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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4

EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the PassGuide network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5

From analyzing the above command output, what is the administrative distance of the external EIGRP routes?
A. 24
B. 32
C. 90
D. 170
E. 27316
F. None of the other alternatives apply

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
While troubleshooting some connectivity issues, you issue the 搒how ip ospf database?in order to examine the link state database. Which three of the statements below are true regarding the OSPF link state database? (Select three)
A. Each router has an identical link state database.
B. External routes are imported into a separate link state database.
C. Synchronization of link state databases is maintained via flooding of LSAs.
D. Information in the link state database is used to build a routing table by calculating a shortest-path tree.
E. By default, link state databases are refreshed every 10 minutes in the absence of topology changes.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which command should you use to verify what networks are being routed by a given OSPF process?
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocol
D. show ip ospf database
E. None of the other alternatives apply

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You have a multi-area OSPF network and you’re concerned because one of the sites is having connectivity problem to resources in a different area. Which IOS privileged mode command would you enter to confirm that your network: A) has a path to its ABR, B) has a path to its ASBR, and C) the SPF calculation is functional?
A. show ip protocols
B. show running-config
C. show ip ospf neighbor
D. show ip ospf border-routers

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
An OSPF link can be in multiple states at any given moment (ie. Exstart, exchange, full). Which two IOS commands let you view the state of the link? (Select two)
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip protocols
C. show ip ospf neighbor
D. show ip ospf interface

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which command would display OSPF parameters such as filters, default metric, maximum paths, and number of areas configured on a router?
A. show ip protocol
B. show ip route
C. show ip ospf interface
D. show ip ospf
E. show ip interface
F. None of the other alternatives apply

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which IOS command would you use to find out which networks are routed by a particular OSPF process?
A. show ospf
B. show ip route
C. show ip protocols
D. show ip ospf database
E. None of the other alternatives apply

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
A problem was reported that the 10.10.10.0/24 prefix was not injected into the local BGP table on a PassGuide router named PG1. The following information is available from this router: PG1 Configuration: router bgp 65001 network 10.0.0.0 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary Routing table information: show ip route | include 10 O 10.10.10.0/24 [110/11] via 192.168.1.1, 2d00h, Ethernet0/0 Why is this prefix not in the local BGP table of the PG1?
A. The 172.16.1.1 neighbor is down.
B. The prefix 10.10.10.0/24 is not a ‘connected’ route.
C. This route is not a BGP learned route.
D. The network command is wrong.
E. None of the other alternatives apply

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which IOS command would you enter if you wanted to view a list of IBGP and EBGP neighbor relationships that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary
E. show ip bgp protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
PassGuide has a BGP network and a BGP route of 197.22.129.0/24 that should be propagated to all of the devices. The route is currently not in any of the routing tables. The PassGuide administrator determines that an access list is the cause of the problem. The administrator changes the access list to allow this route, but the route still does not appear in any of the routing tables. What should be done to propagate this route?
A. Use the service-policy command to adjust the QOS policy to allow the route to propagate.
B. Clear the BGP session.
C. Use the release BGP routing command.
D. Change both the inbound and outbound policy related to this route.
E. None of the other alternatives apply

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
The PassGuide network consists of a series of routers that are all configured for IBGP. Which one of the following IBGP characteristics is true?
A. The IBGP routers must always be fully meshed.
B. The IBGP routers can be in a different AS.
C. The IBGP routers must be directly connected.
D. The IBGP routers do not need to be directly connected.
E. None of the other alternatives apply are true.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
A BGP router is configured as shown below: interface ethernet 0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.0.0 ! int serial 0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 ! router bgp 65001 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 65002 Based on the above configuration, which of the following BGP statements would inject the 10.10.0.0/16 prefix into the BGP routing table?
A. network 10.0.0.0
B. network 10.10.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
C. network 10.10.10.1 mask 255.255.255.255
D. network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
E. network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Router PG-1 is configured for BGP routing as shown below: router bgp 65300 network 27.0.0.0 neighbor 192.23.1.1 remote-as 65300 From the perspective of router PG-1, what kind of router is the router with IP address 192.23.1.1?
A. A peer router running IBGP
B. A peer router running EBGP
C. A community member running IBGP
D. A peer group member running IBGP
E. A peer group member running EBGP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which three of the following network features are methods used to achieve high availability? (Select all that apply.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
B. Delay reduction
C. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP)
D. Dynamic routing protocols
E. Quality of Service (QoS)
F. Jitter management

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which of the following characteristics describe the BPDU Guard feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A BPDU Guard port should only be configured on ports with PortFast enabled.
B. BPDU Guard and PortFast should not be enabled on the same port.
C. BPDU Guard is used to ensure that superior BPDUs are not received on a switch port.
D. A BPDU Guard port receiving a BPDU will go into err-disable state.
E. A BPDU Guard port receiving a BPDU will be disabled.
F. BPDU Guard can be enabled on any switch port.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are valid modes of accessing the data plane? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Serial connection
B. Secure Shell
C. RADIUS
D. Simple Network Management Protocol
E. HTTP
F. Telnet

Correct Answer: ABDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an essential prerequisite for AutoQoS to be correctly applied to an interface? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The interface must be configured as a Multilink PPP interface.
B. The correct bandwidth should be configured on the interface.
C. A QoS policy must not be currently attached to the interface.
D. CEF must be enabled.
E. AutoQoS must be enabled globally before it can be enabled on the interface.
F. An IP address must be configured on the interface if its speed is equal to or less than 768 kbps.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which of the following topology situations would be a qood candidate for configuring DMVPN?
A. Extranet VPN
B. Managed overlay VPN topology
C. Hub-and-spoke VPN topology
D. Central-site VPN topology
E. Full mesh VPN topology
F. Remote-access VPN topology

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not considered a common approach to narrow the field of potential problem causes? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Following the traffic path
B. Top-down
C. Comparing configurations
D. Bottom-up
E. Divide and conquer
F. Examine SLAs

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Which of the following best describes the following command: ip flow-export destination
192.168.1.50 1500?
A. it is not a valid NetFlow command.
B. it is an SNMP command that exports 1500-byte packets to IP address 192.168.1.50.
C. it is a NetFlov/ command that v/ill export 1500-byte packets to IP address 192.168.1.50.
D. it is a NetFlov/ command that allows IP address 192.168.1.50 to send traffic to port 1500.
E. It is a NetFlov/ command that v/ill specify that the NetFlov/ collector’s IP address is
192.168.1.50 over UDP port 1500.
F. It is an SNMP command that exports flows to destination address 1Q2.168.1.50 for packets up to an MTU of 1500.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are valid methods of providing a router with information concerning the location of the RP? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Statically defined RP
B. Bootstrap Router
C. Auto-RP
D. RP Discovery Protocol (RDP)
E. RP Helios
F. RPARP(RARP)

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which of the following are shared distribution tree characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Memory requirements are higher for shared distribution tree than for source distribution tree.
B. Creates a tree from a central RP to all last-hop routers.
C. Uses a rendezvous point.
D. An optimal path is created between each source router and each last-hop router.
E. Place (S,G) entry in each router’s multicast routing table.
F. Place (*,G) entry in a router’s multicast routing to table.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is an accurate description of the command copy startup-config ftp://kevin:[email protected]?
A. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to RAM.
B. The command is not valid on a Cisco router.
C. The configuration file in RAM is copied to an FTP server.
D. The configuration file in NVRAM is copied to an FTP server.
E. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to NVRAM.
F. The configuration will be copied from NVRAM to an FTP server with a filename of Kevin.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which of the following commands can be used to gather information about the AS-PATH of a BGP route? (Choose all that apply.)
A. show ip bgp neighbors
B. debug ip bgp updates
C. show ip route bgp
D. show ip bgp
E. show ip bgp summary
F. sh ip bgp database

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
How long will a port remain in the listening state by default?
A. Depends on the number of switches in the spanning tree domain
B. 50 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. Until the root directs it to start forwarding
E. 20 seconds
F. Depends on the pott speed

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31

A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is in a standby state. Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which of the following is not a valid reason for a packet to be punted?
A. The TCAM has reached capacity
B. An unknown destination MAC address
C. A packet being discarded due to a security violation
D. A Telnet packet from a session being initiated with the switch
E. Routing protocols sending broadcast traffic
F. A packet belonging to a GRE tunnel

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which of the following are not true OSPF LSA rules?
A. OSPF LSA type 5 triggers an LSA type 7 at an ABR between an NSSA and the backbone area.
B. OSPF LSA type 1 triggers an LSA type 3 at an ABR.
C. OSPF LSA type 7 triggers an LSA type 5 at an ABR between an NSSA and the backbone area.
D. OSPF LSA type 3 triggers an LSA type 4 at an ABR.
E. OSPF LSA type 5 triggers an LSA type 7 at an A5BR but only in N5SAs.
F. OSFP LSA type 2 triggers an LSA type 3 at an ABR.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Several troubleshooters are about to work on the same problem. Which of the following troubleshooting methods would be most appropriate to make the best use of the troubleshooters1 time?
A. Bottom up
B. Component swapping
C. Top down
D. Shoot from the hip
E. Divide and conquer
F. Follow the traffic path

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are not BGRP data structures? (Choose all that apply.)
A. EIGRP database table
B. EIGRP CEF table
C. EIGRP neighbor table
D. EIGRP adjacency table
E. EIGRP interface table
F. EIGRP topology table

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a valid host IPv6 address? (Choose all that apply.)
A. ff02:a:b:c::l/64
B. 2001:aaaa: 1234:456c: 1/64
C. 2001:000a:lb2c::/64
D. 2fff:f:f:f::f/64
E. ff02:33ab:l:32::2/128
F. 2001:bad:2345:a:b::cef/128

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
You examine the port statistics on a Cisco Catalyst switch and notice an excessive number of frames are being dropped. Which of the following are possible reasons for the drops?
A. Unknown destination MAC address
B. Bad cabling
C. MAC forwarding table is full
D. Port configured for half duplex
E. Port configured for full duplex
F. Network congestion

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which of the following would be considered reasonable network maintenance tasks? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensuring compliance with legal regulations and corporate policies
B. Troubleshooting problem reports
C. Planning for network expansion
D. Providing support to sales and marketing
E. Giving presentations to management
F. Monitoring and tuning network performance

Correct Answer: ABCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which of the following options represents the correct sequence of DHCP messages after a client initially boots?
A. DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPACK
B. DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK
C. DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK
E. DHCPREQUE5T, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK
F. DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPACK, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which of the following statements regarding documentation would not be considered a helpful step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Use the Cisco Auto Configuration tool.
B. Use the Cisco Rollback feature.
C. Automate documentation.
D. Schedule documentation checks.
E. Use the Cisco Configuration Archive tool.
F. Require documentation prior to a ticket being closed out.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements are true concerning the command ip sla monitor responder type tcpconnect ipaddress 10.1.1.1 port 23? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The command will initiate a probe with a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1.
B. The command is used on the IP SLA responder and the IP SLA source.
C. The command will allow only source address 10.1.1.1 to source probes.
D. The command will initiate a probe with a destination Telnet port.
E. The command is used to make the router a responder.
F. The command will initiate a probe with a source port of 23.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
In what situation would the command ip helper-address be required? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only when there is a duplicate IP address caused by a combination of static and dynamic IP address allocations
B. On each router that exists between the client and the server
C. Only when a router separates the client from the server
D. Only if the DHCP sever issues a DHCPNAK to the initial request
E. Only when the client is on the same subnet as the server
F. Only when the DHCP pool is out of IP addresses

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which of the following commands will restore a previously archived configuration by replacing the running configuration with the archived configuration?
A. configure archive running-config
B. configure replace
C. copy archive running config
D. copy startup-config running-config
E. copy tftp running-config
F. configure tftp running-config
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fast switching?
A. Fast switching reduces a routers CPU utilization, compared to process switching.
B. All packets of a flow, except for the first packet, use the information in the fast cache.
C. It can be enabled with the interface command ip route-cache.
D. Fast switching uses a fast cache maintained in a router’s control plane.
E. The fast cache contains information about how traffic from different data flows should be forwarded.
F. Even though the fast switching is enabled, the first packet of a flow is still process switched.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which of the following commands will display a router’s crypto map IPsec security association settings?
A. show crypto map ipsec sa
B. show crypto map
C. show crypto engine connections active
D. show ipsec crypto map
E. show crypto map sa
F. show ipsec crypto map sa

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Which of the following pieces of information will the command show interface provide? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Layer 1 status
B. Output queue drops
C. Interface CPU utilization
D. Cable type connected to interface
E. Layer 2 status
F. Input queue drops

Correct Answer: ABEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47

Which of the following statements concerning IGMP are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
A. With IGMPvl, queries are sent to a specific group.
B. Hosts issuing IGMPvl requests will be correctly interpreted by IGMPv2 hosts due to backward compatibility.
C. An IGMPv2 router will ignore IGMPv2 leave messages when IGMFVl hosts are present.
D. With IGMFV2, a leave message is supported.
E. An IGMPv2 host will send an IGMFVl report on an IGMFVl router.
F. An IGMPv2 router can only allow IGMPv2 hosts to execute a join request.

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which of the following are byproducts of a structured maintenance plan? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Predictable security vulnerabilities
B. Economies of scale
C. Improved expenditure forecasts
D. Increased downtime
E. Predictable equipment obsolescence
F. Consumption of fewer resources

Correct Answer: ABCEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
Which of the following are correct statements?
A. EIGRP advertises the best routes to its neighbor.
B. EIGRP uses “cost” to determine best path.
C. EIGRP allows unequal cost load balancing.
D. OSPF requires neighbor adjacencies before updates are sent.
E. EIGRP advertises all routes to its neighbor.
F. OSPF allows unequal cost load balancing.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which of the following commands will remove all dynamic entries for a router’s NAT table?
A. clear nat translations
B. clear ip nat translations*
C. clear ip nat statistics
D. clear ip nat transactions *
E. clear ip nat translations
F. clear ip nat translations all

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam B

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are TACACS+ characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cisco proprietary
B. Standards-based protocol
C. Provides separate services for authentication, authorization, and accounting
D. Encrypts only the password
E. Uses UDP for a transport layer
F. Encrypts the entire packet

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are common issues that should be considered when establishing or troubleshooting site-to-site VPNs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. User authentication
B. Overlapping IP address space
C. GRE or IPsec configuration
D. MTU size
E. VPN client software
F. Authentication server configured ly

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which of the following would provide good baseline documentation to have on hand when analyzing potential problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. User authentication ID and password
B. User profile
C. Output of debug
D. Output of show interface
E. Result of ping
F. Output of show process cpu

Correct Answer: CDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following characteristics describe the Root Guard feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The port must be put into forwarding state manually after root-inconsistent state has been corrected.
B. A Root Guard port receiving superior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
C. A Root Guard port receiving inferior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
D. While the port is in a root-inconsistent state no user data is sent across that port.
E. The port returns to a forwarding state if inferior BPDUs stop.
F. It should be applied to all switch ports.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands provides data plane information required to forward a packet to a specific ip address?
A. sh ip route
B. sh ip cef <ip_address>
C. sh adjacency <ip_address>
D. sh ip route <ip_addres$>
E. sh ip adjacency </p_address>
F. sh ip cef <mac_addrQss> <ip_address>

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of the following management types can be used to deploy appropriate quality-ofservice solutions to make the most efficient use of bandwidth?
A. Fault management
B. Accounting management
C. Operations management
D. Performance management
E. Security management
F. Configuration management

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Whichof the following are valid modes of packet switching on most routers? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cisco Express Fonvarding
B. FIB switching
C. Cache switching
D. Optimized switching
E. Process switching
F. Fast switching

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an unlikely reason for the ARP process to fail?
A. CEF switching is disabled on the switch
B. The source device and destination device are in different VLANs
C. The VLAN is excluded from the trunk
D. The host is connected to the switch through an IP phone
E. A faulty cable from host to switch or between switches
F. The trunking encapsulation type is inconsistent on the two ends of the link

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Cisco Express Forwarding?
A. The adjacency table is populated from a router’s ARP cache.
B. CEF does not require the first packet of a data flow to be process switched.
C. CEF maintains the Forward Information Base and the adjacency table.
D. CEF can be enabled with the interface command ip cef.
E. The FIB is populated from a router’s IP routing table.
F. On most router platforms CEF is enabled by default.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following are considered subcomponents of the problem diagnosis step of the troubleshooting flow? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Eliminate potential causes
B. Collect information
C. Document causes
D. Hypothesize underlying causes
E. Verif/ hypothesis
F. Examine collected information

Correct Answer: ABDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which of the following virtual MAC addresses is correct for the HSRP group 22?
A. 0000.0c70.ac22
B. 0000.0c07.22ac
C. 0000.0c07.acl6
D. 0000.0c07.ac22
E. 0000.0c70.cala
F. 0000.0d22.ac07

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which of the following procedures are involved in the recommended three-step troubleshooting flow? (Choose the best three answers.)
A. Problem report
B. Problem collaboration
C. Problem diagnosis
D. Problem resolution
E. Problem documentation
F. Probiem authentication

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which of the following data structures exist on a router for the OSPF routing protocol?
A. OSPF topology table
B. OSPF interface table
C. OSPF routing information base
D. OSPF link-state database
E. OSPF adjacency table
F. OSPF neighbor table

Correct Answer: BCDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14

A router simultaneously receives all the following routes in various routing updates. Which of the following routes would end up in the routing table? (Choose all that apply.)
A. RIP route 10.1.2.0/24
B. EIGRP route 10.1.2.0/24
C. RIP route 10.1.0.0/16
D. OSPF route 10.1.0.0/16
E. RIP route 10.0.0.0/16
F. OSPF route 10.1.2.0/24

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands would result in the following output: M.M.M
A. Ping 10.1.1.1 Data Pattern M.
B. Ping 10.1.1.1 timeout 0
C. Ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit
D. Ping 10.1.1.1 source loopback 0
E. Ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500
F. Ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 Strict

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands will cause RIPng to originate a default route advertisement while suppressing all other routes?
A. Rl(config-if)#ipv6 default-information originate
B. Rl(config-router)#ipv6 rip <process-name> default-information only
C. Rl(config)#ipv6 route ::/0 null 0
D. Rl(config-if)#ipv6 rip <process-name> default-information only
E. Rl(config-router)#ipv6 rip route ;:/0 originate
F. Rl(config-router)#aggregate-address ::/0 summarize-routes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
The 0SPFv3 process will send hello packets to which of the follov/ing well-known addresses?
A. 255.255.255.255
B. 224.0.0.6
C. FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFF:FFF
D. FF02::10
E. 224.0.0.10
F. FF02::5

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands shows all routes learned via EIGRP? (Choose all that apply.)
A. show ip eigrp topology
B. show ip eigrp adjacency
C. show ip eigrp routes
D. show ip eigrp database
E. show ip route eigrp
F. show ip eigrp forwarding

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which of the following three port types are valid Spanning Tree port types? (Choose the best three answers.)
A. Designated port
B. Nonswitch port
C. Switch port
D. Nonroot port
E. Nondesignated port
F. Root port

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a valid method for defining a seed metric? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The default-metric command configured under the appropriate interface
B. The metric parameter in the network command of a routing process
C. The metric parameter in the redistribute command
D. The default-metric command
E. A route-map containing a seed command F. A route map containing a metric command

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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