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Exam A
QUESTION 1
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An access list was written with the four statements shown in the graphic. Which single access list statement will combine all four of these statements into a single statement that will have exactly the same effect?
A. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.0.255
B. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.1.255
C. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.3.255
D. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.15.255
E. access-list 10 permit 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?
A. 172.1.0.0/22
B. 172.1.0.0/21
C. 172.1.4.0/22
D. 172.1.4.0/24172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
E. 172.1.4.0/25172.1.4.128/25172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which routing protocols can be used within the enterprise network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. BGP
F. EIGRP
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with thisconfiguration?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning
B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
C. STPl independence
D. 10 Gbps bandwidth
E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?
A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.
B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.
C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.
D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.
B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.
C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group.
D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer ports in an ISL.
E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.)
A. virtualization
B. unified I/O
C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card
D. support for Data Center Service Modules
E. high performance
F. high availability
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 5
Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches iscorrect?
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Exam A QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA’s Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for each configured Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the Gateway and the master’s file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create the CLM object, and add it to the Gateway’s list of log servers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security GatewaysRule.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Two CMAs can be created for a single Customer, for High availability (HA). Which of these statements is NOT correct for this type of CMA configuration?
A. The HA scheme requires one Primary CMA and one Secondary CMS, housed on different MDS computers
B. Should a CMA fail for any reason, the Standby CMA can continue operation without service interruption
C. Administrators make Security Policy changes thr0ough the Active CMA only
D. The CMAs must be synchronized to maintain the same information
E. If the Active CMA’s data has not recently been synchronized with the standby CMA, it can no longer be used to replace the Active CMA if fail over occurs
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed, enabled and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. EVRSetup
B. Cpconfig
C. Sysconfig
D. Setuptutil
E. SVRSetup
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which of the following statement is TRUE about Global Objects?
A. A Global Object must have a different IP address than of the remote module on which it is installed
B. Global Objects can share names if both the Provider-1 configuration and the remote Security Gateway are at version VPN-1 NGX
C. A Global Object can’t share the IP address of the remote module on which the Global Policy is installed
D. Global Objects shared object names included in the Security Policy to which they are assigned
E. Global Objects can only be edited in the Global SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
In Provider-1 NGX, which servers are predefined as global services for use in the Global SmartDashboard?
A. Only Firewall-1 control connections are predefined
B. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except VOIP related services
C. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except the required user-defined CPMI service
D. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX
E. None of the services are predefined
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
For which of the following components in a Provider-1 NGX deployment can a SmartCenter Server be configured asa backup?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
How many authorized logins are needed to create a recovery disk?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. One
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What are the names of the Pointsec processes and services that run on a workstation after Pointsec has been installed?
A. Pointsec.exe, psadmin.exe and decrypt.exe
B. Prot_srv.exe, p95tray.exe and pstartsr.exe
C. Pssogina.exe, pointsec.exe and p95tray.exe
D. Decrypt.exe, protect.exe and pssogina.exe, pagents.exe
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 How would you uninstall Pointsec from a machine that has not written a recovery file (.rec) and has yet to be encrypted?
A. Use “reco_img.exe” and perform forced removal
B. Create recovery disk using another .rec file
C. Add/remove programs
D. None of the above Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Typically, how long does it take Pointsec to encrypt 10 GB (No SATA)?
A. One hour
B. More than 30 hours
C. Depends how much data is on the drive
D. 20 Minutes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What is the maximum number of UNC paths to recovery file storage that you can specify in a profile?
A. Unlimited
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five (includning the temp searchpath in the installation profile) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which Microsoft file does Pointsec chain when Pointsec Single Sign On is enabled?
A. Msso.dll
B. Ssogina.dll
C. MicroSSO.dll
D. MSGina.dll
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Up to how many partitions can Pointsec encrypt on one standard hard disk?
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Exam A QUESTION 1
What will the command “d:\winnt\fw1\ng\bin] cppkg add C:\CPsuite-R71” achieve? Where d:\winnt\fw1\ng \bin is package-full-path?
A. It will purge a product package to the product repository
B. It will kill a product package to the product repository
C. It will add a product package to the product repository
D. It will print a product package to the product repository
E. It will delete a product package to the product repository
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
User Monitor details window is shown in the diagram 1 of the SmartView Monitor. Which of the following information you would not get in the window?
A. Internal IP
B. User DN
C. VPN Tunnel
D. Security Gateway
E. Connect Time
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
The rule below shows the Encrypt rule in a Traditional Mode Rule Base. What is likely to be Simplified Mode equivalent if the if the connections originates at X and its destination is Y, within any Site-to-Site Community (i.e. All_GW _to_GW).
A. Rule C
B. Rule E
C. Rule A
D. Rule B
E. Rule D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
SmartDirectory (LDAP) new features include which of the following? Select the all correct answers.
A. The use of authentication algorithm
B. Support of Multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) Vendors using Profiles
C. Support of multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers
D. High Availability
E. The use of encrypted or non-encrypted SmartDirectory (LDAP) Connections
Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 5
You are configuring IPS, Denial of Service – Teardrop section. Which of the following is true of Teardrop?
A. A denial of service vulnerability has been reported in the Linux Kernel. The vulnerability is due to an error in the Linux Kernel IPv6 over IPv4 tunneling driverthat fails to properly handle crafted network packets. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
B. Some implementations of TCP/IP contain fragmentation re-assembly code that does not properly handle overlapping IP fragments. Sending two IP fragments, the latter entirely contained inside the former, causes the server to allocate too much memory and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
C. JPEG is a very popular image file format. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability Specially crafted JPEG files may be used to create a DoS condition and in some cases, arbitrary code execution
D. Some implementations of TCP/IP are vulnerable to packets that are crafted in a particular way (a SYN packet in which the source address and port are the same as the destination, i.e., spoofed). Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
E. The attacker sends a fragmented PING request that exceeds the maximum IP packet size (64KB). Some operating systems are unable to handle such requests and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following command will you use to export users from the NGX user database?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is Automatic NAT Cli ent side NAT is enabled in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. On the initiating packet, NAT occurs on which inspection point?
A. O
B. o
C. I
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT supported with office mode?
A. Transparent mode
B. L2TP
C. Secure Client
D. SSL Network Extender
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view the blocked addresses’?
A. Run f wm blockedview
B. In SmartView Monitor, Select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C. In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant Security Gateway from the List
D. In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab. and the actively blocked connections displays
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are creating an output file with the following command:
Fw monitor 璭”accept(arc=10. 20. 30. 40 or dst=10, 20, 30,-40) :” 璷~/output Which tools do you use to
analyze this file?
A. You can analyze it with Wireshark or Ethereal
B. You can analyze the output file with any ASCI editor.
C. The output file format is CSV. so you can use MS Excel to analyze it
D. You cannot analyze it with any tool as the syntax should be: fw monitor 璭 accept ([12,b] = 10.20.30.40 or [16,b] = 10.20.30.40);-0~/output
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You find a suspicious FTP connection trying to connect to one of your internal hosts. How do you block it m real time and verify it is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block it using Tools>Block Intruder menu. observe in the Active mode that the suspicious connection is listed in this SmartView Tracker view as “dropped”
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block it using Tools>Block Intruder menu. observe in the Active mode that the suspicious connection does not appear again in this SmartView Tracker view.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block it using Tools>Block Intruder menu. observe in the Log mode that the suspicious connection does not appear again in this
SmartView Tracker view.
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Exam A QUESTION 1
If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A. three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B. three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C. six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D. three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control? 1) Simplified mode Rule Bases 2) Traditional mode Rule Bases 3) Secure Platform WebUI Users 4) SIC certificates 5) SmartView Tracker audit logs 6) SmartView Tracker traffic logs 7) Implied Rules 8) IPS Profiles
ActualTests.com 9) Blocked connections 10) Manual NAT rules 11) VPN communities 12) Gateway route table 13) Gateway licenses
A. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B. 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C. 1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D. 2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
You believe Phase 2 negotiations are railing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm’s business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure. You have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed. What backup method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A. Upgrade_export
B. Manual backup
C. Snapshot
D. Backup
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
What happens hi relation to the CRL cache after a cpstop and cpstart have been initiated?
A. The Gateway retrieves a new CRL on startup, and then discards the old CRL as invalid
B. The Gateway continues to use the old CRL, as long as it is valid.
C. The Gateway continues to use the old CRL even if it is not valid, until a new CRL is cached
D. The Gateway issues a crl_zap on startup, which empties the cache and forces Certificate retrieval
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new packages with smartUpdate?