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QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other’s routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F.     Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true?
A. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is an IS-IS external route.
B. The R1 IS-IS router is an ASBR.
C. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a suppressed route.
D. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a summary route.
E. The R1 IS-IS router is an ABR that belongs to multiple IS-IS areas.
F.     The R1 IS-IS router is performing route aggregation and is suppressing the more specific 10.1.0.0/23 prefix.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
E. The multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
F.     To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which three statements are true about the dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) feature? (Choose three.)
A. DAI can be performed on ingress ports only.
B. DAI can be performed on both ingress and egress ports.
C. DAI is supported on access and trunk ports only.
D. DAI is supported on access ports, trunk ports, EtherChannel ports, and private VLAN ports.
E. DAI should be configured on all access switch ports as untrusted and on all switch ports connected to other switches as trusted.
F.     DAI should be enabled on the root switch for particular VLANs only in order to secure the ARP caches of hosts in the domain.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F.     supports demand circuit routing

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
LAB
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. HSRP has been configured and Link A is the primary route to router R4. When Link A fails, router R2 (Link B) becomes the active router. Which router will assume the active role when Link A becomes operational again?
A. The primary router R1 will reassume the active role when it comes back online.
B. The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of its own failure.
C. The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of Link B failure.
D. The third member of the HSRP group, router R3, will take over the active role only in event of router R2 failure.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is connected to networks 172.16.1.0 /26 and 172.16.1.64 /27. On the basis of the partial output in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Router R1 will advertise both routes.
B. Router R1 will deny the 172.16.1.0/26 route while permitting the 172.16.1.64/27 route to be advertised.
C. Router R1 will deny the 172.16.1.0/27 route while permitting the 172.16.1.0/26 route to be advertised.
D. Router R1 should be reconfigured with an ACL instead of an ip prefix-list command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Which statement describes the function of a trust boundary?
A. Trust boundaries determine whether certain types of traffic can pass.
B. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where decisions about CoS markings on incoming packets are made.
C. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where QoS functionality begins and ends.
D. Trust boundaries are points in the network where Layer 2 CoS markings are converted to Layer 3 DSCP or IP precedence markings.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 137
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128?
A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
LAB
A. 1. Seed metric for EIGRP must have the following characteristics: Bandwidth=512 Kbps
2.
Delay=100

3.
Reliability=255

4.
Load=1

5.
MTU=1500
Seed metric for IS-IS must be set to 50.
Only redistribute Level-1 IS-IS routes into EIGRP.
Redistribute EIGPR routes into IS-IS as Level-1 routes.
Correct

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Blockade# conf t Blockade(config)# router isis Blockade(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50
Blockade(config)# router eigrp 100 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute isis level-1 metric 512 10 255 1 1500 Blockade(config-router)# redistribute connected Blockade# copy run start
Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. If the configuration shown below is added to RTA, which three route entries will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers?(Choose three.)
router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 eigrp stub
A. 10.1.3.0/24
B. 10.1.2.0/24
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.1.1.0/24
E. 192.168.20.0/24

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1. Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
A network administrator is troubleshooting a route redistribution configuration between EIGRP 100 and
OSPF 1. Currently, some of the networks, such as network
10.1.1.0/24 and network 10.2.2.0/24 within the EIGRP domain are not being redistributed into OSPF 1.
Given the above configuration, what is the problem?

A. The redistribute command should specify metric-type 2.
B. The redistribute command is missing the subnets option.
C. The redistribute command should be configured under eigrp 100.
D. The redistribute command should use an EIGRP compatible metric value such as 64 1000 100 1 1500.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. The default metric is 10.
B. The default metric is 20.
C. The default metric type is 2.
D. The default metric type is 1.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.
F. Subnets redistribute by default.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the to exhibit. Based on the configuration and the default behavior of the routing protocols, which network will be present in the routing table of R4?

A. Network A, which is automatically redistributed between two different EIGRP autonomous systems.
B. Network B, which is redistributed using the redistribute statement under EIGRP 100.
C. Network A, which is automatically redistributed between two different EIGRP autonomous systems and Network B which is redistributed using the redistribute statement.
D. Only networks belonging to EIGRP 100 will be present in the routing table of R4.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
What are two routing protocols defined by the OSI protocol suite at the network layer? (Choose two.)
A. End System-to-End System
B. Routing Information Protocol
C. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
D. End System-to-Intermediate System
E. Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the voice traffic coming to the switch access port that is connected to the IP phone?

A. The voice VLAN must be configured as a native VLAN on the switch.
B. The traffic on the voice VLAN must be tagged with 802.1p encapsulation in order to coexist on the same LAN segment with a PC.
C. A PC connected to a switch port via an IP phone must support a trunking encapsulation.
D. A PC connected to a switch port via an IP phone is unaware of the presence of the phone.
E. To improve the quality of the voice traffic, no other devices should be attached to the IP phone.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
What is correct about the BGP synchronization command? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronization must be enabled when implementing a multi-homed BGP connection to multiple ISPs.
B. If it is turned ON, a prefix learned from IBGP neighbor is valid only if a non-bgp (IGP) route exists for that prefix.
C. Synchronization is necessary when peering with an EBGP neighbor.
D. Synchronization improves BGP routing convergence.
E. Synchronization can be turned off if all the transit routers in an Autonomous system running full mesh IBGP.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. R1 is configured with the ip summary-address command.
B. The route to 10.2.0.0/16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
C. R1 is configured with the variance command.
D. A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system.
E. The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with the ip default-network 0.0.0.0 command.
F. R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
A. It is known only to the local switch where the port resides.
B. It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection.
C. Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge.
D. When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 141
Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Choose two.)
A. An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP topology table.
B. An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table.
C. DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown state.
D. A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only after all the query requests have been replied to.
E. The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out.
F. EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment process.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Based on the exhibit, which statement is true.

A. There is a match entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP permit 30 statement.
B. All routes not matching access list 101 or 110 will be flagged as an OSPF external type 2 with a metric of 5000.
C. There is a set entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP deny 20 statement.
D. All routes matching access list 110 will be forwarded.
E. The set metric-type entry is not a valid route-map command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
What is the purpose of the eigrp stub configuration command?
A. to increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range
B. to reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes into the EIGRP stub router
C. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router
D. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.)
A. 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B
B. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
C. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B
E. 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B
F. 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.

A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server
switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
switch(config)#vlan 20
switch(config)#vlan 31
switch(config)#int vlan 20
switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0
switch(if-config)#no shut
switch(if-config)#int vlan 31
switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0
switch(if-config)#no shut
switch(if-config)#exit
switch#ip routing
switch#copy run start
vtp client configuration:
switch#conf t
switch(config)#vtp mode client
switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
switch#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 186
Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Given the NSAP, 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
A. 39
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Refer to the exhibit. By default, when RTB passes BGP advertisements from RTA about network
192.168.2.0 to RTC, what address will be listed as the next-hop address?

A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 192.168.1.49
D. 192.168.1.50

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
OSPF is configured over a Frame Relay network as shown in the exhibit. All PVCs are active. However, R1 and R3 fail to see all OSPF routes in their routing tables. The show ip ospf neighbor command executed on R2 shows the state of the neighbors. What should be done to fix the problem?

A. The ip ospf network non-broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.
B. The ip ospf network broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
C. The neighbor command should be configured under the OSPF routing process on all routers.
D. The ip ospf priority value on the hub router should be set to 0.
E. The ip ospf priority value on the spoke routers should be set to 0.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?

A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
PassGuide 642-892
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN. E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 196
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. network 10.10.10.0
C. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
D. no synchronization

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process 1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 202
Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?

A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1 (config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.

B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?

A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled?

A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos trust override cos
B. mls qos trust cos
C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
D. switchport priority extend cos_value
E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x- enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 107
What is IPv6 router solicitation?
A. a request made by a node for the IP address of the local router
B. a request made by a node for its IP address
C. a request made by a node for the IP address of the DHCP server
D. a request made by a node to join a specified multicast group

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)

A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
For IPv6, what term or phrase best describes a type 9 LSA in OSPF?
A. router LSA
B. interarea prefix LSA
C. link LSA
D. interarea prefix LSA for ABRs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be forwarded to autonomous system 300?

A. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
B. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned off.
C. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 ?R2 and R2 ?R3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
D. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 ?R2 and R2 ?R3, and the synchronization must be turned off.
E. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned on.
F. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three.)

A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address
172.16.11.111.
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Which three conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose three.)
A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B. The EBGP neighbor ebgp-multihop option is set to the default value.
C. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
D. BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors.
E. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
F. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement.

Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which three of the following protocols will be forwarded to a host specified by the ip helper-address interface configuration command if the configuration has not been modified by the ip forward-protocol udp global configuration command? (Choose three.)
A. ARP
B. proxy-ARP
C. DNS
D. BOOTP
E. FTP
F. TFTP

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
A. vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit. The 6to4 overlay tunnel configuration has been applied on each router to join isolated IPv6 networks over a IPv4 network. Which statements regarding the 6to4 overlay tunnel is true?
A. The least significant 32 bits in the address referenced by the ipv6 route 2002::/16 Tunnel0 command
will correspond to the interface E0/0 IPv4 address.
B. The least significant 32 bits in the address referenced by the ipv6 route 2002::/16 Tunnel0 command will correspond to the IPv4 address assigned to the tunnel source.
C. The configuration is invalid since the tunnel source command must be configured with an IPv6 address.
D. This is actually a configuration example of an IPv4-compatible tunnel and not a 6to4 tunnel.
E. This is actually a configuration example of an ISATAP overlay tunnel and not a 6to4 tunnel.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf 1 area 0?
A. It must be issued in router global configuration mode to enable the OSPF process for IPv6.
B. It must be issued in interface configuration mode to enable the OSPF process for IPv6.
C. It must be issued before the network command to enable the OSPF process for IPv6.
D. It must be issued after the network command to enable the OSPF process for IPv6.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which EIGRP packet statement is true?
A. On high-speed links, hello packets are broadcast every 5 seconds for neighbor discovery.
B. On low-speed links, hello packets are broadcast every 15 seconds for neighbor discovery.
C. Reply packets are multicast to IP address 224.0.0.10 using RTP.
D. Update packets route reliable change information only to the affected routers.
E. Reply packets are used to send routing updates.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 110
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. flow label
C. dual stack
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. mobile IP

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three.)

A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address
172.16.11.111.
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message.
An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 address for the host
B. lifetime of the prefix
C. prefixes for the link
D. keepalive timers
E. request for the local host IP address
F. any route advertisements it has received

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 117
Refer to the topology diagram. R3 is redistributing the EIGRP routes into OSPF. What will the EIGRP routes appear as in the routing table of R1?

A. O
B. O IA
C. O E2
D. D
E. D EX

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which set of statements about Spanning Tree Protocol default timers is true?
A. The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 10 seconds. The max_age timer is 15 seconds.
B. The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 15 seconds. The max_age timer is 20 seconds.
C. The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 20 seconds. The max_age timer is 30 seconds.
D. The hello time is 5 seconds. The forward delay is 10 seconds. The max_age timer is 15 seconds.
E. The hello time is 5 seconds. The forward delay is 15 seconds. The max_age timer is 20 seconds.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 119
A network administrator recently redistributed RIP routes into an OSPF domain. However, the administrator wants to configure the network so that instead of 32 external type-5 LSAs flooding into the OSPF network, there is only one. What must the administrator do to accomplish this?

A. Configure summarization on R1 with area 1 range 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0
B. Configure summarization on R1 with summary-address 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0
C. Configure area 1 as a stub area with area 1 stub
D. Configure area 1 as a NSSA area with area 1 stub nssa

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on router R2. On router R4, all RIP routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain. A second redistribution is configured on router R2 using a route map. Based on the configuration on R2, which EIGRP external routes will be present in the routing table of R1?

A. Only routes originating in the OSPF routing domain.
B. The routes originating from the RIP routing domain.
C. All routes originating from RIP and OSPF routing domains.
D. There will be no EIGRP external routes in the routing table of R1.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?

A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which two statements are true about external BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes or an interior gateway protocol is required between EBGP neighbors.
B. EBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
C. EBGP neighbors use TCP port 179 to exchange BGP routing tables.
D. Loopback addresses should be used between EBGP neighbors.
E. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other EBGP peers.
F. When an EBGP neighbor receives an update from another EBGP neighbor, it should not forward the update to other EBGP neighbors.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Based on the P1R3 show ip bgp output, which statement is true?

A. The best path to reach the 192.168.11.0 prefix is via 10.200.200.11.
B. The best path to reach the 192.168.11.0 prefix is via 10.200.200.12.
C. The best path to reach the 192.168.11.0 prefix is via both 10.200.200.11 and 10.200.200.12; BGP will automatically load balance between the two.
D. The 192.168.11.0 and 192.168.12.0 prefixes were learned via EBGP from the 10.200.200.11 and
10.200.200.12 EBGP neighbors.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 123
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled by R5 in OSPF area 5?

A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only.
C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 126
Which two statements are true about port security? (Choose two.)
A. With port security configured, four MAC addresses are allowed by default.
B. Port security cannot be configured for ports supporting VoIP.
C. With port security configured, only one MAC address is allowed by default.
D. The network administrator must manually enter the MAC address for each device in order for the switch to allow connectivity.
E. Port security can be configured for ports supporting VoIP.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller? (Choose three.)

A. the transmission of beacon frames
B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?
A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to authenticate the client to the access point.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the repeater access point that is deployed in this wireless network? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The repeater access point should use a different SSID than the SSID configured on the parent access point.
B. The repeater access point should use a different WEP encryption method than the WEP encryption that is enabled on the parent access point.
C. The repeater access point reduces the throughput in half because it receives and then re-transmits each packet on the same channel.
D. The repeater access point requires a 10 percent channel overlap with channel of the root access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS+ can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Which statement is true about the data traffic between the access point and controller?
A. The data traffic is switched at the access point before being sent to the WLAN controller where VLAN tagging and QoS are applied.
B. The data traffic is encrypted with AES.
C. The data traffic between the access point and controller is encrypted.
D. The data traffic is encapsulated with LWAPP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. If VLAN 21 does not exist before typing the commands, what is the result of the configuration applied on switch SW1?

A. A new VLAN 21 is created and port 0/8 is assigned to that VLAN.
B. A new VLAN 21 is created, but no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
C. No VLAN 21 is created and no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
D. Configuration command vlan database should be used first to create the VLAN 21.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 134
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the switch SW2 is connected to the rest of the network in the VTP domain Lab_Network?

A. The recently introduced switch SW2 adds one more VLAN to the VLAN database in the VTP domain.
B. The recently introduced switch SW2 creates a STP loop in the VTP domain.
C. The recently introduced switch SW2 removes all configured VLANs throughout the VTP domain.
D. The recently introduced switch SW2 switches over to VTP transparent mode in order to be included into the VTP domain.
E. A trunk should be configured between the two switches in order to integrate SW2 into the VTP domain.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which routing protocol will continue to receive and process routing updates from neighbors after the passive- interface router configuration command is entered?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Given the following partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. DR/BDR elections do not take place.
B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the number of times that the OSPF Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm has been executed?
A. show ip protocol PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ip ospf
D. show ip ospf database

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using aggregate routes
B. disabling synchronization
C. forcing the next-hop address
D. defining routes via the network statement

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that neighbor
172.16.254.3 is in?
A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.
B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer.
C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer.
D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Above is the output from show ip bgp neighbors command. What is line 21 stating about the BGP connection?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. the number of consecutive TCP connections to the specified remote neighbor
B. the number of times the router has established a TCP connection
C. the number of total TCP connections that the router has
D. the number of neighbors that the router has

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
IS-IS is often considered an alternative to OSPF in the IP world. Which two statements identify similarities between IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. support for designated intermediate systems and backup designated intermediate systems
B. support for multiple areas per router
C. support for classless routing
D. support for address summarization between areas
E. support for both DIS adjacencies and neighbor adjacencies

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152
In an IS-IS environment, what happens when the designated IS router crashes?
A. The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS indefinitely without the necessity of a new election.
B. The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS temporarily without the necessity of a new election, until the original DIS comes back online.
C. A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS that will remain in place indefinitely.
D. A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS until a router with a higher priority or MAC address establishes an adjacency.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 153
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Flydumps.com Cisco 642-892 material details are researched and created by the most professional certified authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps. You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books, but logic is the main key of success. And Flydumps.com will give you this key of success.

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit. What should be taken into consideration when using the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) to configure the static WEP keys on the wireless client adapter?

A. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the AP and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
B. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the authentication server and forwarded to the client adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
C. In infrastructure mode the client adapter WEP key must match the WEP key used by the access point. In ad hoc mode all client WEP keys within the wireless network must match each other.
D. Before the client adapter WEP key is generated, all wireless infrastructure devices (such as access points, servers, etc.) must be properly configured for LEAP authentication.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 61
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability, load, and MTU.
C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access point go through to create a connection?
A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F.     When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?

A. auto qos voip cisco-phone
B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

e
A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
What are three examples of call control signaling? (Choose three.)
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. G.711
D. G.729
E. H.323
F. SIP

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. R1 is configured with the ip summary-address command.
B. The route to 10.2.0.0
C. 16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
D. R1 is configured with the variance command.
E. A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system.
F. The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with the ip default-network 0.0.0.0 command.
G. R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?

A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP. Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information that is given, how will voice traffic from the phone and data traffic from the PC be handled by SW_1?

A. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice and data traffic that comes into the switch port.
B. The switch port will perform marking for the ingress voice and data traffic by using the default CoS value at the switch port.
C. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice traffic. Data traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
D. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress data traffic. Voice traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
What is the IPv6 address FF02::2 used for?
A. all hosts in a local segment
B. all routers in a local segment
C. all hosts in a particular multicast group
D. all routers in an autonomous system

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
What is one method that can be used to prevent VLAN hopping?
A. Configure ACLs.
B. Enforce username
C. password combinations.
D. Configure all frames with two 802.1Q headers.
E. Explicitly turn off Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) on all unused ports.
F. Configure VACLs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
When an attacker is using switch spoofing to perform VLAN hopping, how is the attacker able to gather information?
A. The attacking station uses DTP to negotiate trunking with a switch port and captures all traffic that is allowed on the trunk
B. The attacking station tags itself with all usable VLANs to capture data that is passed through the switch, regardless of the VLAN to which the data belongs.
C. The attacking station will generate frames with two 802.1Q headers to cause the switch to forward the frames to a VLAN that would be inaccessible to the attacker through legitimate means.
D. The attacking station uses VTP to collect VLAN information that is sent out and then tags itself with the domain information in order to capture the data.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)

A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F.     The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which three statements are true about EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. Manual route summarization is configured in router configuration mode when the router is configured for EIGRP routing.
B. Manual route summarization is configured on the interface.
C. When manual summarization is configured, the summary route will use the metric of the largest specific metric of the summary routes.
D. The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of
90.
E. The ip summary-address eigrp command generates a default route with an administrative distance of
5.
F.     When manual summarization is configured, the router immediately creates a route that points to null0 interface.

Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
An IPv6 overlay tunnel is required to communicate with isolated IPv6 networks across an IPv4 infrastructure. There are currently five IPv6 overlay tunnel types. Which three IPv6 overlay tunnel statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Overlay tunnels can only be configured between border routers capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv6-compatible, 4to6, and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
D. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv4-compatible, 6to4, and Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
E. An manual overlay tunnel supports point-to-multipoint tunnels capable of carrying IPv6 and Connectionless Network Service (CLNS) packets.
F.     Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is enabled on all routers on the network. What additional configuration is required for the routers connected over the Frame Relay multipoint interfaces to compensate for a low-speed NBMA connection?

A. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 5 seconds.
B. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 60 seconds.
C. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 15 seconds.
D. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 180 seconds.
E. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the committed information rate (CIR).
F.     Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the lowest CIR multiplied by the number of PVCs for the multipoint connection.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?

A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 89
Which two statements about HSRP priority are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 90
Which statement is true about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)?
A. The control traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with the LWAPP.
B. Data traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with LWAPP.
C. Authentication, security, and mobility are handled by the access point.
D. Real-time frame exchange is accomplished within the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F. supports demand circuit routing

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true about the operation of voice VLANs on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to create multiple queues for traffic that is entering a port.
B. Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to forward frames with a specific 802.1P marking.
C. Voice VLANs are configured to enable the switch to forward frames marked with the proper CoS values over separate physical links.
D. When voice VLANs are configured on a trunk link, UplinkFast must also be enabled.
E. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol establishes an optimal path to the root in a wireless mesh network?

A. WLAN Quality of Service (WQoS)
B. 802.1Q WLAN trunking protocol
C. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)
D. Layer 2 Roaming (IAPP)
E. Adaptive Wireless Path (AWP)

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which statement is true about IPv6?
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node.
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit?

A. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90
B. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
C. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
D. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which three components are included in the Cisco autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)
B. Access Control Server (ACS)
C. Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. Wireless Services Module (WiSM)
E. Wireless Domain Services (WDS)
F. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0
D. 16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0
F. 24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
G. The route to 224.69.15.0
H. 24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that neighbor
172.16.254.3 is in?

A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.
B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer.
C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer.
D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator consoles into the ASw1 switch and attempts to save the switch configuration to the TFTP server that is located at IP address 10.1.2.10/24. However, whenever the copy running-config tftp command is issued with default options on switch ASw1, an error is produced. Which configuration would correct this situation?

A. ASw1# copy tftp running-config
B. ASw1(config)# interface range fastethernet 0/1 – 24 ASw1(config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
C. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
D. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/1 RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
E. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 RTA(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10
F.     RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/1 RTA(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: