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QUESTION 117
Regarding constructing a good encryption algorithm, what does creating an avalanche effect indicate?
A. Changing only a few bits of a plain-text message causes the ciphertext to be completely different.
B. Changing only a few bits of a ciphertext message causes the plain text to be completely different.
C. Altering the key length causes the plain text to be completely different.
D. Altering the key length causes the ciphertext to be completely different.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 118
With the increasing development of network, various network attacks appear. Which statement best describes the relationships between the attack method and the result?
A. Ping Sweep – TIS1 and TIS3 Port Scan – TIS2, TIS4 and TIS5
B. Ping Sweep – TIS2 and TIS4 Port Scan – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS5
C. Ping Sweep – TIS1 and TIS5 Port Scan – TIS2, TIS3 and TIS4
D. Ping Sweep – TIS2 and TIS3 Port Scan – TIS1, TIS4 and TIS5
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 119
Stream ciphers run on which of the following?
A. Individual blocks, one at a time, with the transformations varying during the encryption
B. Individual digits, one at a time, with the transformations varying during the encryption
C. Fixed-length groups of digits called blocks
D. Fixed-length groups of bits called blocks
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 120
Which description is true about ECB mode?
A. ECB mode uses the same 64-bit key to serially encrypt each 56-bit plain-text block.
B. In ECB mode, each 56-bit plain-text block is exclusive ORed (XORed) bitwise with the previous ciphertext block.
C. ECB mode uses the same 56-bit key to serially encrypt each 64-bit plain-text block.
D. In ECB mode, each 64-bit plain-text block is exclusive ORed (XORed) bitwise with the previousciphertext block.
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QUESTION 81
Hotspot Questions Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA . (Choose three.)
A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 53 Cisco 100-101 Exam
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(This answer can be done by simulation only, don’t know user name password and banner message etc)
QUESTION 82
Hotspot Questions
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 54 Cisco 100-101 Exam
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed D. console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on FaO/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IP address can accommodate 5 hosts at least, telnet can be accessed on the router
QUESTION 83
Hotspot Questions
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 55 Cisco 100-101 Exam Which of the following istrue regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
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QUESTION 105
Which statement best describes the relationships between AAA function and TACACS+, RADIUS based on the exhibit shown?
A. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS3 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS4
B. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS3
C. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS3
D. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TSS3 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Which two statements are correct regarding a Cisco IP phone’s web access feature? (Choose two.)
A. It is enabled by default.
B. It uses HTTPS.
C. It can provide IP address information about other servers in the network.
D. It requires login credentials, based on the UCM user database.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 107
Which option ensures that data is not modified in transit?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Authorization
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
What is a static packet-filtering firewall used for ?
A. It analyzes network traffic at the network and transport protocol layers.
B. It validates the fact that a packet is either a connection request or a data packet belonging to a connection.
C. It keeps track of the actual communication process through the use of a state table.
D. It evaluates network packets for valid data at the application layer before allowing connections.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which firewall best practices can help mitigate worm and other automated attacks?
A. Restrict access to firewalls
B. Segment security zones
C. Use logs and alerts
D. Set connection limits
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which statement best describes the Turbo ACL feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Turbo ACL feature processes ACLs into lookup tablesfor greater efficiency.
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QUESTION 1
Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. anti-replay protection
C. authentication
D. authorization
E. confidentiality
F. integrity
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 2
Which two encryption algorithms are commonly used to encrypt the contents of a message? (Choose two.)
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IPsec
D. PKI
E. SHA1
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI support?
A. certificate keys
B. nonrepudiation keys
C. usage keys
D. variable keys
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure?
A. The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
B. The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
C. After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.
D. CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required?
A. authenticity of digitally signed data
B. integrity of digitally signed data
C. nonrepudiation of the transaction
D. confidentiality of the public key
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
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QUESTION 65
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-permit” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “class-default”?
A. inspect
B. pass
C. drop
D. police
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Which policy map is associated to the “sdm-zp-in-out” security zone pair?
A. sdm-permit-icmpreply
B. sdm-permit
C. sdm-inspect
D. sdm-insp-traffic
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-inspect” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “sdm-invalid-src”, and which traffic is matched by the traffic class “sdm-invlid-src” ? (Choose two.)
A. traffic matched by ACL 100
B. traffic matched by the nested “sdm-cls-insp-traffic” class map
C. inspect/log
D. traffic matched by ACL 104
E. Drop/Log
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68
Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 4
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B. What dial plan below best represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. country code
B. subscriber code
C. national destination code
D. provider code
Correct Answer: AB Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E.164 is an international numbering plan created by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Each number in the E.164 numbering plan
contains the following components:
Country code (CC)
National destination code (NDC – optional)
Subscriber number (SN)
The CC consists of one, two or three digits. It is what we add in order to access different countries and often prefixed with a +
The NDC is the code we often call the area code.
The SN is for telephone numbering. It is given by your phone operator.
E.164 numbers are limited to a maximum length of 15 digits.
For example, the North American Numbering Plan E.164 is as follows:
1-602-555-1212
+
1: Country code
+
602555: National destination code (for North American Numbering Plan, 602 is called the area code while 555 is called Central Office Code)
+
1212: Subscribe Number
Answer C is also correct but just optional. E.164 Numbering Plan must have Country Code and Subscriber Code so A & B are the correct answers.
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice packets carry their own signaling.
Correct Answer: B Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Out-of-Band signaling is telecommunication signaling exchange of information in order to control a telephone call. Out-of-Band signaling uses common channel signaling (CCS), that means signaling information is transmitted using a separate, dedicated signaling channel.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?
A. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are the digits manipulated in R1 so that they are presented correctly at R2?
A. The outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
B. The digits 404-555 are stripped off before matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
C. The digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and R2 receives only 1200.
D. R1 collects the 1200 and prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the PBXs today. Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?
A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which option istrue concerning the MGCP call agent?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost-effective, high-bandwidth solution that is suitable only within a limited geographical area?
A. FCIP
B. DWDM
C. CWDM
D. SONET/SDH
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Your Cisco MDS 9509 configuration requires 2000 watts of power and is configured with two 2500W power supplies. If 110V power is provided to the switch, in which power mode does the switch operate?
A. The director will operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director will operate in combined mode only
C. The director will operate in redundant mode or combined mode
D. The director cannot operate with 110V power
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two kinds of applications require sustained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)
A. synchronous replication
B. asynchronous replication
C. OLTP
D. tape backup
E.
F. mail
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
Which of the following designs would provide your customer with the highest performance and port utilization?
A. multi-tier design
B. collapsed core design
C. corE.edge design
D. singlE.tier design
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
A customer plans to add a tape backup subsystem to its existing storage network. In which location should the customer place the tape backup device in order to provide the best performance during backup and recovery?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
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