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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
In CRS Administration, what is created on the CommunicationsManager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?
A. set
B. call subflow
C. on exception goto
D. get reporting statistic
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three tasks are supported by the cisco supervisor desktop?
A. push a web page to an agent s cisco agent desktop
B. chat with an agent
C. log in an agent
D. change an agent s state to ready
E. send an email to an agent
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the custormer
B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer
C. the personal line of the agent to the customer
D. a CTI port the agent then redirected to the customer
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Presence integration is a Cisco unified CCX teature available in which of these packages?
A. premium, enhanced,and standard
B. premium only
C. premium with high availability only
D. premium and enhanced\
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which step would you use to get information about the numbet of contacts currently in queue?
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A. get contact info
B. get session info
C. get call contact info
D. get reporting statistics
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the maximux number of concurrent emailsan agent can have ?
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Cisco 640-916 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 640-916 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 640-916 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 640-916 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.
The Cisco 640-916 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
Exam A QUESTION 1
1. By what percentage is the congestion window reduced when the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 12 %
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
2. Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. NP_Port
B. E_Port
C. N_Port
D. NL_Port
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
3. What is the benefit of a modular data center design?
A. ease of management
B. doesn’t require configuration
C. resilience
D. one size fits all
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
4. What information do bridges and switches use to forward data?
A. destination MAC address
B. destination IP address
C. they send all data to all ports, save port it was received on
D. destination hostname
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
5. What do the following commands accomplish? N100v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N100v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
A. Pushes the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vcenter server on the Nexus N1000v-VSM
B. Displays the configuration of the port profile named VMdata
C. Resets the port profile named VMdata to default settings
D. Deletes the port profile VMdata
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
6. What interface provides heartbeat messagesbetween the VEM and VSM?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Examine the following configuration, you may have to scroll to view the complete configuration. If this router stopped receiving RP- Discovery messages, causing its Group- to- RP information to expire, what would it do next?
A. Switch to PIM- DM
B. Disable multicast routing
C. Send RP- Announce messages advertising itself as the RP
D. Send Assert messages
E. Reload
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What types of messages are sent by candidate RPs to advertise their availability?
A. RP- Assert
B. RP- Announce
C. RP- Mapping
D. RP- Discovery
E. RP- Advertise
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which IOS command allows you to identify voice traffic by its UDP port numbers and assign it to a priority queue?
A. queue- list
B. ip rtp priority
C. ip udp range
D. ip priority voice
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
When CBWFQ is used, the sum of the priority queue and CBWFQ queues is not allowed to exceed what percentage of interface bandwidth?
A. 75
B. 50
C. 25
D. 100
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which of the following signifies that NBAR is being used to classify traffic?
A. class- map
B. service- policy
C. match protocol
D. match nbar
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What does RGMP base traffic constraint on?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
On the Cisco ME 3400 switch, spanning tree is enabled by default on which type of switch port?
A. UNI
B. ENI
C. NNI
D. ENI and NNI
E. UNI, ENI, and NNI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Refer to the two show output examples below. The switch with the e8ba.70b5.7180 MAC address is the root bridge for which VLAN or VLANs?
S78#show spanning-tree MST0 Spanning tree enabled protocol mstp Root ID Priority 32768 Address e8ba.70b5.6c00 Cost 0 Port 23 (FastEthernet0/21) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32768 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 0) Address e8ba.70e1.d980 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type —————- ——– —– ——— ————— —————— Fa0/1 Desg FWD 200000 128.3 P2p Fa0/2 Desg FWD 200000 128.4 P2p Fa0/21 Root FWD 200000 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Altn BLK 200000 128.25 P2p MST1
Spanning tree enabled protocol mstp Root ID Priority 24577 Address e8ba.70b5.6c00 Cost 200000 Port 23 (FastEthernet0/21) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1) Address e8ba.70e1.d980 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ——————- —- — ——— ——– ——————————– Fa0/1 Desg FWD 200000 128.3 P2p Fa0/21 Root FWD 200000 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Altn BLK 200000 128.25 P2p MST2 Spanning tree enabled protocol mstp Root ID Priority 24578 Address e8ba.70b5.7180
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Cost 200000 Port 25 (FastEthernet0/23) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32770 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 2) Address e8ba.70e1.d980 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ——————- —- — ——— ——– ——————————– Fa0/2 Desg FWD 200000 128.4 P2p Fa0/21 Altn BLK 200000 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Root FWD 200000 128.25 P2p
S78# show spanning-tree mst ##### MST0 vlans mapped: 1-69,71-79,81-4094 Bridge address e8ba.70e1.d980 priority 32768 (32768 sysid 0) Root address e8ba.70b5.6c00 priority 32768 (32768 sysid 0) port Fa0/21 path cost 0 Regional Root address e8ba.70b5.6c00 priority 32768 (32768 sysid 0) internal cost 200000 rem hops 19 Operational hello time 2, forward delay 15, max age 20, txholdcount 6 Configured hello time 2, forward delay 15, max age 20, max hops 20 Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type —————- —- — ——— ——– ——————————– Fa0/1 Desg FWD 200000 128.3 P2p Fa0/2 Desg FWD 200000 128.4 P2p Fa0/21 Root FWD 200000 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Altn BLK 200000 128.25 P2p ##### MST1 vlans mapped: 70 Bridge address e8ba.70e1.d980 priority 32769 (32768 sysid 1) Root address e8ba.70b5.6c00 priority 24577 (24576 sysid 1) port Fa0/21 cost 200000 rem hops 19 Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type —————- —- — ——— ——– ——————————– Fa0/1 Desg FWD 200000 128.3 P2p Fa0/21 Root FWD 200000 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Altn BLK 200000 128.25 P2p ##### MST2 vlans mapped: 80 Bridge address e8ba.70e1.d980 priority 32770 (32768 sysid 2) Root address e8ba.70b5.7180 priority 24578 (24576 sysid 2) port Fa0/23 cost 200000 rem hops 19 Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type —————- —- — ——— ——– ——————————– Fa0/2 Desg FWD 200000 128.4 P2p Fa0/21 Altn BLK 200000 128.23 P2p Fa0/23 Root FWD 200000 128.25 P2p
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 70
C. VLAN 80
D. VLANs 1, 70, and 80
E. VLANs 1 and 70
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G. VLANs 70 and 80
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which four statements about REP configurations on a Cisco ME 3400 switch port are true? (Choose four.)
A. The port must be an NNI type and must be in trunk mode.
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Why was this message received?
A. No VTY password has been set.
B. No enable password has been set.
C. No console password has been set.
D. No enable secret password has been set.
E. The login command has not been set on CON 0.
F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A network administrator needs to create 29 subnetworks while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must be borrowed from the host field of the network address to provide the required number of subnets with the most hosts per subnet?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the OSI Layer 3 source address be in the packet when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. 10.168.11.65
D. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
E. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
F. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is the difference between the Cisco router IOS commands show cdp neighbor detail and show cdp entry?
A. The show cdp neighbor detail command shows all neighbor information, while show cdp entry displaysonly one line of output for each neighbor.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Exhibit The result of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command is displayed in the exhibit. What command should be executed to make this interface operational?
A. Certkiller C(config-if)#enable
B. Certkiller C(config-if)# no keepalive
C. Certkiller C(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
D. Certkiller C(config-if)# no shutdown
E. Certkiller C(config-if)# clockrate 56000
F. Certkiller C(config-if)# line protocol up
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which command will reinitialize the router and totally replace the running configuration with the current startup configuration?
A. Certkiller B#reload
B. Certkiller B# copy tftp startup-config
C. Certkiller B# copy startup.-config running-config
D. Certkiller B# copy running-config flash
E. Certkiller B# setup
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
A. ROM, Flash, NVRAM
B. ROM, TFTP server, Flash
C. Flash, TFTP server ROM
D. Flash NVRAM, RAM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Study the Exhibit below carefully:
A new router has been installed in the branch office in Lisbon. However, the network administrator cannot make a backup of the IOS image of the new route to the TFTP server located in the Gibraltar office. Following the network diagram, can you identify the cause of the problem?
A. IP address if the TFTP server not correct.
B. Incorrect subnet mask of the TFTP server.
C. Default gateway of the TFTP server not properly set.
D. Subnet mask on the Lisbon router not correct
E. Incorrect IP address configured on E0 of the Gibraltar router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller users report that they cannot access resources on the LAN attached to interface e0 of router CK1 . You want to view the current IP addressing and the Layer 1 and Layer 2 status of this interface. Which of the following commands could you use? (Choose three.)
A. CK1 # show version
B. CK1 # show protocols
C. CK1 # show interfaces
D. CK1 # show controllers
E. CK1 # show ip interface
F. CK1 # show startup-config
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 6
You are a network technician at Certkiller . You are troubleshooting a LAN connectivity problem. Which of the following router IOS commands could you use? (Select three options.)
A. show ip route
B. winipcfg
C. tracert
D. show interfaces
E. traceroute
F. ping
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 7
You are a technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what command she can use to verify the active configuration on a Cisco router.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The “mode” button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices can an administrator use to segment their LAN? (Choose all that apply)
A. Hubs
B. Repeaters
C. Switches
D. Bridges
E. Routers
F. Media Converters
G. All of the above
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
Routers perform which of the following functions? (Select three)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 3
Within the Certkiller office, The Sales and Production networks are separated by a router as shown in the diagram below:
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics of the above networks broadcast and collision domains? (Select the two best answer choices)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 4
The Certkiller corporate LAN consists of one large flat network. You decide to segment this LAN into two separate networks with a router. What will be the affect of this change?
A. The number of broadcast domains will be decreased.
B. It will make the broadcasting of traffic between domains more efficient between segments.
