipaddress vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress corporate vlan
300-170 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
26.VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
300-170 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 15, 2017
Q&As: 118

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25. In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, .
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
300-135 exam Answer: B
26. In a Behind the Switch configuration, the VCS carries out instructions from .
A. IVR Server only, in the form of IVR ServerXML
B. T-Server only, in the form of TLib Events
C. Web Server, in the form of VoiceXML
D. IVR Server client, in the form of XML
Answer: C
27. When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type – from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
300-135 dumps Answer: A
28. To bring up the 9810 listener window in EMPS you need to expand Server, CORE, click on
<ServerName> and then follow which links?
A. Right-click on the Server and view
B. Click link for Network Management GUI to open the 9810 listener
C. Click the link for Server Explorer to open the 9810 listener
D. There are no available links for the 9810 listener window in the EMPS.
Answer: B
29. After WatchDog is started, GVP.ini file contains .
A. no configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes
B. application specific configuration information such as DNIS
C. the configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes, such as default log levels
D. only Dialogic configuration information
300-135 pdf Answer: C

30. When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will .
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

31.If a user is denied read permission on a folder, which of the following is true?
A. The folder is not visible in the Navigator window in any PowerCenter client.
B. The folder becomes a shared folder.
C. The folder has a red “X” over it.
D. The folder is grayed out in the Navigator window for any PowerCenter client.
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
32.Which is a type of connection object you can create with PowerCenter?
C. Partitioned
D. Dynamic database
Correct Answer: A
33.What needs to be done to inherit domain privileges”
A. Use domain folders.
B. Use domain groups.
C. Set the privileges on a set-vice level.
D. Set the privileges on a service or group level.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: B
34.When copying a folder across repositories, which statement is true?
A. The origin repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
B. The destination repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
C. PowerCenter will automatically create and delete XML files to facilitate transferring the objects.
D. The origin folder must first be exported as XML.
Correct Answer: B
35.The Service Manager runs which functions on the Master Gateway Node in the domain?
A. Workflows, Configuration, and Alerting.
B. Security, Web Services, and Alerting.
C. Security, Configuration, and Alerting.
D. Web Services, Configuration, and Licensing.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
36.If you attempt to delete a user who is the owner of a repository folder, what will happen?
A. The folder is deleted.
B. The folder becomes owned by Administrator.
C. You will be prompted to assign another owner to the folder.
D. This operation is not allowed.
Correct Answer: B
37.The IEEE 802.11 Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) service is capable of performing what
functions? (Choose 2)
A. Establishing an interference baseline on all 2.4 GHz channels
B. Using modulation switching techniques to avoid interfering with radar systems
C. Testing channels for radar before using a channel and while operating in a channel
D. Suspending operations on a channel with high IEEE 802.11 co-channel interference
E. Requesting and reporting of measurements in the current and other channels
300-135 pdf Answer: C,E
38.Which statements regarding an IEEE 802.11 Channel Switch Announcement frame are true?
(Choose 2)
A. Channel Switch Announcement frames use the Action frame body format.
B. Channel Switch Announcement frames are the only place where the Channel Switch
Announcement element is found.
C. Channel Switch Announcement frames are transmitted and retransmitted on a channel until all
associated STAs successfully move to the new channel.

D. Channel Switch Announcement elements may be carried in Beacon management frames.
E. In an infrastructure BSS, Channel Switch Announcement frames may be transmitted by either
the AP or an associated STA.
Answer: A,D
39.An HT STA does not receive an ACK for a first-attempt data frame that it transmitted. Assuming
this STA is not using BlockAcks in this case, what happens to the HT STA’s EDCA contention
A. The slot time within the contention window decreases by 50%.
B. It varies because the backoff algorithm is random.
C. The contention window approximately doubles in size.
D. The contention window is not affected by failed Data frame delivery.
E. The contention window is immediately closed, and the frame is retransmitted.
300-135 vce Answer: C
40.What two IEEE 802.11 entities may be used to separate successful transmissions within an EDCA
TXOP? (Choose 2)
Answer: A,G
41.Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
42.How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
43.Although you can specify sequence numbers for different ACL entries, the Summit 1i switch checks
incoming traffic on a match with the ACL entries in the order of their time in configuration
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
44.What is the meaning of the IEEE 802.3 SNAP field in an Ethernet frame?
A. The SNAP field allows you to support Ethernet II frame, it contains the ether typevalue.
B. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate token-ring traffic
C. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate FDDI traffic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
45.DVMRP is similar to OSPF in that it is Link State based.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
46.Traffic involved with Policy based QoS is handled by the switch its CPU.
A. true
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 269

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Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. NetFlow
C. Network Scan
300-208 exam
Correct Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps

In a distributed deployment of Cisco ISE, which column in Figure 1 is used to fill in the Host Name field in
Figure 2 to collect captures on Cisco ISE while authenticating the specific endpoint?
A. Server
B. Network Device
C. Endpoint ID
D. Identity
Correct Answer: A
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The Secure-X company has recently successfully tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the
Cisco Catalyst switch and the Cisco ISEv1.2 appliance. Currently, each employee desktop is connected to
an 802.1X enabled switch port and is able to use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1Xsupplicantlo log in
and connect to the network.
Currently, a new testing requirement is to add a network printer to the Fa0/19 switch port and have it
connect to the network. The network printer does not support 802.1X supplicant. The Fa0/19 switch port is
now configured to use 802.1X authentication only.
To support this network printer, the Fa0/19 switch port configuration needs to be edited to enable the
network printer to authenticate using its MAC address. The network printer should also be on VLAN 9.
Another network security engineer responsible for managing the Cisco ISE has already per-configured all
the requirements on the Cisco ISE, including adding the network printer MAC address to the Cisco ISE
endpoint database and etc…
Your task in the simulation is to access the Cisco Catalyst Switch console then use the CL1 to:

Enable only the Cisco Catalyst Switch Fa0/19 switch port to authenticate the network printer using its MAC
address and:
Ensure that MAC address authentication processing is not delayed until 802.1Xfails
Ensure that even if MAC address authentication passes, the switch will still perform 802.1X authentication
if requested by a 802.1X supplicant
Use the required show command to verify the MAC address authentication on the Fa0/19 is successful
The switch enable password is Cisco
For the purpose of the simulation, to test the network printer, assume the network printer will be unplugged
then plugged back into the Fa0/19 switch port after you have finished the required configurations on the
Fa0/19 switch port.
Note: For this simulation, you will not need and do not have access to the ISE GUI To access the switch
CL1, click the Switch icon in the topology diagram

300-208 dumps

What is another term for 802.11i wireless network security?
A. 802.1x
300-208 dumps
Correct Answer: E
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?
A. Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B. TheIPSautomaticallysendshunstoCiscoWLCforanactivehostblock.
C. Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D. IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
What is the effect of the ip http secure-server command on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. ItenablestheHTTPserverforuserstoconnectusingWeb-basedauthentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect using Web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C
300-208 exam
When RADIUS NAC and AAA 0verride are enabled for a WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about
RADIUS NAC are true? (Choose two.)
A. It returns an access-accept and sends the redirection URL for all users.
B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the Cisco ISE.
C. It allows the Cisco ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated.
D. It is used for posture assessment, so the Cisco ISE changes the user profile based on posture result.
E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time.
Correct Answer: CD
Which two attributes must match between two Cisco ASA devices to properly enable high availability?
(Choose two.)
A. model, interface configuration, and RAM
B. major and minor software release
C. tcp dead-peer detection protocol
D. 802.1x authentication Identity
300-208 pdf
Correct Answer: AB
Which statement about I0S accounting is true?
A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined.
B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined.
C. Authorization mustbe configured before accounting.
D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined.
Correct Answer: C
Which two Identity store options allow you to authorize based on group membership? (Choose two).
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

B. RSA SecurID server
D. Active Directory
300-208 vce
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27. Which application allows you to export a McDATA SAN Router configuration?
A. EFCM Basic
B. SANtegrity
C. SANavigator
E. SANvergence Manager
Answer: E
QUESTION 28. Which method is best used to specify which servers can access specific LUNs?
A. HBA driver configuration
B. LUN masking in the switch
C. LUN mapping in the server
D. persistent binding in the server
E. LUN masking in the storage array
300-208 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is required to achieve 99.999% availability?
A. Dual rack installation
B. Separate power circuits
C. Router connectivity to DR site
D. Dual partitioned Intrepid 10000
Answer: B
QUESTION 30. A customer has significant power considerations. They want to purchase a switch from McDATA that
uses the least power while still maintaining power supply redundancy. Which switch is the best choice for
A. Intrepid 10000
B. Intrepid 6140
C. Sphereon 3232

D. Sphereon 4300
E. Sphereon 4500
300-208 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 31. Which two technologies provide Fibre Channel over IP services? (Choose two.)
B. iFCP C.
Answer: BC

6. Click the Exhibit button.
Which technology is illustrated in the exhibit?

300-208 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 32. On the McDATA Intrepid 10000, the upper two or the lower two optical paddles in a Line Module (LIM)
cannot both be in a supported configuration.
A. 2 Gbps

B. 4 Gbps
C. 8 Gbps
D. 10 Gbps
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 309

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Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: B

Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different
Correct Answer: D

Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C

Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the
routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan

D. restrict
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
100-105 vce 
Answer: D

Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource
management is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented,
regularly reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
100-105 exam 
Answer: B

Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
100-105 dumps 
Answer: D

Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of
so doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
100-105 pdf 
Answer: A
If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
100-105 vce 
Answer: B

The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organization, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organization in meeting its
team objectives
B. Familiarize yourself with the goals and objectives of other organizations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organizations and within the support industry and your
Answer: D

You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk
currently operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action
should you undertake to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
100-105 dumps 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 810-502
Exam Name: Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction – Written Exam
Updated: Jun 20, 2017
Q&As: 112
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Demonstrate knowledge of the core engines for CE, PE, WPXT and CSS
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Demonstrate knowledge of high-availability concepts
Demonstrate knowledge of disaster recovery concepts
Demonstrate knowledge of prerequisite tasks and use of installation/upgrade worksheet
Demonstrate and understanding of a Content Engine domain
Demonstrate knowledge of platform communications (core engines and infrastructure components)
Demonstrate knowledge of the APIs and available transports available
Demonstrate basic knowledge of P8 dependencies to directory servers, database servers and storage devices



You are installing HCM for managing Brocade HBAs. What are two ways to do this? (Choose two)
A. on the Brocade switch where the HBA connects
B. on the principal switch in the fabric
C. on the DCFM host
D. on the server where the HBA is installed
810-502 exam Correct Answer: CD
An administrator wants to display logged in devices and upgrade the firmware of a Brocade 825 HBA. What are three ways to perform these tasks? (Choose three.)
A. Use bcu on the server with the HBA.
B. Launch Web Tools on the server with the HBA.
C. Launch HCM GUI on the server with the HBA.
D. Right-click on the HBA in the DCFM connectivity map and select Element Manager.
E. Start a telnet session to the switch connected to any HBA FC port, and use in-band device management

Correct Answer: ABC
You must provide end-to-end performance monitoring and historical. What can provide this information?
B. Top Talkers
C. portperfshow
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
Which class of service uses end-to-end credits for flow control?
“A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 15 Brocade 143-410 Exam

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class F

Correct Answer: B
You have two separate fabrics in the same data center and you would like to share data between the server in one fabric and the storage in another fabric.
Which type of port would you use to allow the server to see the storage without merging the two fabrics?
A. M_Port
B. E_Port
C. EX_Port
D. VE_Port

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
Which well-known address is used to register for state change notifications?

Correct Answer: C
Which port types are represented by the numbers in the exhibit? <img src=”143-410-17_3.jpg” width=”600″ height=”479″>
A. 1 =N_Port; 2=F_Port; 3=E_Port; 4=N_Port
B. 1=F_Port;2=E_Port; 3=E_Port, 4=F_Port
C. 1 =N_Port; 2=E_Port 3=F_Port, 4=N_Port
D. 1 =F_Port; 2=F_Port; 3=E_Port, 4=F_Port

810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
Which port type is used by online FC-attached storage?
A. E_Port
B. EX_Port
C. F_Port
D. U_Port

Correct Answer: B
Which three components should be known when configuring a port for extended fabric?
A. average frame size
B. link speed
C. link distance
D. maximum frame size
E. link attenuation

810-502 dumps Correct Answer: ABE
The well-known address for the Management Server is FFFFFA. How many bits are in this reserved address?
A. 8
B. 24
C. 32 “A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 18 Brocade 143-410 Exam

D. 48
Correct Answer: A
What is the default port state on a switch before a device is plugged into it?
A. G_Port
B. U_Port
C. F_Port
D. N_Port

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
Which ISL will become the principal when there are multiple ISLs available?
A. the one with the highest deskew
B. the first to respond to the connection request
C. the one with the highest metric value
D. the one with the lowest link cost

Correct Answer: B
What will the principal switch do if a new switch attempts to join a fabric with a duplicate domain ID with the insistent domain ID set to -no”?
A. Segment the Inter-Switch Link.
B. Assign the incoming switch a different domain ID.
C. Merge the switch configurations.
D. Initiate the selection of a new principal switch.

Correct Answer: B
Which two statements should the buffer-to-buffer credit flow model are true? (Choose two)
A. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is implemented to limit the amount of data that a port may send.
B. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control isflow control between adjacent ports in the I/O path.
C. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is dependent on the use ofARBs to manage data flow.
D. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is dependent on the use ofIDLs to manage data flow.

810-502 vce Correct Answer: AD
What are three uses of the last byte in a 24-bit Fibre Channel address specific to a Brocade switch? (Choose three)
A. public loop
B. shared area
C. domain ID
E. routed fabric “A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 20 Brocade 143-410 Exam
Correct Answer: ACD
Which two commands will display device PIDs on a Brocade switch? (Choose two)
A. nsallshow
B. cfgshow
C. nscamshow
D. pdshow
810-502 exam Correct Answer: AB
Which port is the FCIP equivalent of an E_port?
A. N_Port
B. EX_Port
C. G_Port
D. VE_Port
Correct Answer: B
Which Fibre Channel well-known address service records the port and node attributes?
“A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 21 Brocade 143-410 Exam
Correct Answer: A


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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
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20% 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements

1.1 Gather requirements

  • 1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements

1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities

  • 1.2.a Apply different API models
  • 1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
  • 1.2.b (i) Controller-based
  • 1.2.b (ii) Device-centric API (distributed)

1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)

  • 1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies

1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications

  • 1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work

1.5 Document application/networking touch points

  • 1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment



A developer is creating a process that will be a participant in an ebXML B2B conversation. Which control or node can be used to receive the first message in a conversation?
A. A TPM control
B. An ebXML control
C. A RosettaNet control
D. A Client Request node
E. An Application View control

Correct Answer: D
Certkiller .com Communications, the nation’s second leading cable TV provider, plans to provide application integration with an existing program directory. Certkiller .com will automate the service and sell it to subscribers. To make this subscriber service as dynamic as possible, Certkiller .com has a business requirement that the service functionality can be changed later, without having to change client applications. Which is the best way to accomplish this?
A. A loosely-coupled Message-driven EJB
B. A Message Broker control that all client applications subscribe to
C. An asynchronous Web service that uses the Dynamic Invocation Interface (DII) or dynamic proxy interfaces
D. A synchronous Web service that uses DII or dynamic proxy interfaces
E. Automated distribution of a generated stub

Correct Answer: C
The Olivari Group, an electronic-components broker, has a business requirement to exchange complex business documents with suppliers and brokers. It currently uses some sophisticated manual processes for exchanging information; its goal is to automate the processes as much as possible, to free its employees to focus on more meaningful tasks. The Olivari Group wants to use well-defined, industry-standard partner interface processes. Which protocol would be the best choice?
A. ebXML
B. An asynchronous message broker control
C. RosettaNet
D. SOAP 1.2 with attachments
E. Open Collaborate

Correct Answer: C
In the exhibit, consider the following snippet of a UML activity diagram.

What is the best way to implement the Notify Customer Service Agent task?
A. Create a Message Broker Publish control that sends a message to a customer service role.
B. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a customer service role.
C. Create a Message Broker Subscribe control receiving messages from the process for the customer service role.
D. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a specific customer service agent.
E. Create a Task control assigned to a specific customer service agent.

Correct Answer: B
A Client Request node is configured to validate its input with this XML Schema:
<xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema” targetNamespace=”http://openuri.org”>
<xs:element name=”item”>
<xs:element name=”title” type=”xs:string”/>
<xs:element name=”code” type=”xs:string”/>
Why does the following XML document fail validation by the Client Request node? <item xmlns=”http://

A. The document that is sent as an argument is not well-formed.
B. The <schema> element defaults the elementFormDefault attribute to unqualified.
C. The document that is sent as an argument requires the addition of the line xmlns:tns=”http:// openuri.org”.
D. The document that is sent as an argument must specify which schema to use for validation.
E. The document that is sent as an argument must set the targetNamespace, as the schema does.

Correct Answer: B
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Field Occurrence option should the developer select for the emailAddress field?
A. Once
B. Repeat Delimiter (followed by a text box)
C. Repeat Field (followed by a pull-down menu)
D. Repeat Number (followed by a text box)
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: C
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Group Delimiter option should the developer select for the emailAddresses group?
A. None
B. Delimiter Field, with delimiter shared
C. Delimiter Field, with delimiter NOT shared
D. A or B
E. A or C
Correct Answer: A
Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to an Event Choice node?
A. A maximum of one branch of an Event Choice node is executed; any number of branches of a Parallel node can be executed.
B. An Event Choice node can have only two branches; a Parallel node can have an unlimited number of branches.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
D. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
E. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19

While creating a For Each node, a developer is shown the following schema representation in WebLogic
Which statement is false?

A. quoteRequest is an element.
B. zip is a child element of shipAddress.
C. The question marks imply optional (as opposed to mandatory) status.
D. widgetRequest is a valid repeating element over which the For Each node can iterate.
E. A maximum number of occurrences of widgetRequest can be specified in the schema.

Correct Answer: B
A developer creates a Perform node, as shown in the exhibit.

Which is the generated Java method?
A. public void perform() { }
B. public boolean perform() { }
C. static public boolean perform() { }
D. public void perform() throws Exception { }
E. public boolean perform() throws Exception { }

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A developer creates a Message Broker Publish control to publish messages to the channel that is specified
by this channel file:
<channels xmlns=”http://www.bea.com/wli/broker/channelfile” channelPrefix=”/B2B”
<channel name=”xml” messageType=”none”>
<channel name=”qrChannel” messageType=”xml”
What is the resulting name of the corresponding channel, from the viewpoint of the control?

A. B2B:qrChannel
B. /B2B/qrChannel
C. /B2B/xml/qrChannel
D. t3://www.example.org/request/B2B/qrChannel
E. http://www.example.org/request/B2B/xml/qrChannel

Correct Answer: C
Consider this code fragment: /**
public interface ApprovalCtrl extends TaskControl, com.bea.control.ControlExtension
public String certkiller(String name, XmlObject xml); Which statement about the method Certkiller is
Certkiller is a wrapper method.
Certkiller is a custom query method.
Certkiller is a custom callback method.
The extension for this source file must be .dtf
Certkiller has better type safety than the standard operations.

Correct Answer: A
Consider this process diagram in the exhibit.

The timer timeout is set to 5 s and repeats-every is set to 15 s. What happens during execution of this
A. The process instance completes in just over 5 seconds.
B. The process instance completes in just over 10 seconds.
C. The process instance completes in just over 15 seconds.
D. The process instance completes in just over 20 seconds.
E. The process instance does not successfully complete; it blocks indefinitely.

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 61
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html

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1.1 Describe common server types and connectivity found in a data center
1.2 Describe the physical components of the Cisco UCS
1.3 Describe the concepts and benefits of Cisco UCS hardware abstraction
1.4 Perform basic Cisco UCS configuration
1.4.a Cluster high availability
1.4.b Port roles
1.4.c Hardware discovery
1.5 Describe server virtualization concepts and benefits
1.5.a Hypervisors
1.5.b Virtual switches
1.5.c Shared storage
1.5.d Virtual Machine components
1.5.e Virtual Machine Manager

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As    

Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
D. IP Address

Correct Answer: C
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address

Correct Answer: C
16 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains

Correct Answer: D
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database

Correct Answer: C
View the Server group screen shot above.

A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?
17 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam
A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
Correct Answer: C
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.

A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius
attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role.
What statements below are correct?

A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role

Correct Answer: AC
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.
A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap ap mesh-radio-profile ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile ap-system-profile virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile ap-system profile aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile wlan ssid-profile virtual-ap profile

Correct Answer: B
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role
B. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile
C. A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile
D. An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile

Correct Answer: A

A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands: Vlan 55 Vlan 56 Vlan 57 Interface gigabitethernet 1/0 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk native vlan 55 switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57 Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged 20 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

Correct Answer: D
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto

Correct Answer: ABD
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

21 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell

Correct Answer: A
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned

Correct Answer: B


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