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What is the CCNA?

The vision of the CCNA is to bring together the best of Canadian research in the field of neurodegenerative diseases affecting cognition in a collaborative and synergistic space. Researchers are working on bold and transformative research ideas to make a difference in the quality of life and the quality of services for those living with the effects of neurodegenerative diseases affecting cognition and their caregivers.

The Lead4pass CCNA includes research in Alzheimer’s disease and research collaborations with those working on other neurodegenerative diseases. While neurodegenerative diseases of aging that have an impact on cognition may manifest differently, they share common causation, risk factors, health care, ethical and quality of life issues, and require similar research approaches and resources.

Why study CCNA Lead4pass?

Cisco Certified Network Associate (Lead4pass CCNA) is a professional qualification accredited by Cisco for network professionals. This course teaches you to network, operate and troubleshoot complex networks and systems.

Free technology courses are available to cover new concepts, develop new career skills and expand student understanding of the latest technologies.

All CCNA Certification Exams in Lead4pass.com

100-101 – CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices 1 (ICND1)
200-101 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2)
200-120 – Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
200-125 – CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
640-553 – IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security
640-721 – Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (IUWNE)
640-760 – Supporting Cisco Service Provider IP NGN Operations (SSPO)
640-801 – Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
640-802 – Cisco Certified Network Associate(CCNA)
640-802PT – Official CCNA Prep + Test Bundle (includes 640-802 exam and official practice test)
640-803 – Cisco Certified Network Associate(New)
640-811 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices
640-816 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
640-816PT – Official ICND2 Prep + Test Bundle (includes 640-816 exam and official practice test)
640-816TL – Official ICND2 Learning Lab + Test Bundle (includes 640-816 exam and official learning lab)
640-821 – Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies
640-822 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
640-822PT – Official ICND1 Prep + Test Bundle (includes 640-822 exam and official practice test)
640-822TL – Official ICND1 Learning Lab + Test Bundle (includes 640-822 exam and official learning lab)

CCNA Routing and Switching helps students prepare for successful IT careers in small to medium businesses, as well as enterprise and service provider environments. As part of the Cisco Academy program, Lead4pass CCNA Routing and Switching provides a comprehensive overview of networking, from fundamentals to advanced applications and services.

CCNA Routing and Switching emphasizes theoretical concepts and practical application, while providing opportunities for students to gain the skills and hands-on experience required to design, install, operate and maintain networks. All Lead4pass CCNA Routing and Switching courses include complex and challenging hands-on labs to help students develop critical thinking, problem solving, collaboration skills and practical knowledge.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Lead4pass Summary:

Cisco Academy Home (CCNA)
Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP)
Cisco CCNA Security Certification
Cisco Networking Academy Worldwide

For individuals who install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN. This includes basic mitigation of security threats, introduction to Lead4pass CCNA wireless networking concepts and terminology, and performance-based skills.

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QUESTION 117
Regarding constructing a good encryption algorithm, what does creating an avalanche effect indicate?
A. Changing only a few bits of a plain-text message causes the ciphertext to be completely different.
B. Changing only a few bits of a ciphertext message causes the plain text to be completely different.
C. Altering the key length causes the plain text to be completely different.
D. Altering the key length causes the ciphertext to be completely different.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 118
With the increasing development of network, various network attacks appear. Which statement best describes the relationships between the attack method and the result?

A. Ping Sweep – TIS1 and TIS3 Port Scan – TIS2, TIS4 and TIS5
B. Ping Sweep – TIS2 and TIS4 Port Scan – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS5
C. Ping Sweep – TIS1 and TIS5 Port Scan – TIS2, TIS3 and TIS4
D. Ping Sweep – TIS2 and TIS3 Port Scan – TIS1, TIS4 and TIS5

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 119
Stream ciphers run on which of the following?
A. Individual blocks, one at a time, with the transformations varying during the encryption
B. Individual digits, one at a time, with the transformations varying during the encryption
C. Fixed-length groups of digits called blocks
D. Fixed-length groups of bits called blocks

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 120
Which description is true about ECB mode?
A. ECB mode uses the same 64-bit key to serially encrypt each 56-bit plain-text block.
B. In ECB mode, each 56-bit plain-text block is exclusive ORed (XORed) bitwise with the previous ciphertext block.
C. ECB mode uses the same 56-bit key to serially encrypt each 64-bit plain-text block.
D. In ECB mode, each 64-bit plain-text block is exclusive ORed (XORed) bitwise with the previous ciphertext block.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 121
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?
A. Roughly 66 percent
B. Roughly 10 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 50 percent

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 122
Which example is of a function intended for cryptographic hashing?
A. SHA-135
B. MD65
C. XR12
D. MD5

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 123
Which one of the following items may be added to a password stored in MD5 to make it more secure?
A. Rainbow table
B. Cryptotext
C. Ciphertext

D. Salt Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 125
LAB

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 126
On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127
Which three common examples are of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? Please place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 128
Drag two characteristics of the SDM Security Audit wizard on the above to the list on the below.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
On the basis of the Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall, by default, which three types of traffic are permitted by the router when some interfaces of the routers are assigned to a zone? Drag three proper characterizations on the above to the list on the below.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 130
Match the description on the left with the IKE phases on the right.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 131
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-permit” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “class-default”?
A. inspect
B. pass
C. drop
D. police

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 132
Drag the result on the left to the corrosponding attack method on the right.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 133
Which are the best practices for attack mitigation?

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 134

Next Gen University main campus is located in Santa Cruz. The University has recentley established various remote campuses offering e-learning services. The University is using Ipsec VPN connectivity between its main and remote campuses San Joe (SJ), Los Angeles (LA), Sacramento (SAC). As a recent addition to the IT/Networking team, you have been tasked to document the Ipsec VPN configuration to the remote campuses using the Cisco Router and SDM utility. Using the SDM output from VPN Tasks under the Configure tab, answer this question:
Which one of these statements is correct in regards to Next Gen University Ipsec tunnel between its Santa Cruz main campus and its SJ remote campus?
A. It is using Ipsec tunnel mode, AES encryption and SHA HMAC integrity Check.
B. It is using Ipsec transport mode, 3DES encryption and SHA integrity Check.
C. It is using Ipsec tunnel mode to protect the traffic between the 10.10.10.0/24 and the 10.2.54.0/24 subnet.
D. It is using digital certificate to authenticate between the Ipsec peers and DH group 2.
E. It is using pre-shared key to authenticate between the Ipsec peers and DH group 5.
F. The Santa Cruz main campus is the Easy VPN Server and the SJ remote campus is the Easy VPN Remote.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 135

Next Gen University main campus is located in Santa Cruz. The University has recentley established various remote campuses offering e-learning services. The University is using Ipsec VPN connectivity between its main and remote campuses San Joe (SJ), Los Angeles (LA), Sacramento (SAC). As a recent addition to the IT/Networking team, you have been tasked to document the Ipsec VPN configuration to the remote campuses using the Cisco Router and SDM utility. Using the SDM output from VPN Tasks under the Configure tab, answer this question:
Which one of these statements is correct in regards to Next Gen University Ipsec tunnel between its Santa Cruz main campus and its SAC remote campus?
A. The SAC remote campus remote router is using dynamic IP address; therefore, the Santa Cruz router is using a dynamic crypto map.
B. Dead Peer Detection (DPD) is need to monitor the Ipsec tunnel, so if there is no traffic between the two sites, the Ipsec tunnel will disconnect.
C. Tunnel mode is used; therefore, a GRE tunnel interface will be configured.
D. Only the ESP protocol is being used; AH is not bening used.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 81
Hotspot Questions Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA . (Choose three.)

A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 53 Cisco 100-101 Exam
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(This answer can be done by simulation only, don’t know user name password and banner message etc)

QUESTION 82
Hotspot Questions

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 54 Cisco 100-101 Exam

Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed D. console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on FaO/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IP address can accommodate 5 hosts at least, telnet can be accessed on the router

QUESTION 83
Hotspot Questions
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 55 Cisco 100-101 Exam Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ssh login requires a user name and password always while other conditions may or may not be true.

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 56
Cisco 100-101 Exam

QUESTION 84
Lab Questions “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 57 Cisco 100-101 Exam
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IP address assigned to FA0/1 is 192.168.8.9/29, making 192.168.8.15 the broadcast address.

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 58
Cisco 100-101 Exam

Answer: 6
Explanation:
This is a /29 address, so there are 6 usable IP’s on this subnet.

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 59
Cisco 100-101 Exam
Answer: Router1(conf)# interface fa0/1
Router1(conf0if)# no shutdown
Explanation:
Do a “show ip int brief” and you will see that Fa0/1 has an IP address assigned, but it is shut down.

QUESTION 85
Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of
192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet?

A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.
B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 60 Cisco 100-101 Exam FastEthernet 0/0.
C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial 0/0.102.
D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 130
F. 170

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20 “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 61 Cisco 100-101 Exam
E. 172.19.20.32

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router’s serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. no gateway of last resort on Central
B. Central router’s not receiving 172.16.20.0 update
C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central’s routing table

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 62 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91

To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 74 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos
are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the default
is 30 seconds.
Although OSPF is a link-state protocol but the full database from each router is sent every 30 minutes (not
seconds) -> C and D are not correct.

QUESTION 93
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 75 Cisco 100-101 Exam
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the following
sequence:

+
The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.

+
The router ID can be manually assigned In this case, because a loopback interface is not configured so the highest active IP address 192.168.0.1 is chosen as the router ID.
QUESTION 95
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 76 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To become OSPF neighbors, routers must meet these requirements: Hello interval, Dead interval and
AREA number -> D and F are correct.

QUESTION 96
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 97
ROUTER# show ip route 192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1 C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0 C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0 O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0
“First Test, FirstPass” – www.lead2pass.com 77 Cisco 100-101 Exam
O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0 O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The first parameter is the Administrative Distance of OSPF (110) while the second parameter is the cost of
OSPF.

QUESTION 98
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP) networks by the Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 20
E. 130
F. 170

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 78 Cisco 100-101 Exam
priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router. Each segment will
have a DR so we have 2 DRs.
To select which router will become DR they will compare their router-IDs. The router with highest (best)
router-ID will become DR. The router-ID is chosen in the order below:

+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. + If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen.
In this question, the IP addresses of loopback interfaces are not mentioned so we will consider IP addresses of all active router’s physical interfaces. Router Corp-4 (10.1.40.40) & Branch-2 (10.2.20.20) have highest “active” IP addresses so they will become DRs.
QUESTION 101
Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 192.168.0.5
D. 223.0.0.1
E. 254.255.255.255

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 79 Cisco 100-101 Exam
QUESTION 102
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being
established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 80 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 81

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QUESTION 105
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Some of the features and functions of a switch include: A switch is essentially a fast, multi-port bridge, which can contain dozens of ports. Rather than creating two collision domains, each port creates its own collision domain. In a network of twenty nodes, twenty collision domains exist if each node is plugged into its own switch port. If an uplink port is included, one switch creates twenty-one single-node collision domains. A switch dynamically builds and maintains a Content-Addressable Memory (CAM) table, holding all of the necessary MAC information for each port. For a detailed description of how switches operate, and their key differences to hubs, see the reference link below. http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/473/lan-switch-cisco.shtml
QUESTION 106
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80.

QUESTION 107
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.
B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: TCP differs from UDP in the following ways: TCP provides best effort delivery. TCP provides synchronized communication. TCP segments are essentially datagrams. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 100-101 Exam
QUESTION 108
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server.
QUESTION 109
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address
to use to reach the destination.

QUESTION 110
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 100-101 Exam
workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
of 255.255.254.0 can absorb 510 hosts being 23 bits mask and also 7*48 port switches can handle this
much hosts and router interface is required to be minimum to avoid unnecessary wastage hence the
answers.

QUESTION 111
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.

QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?

A. Router1>
B. Router1# “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 100-101 Exam
C. Router2>
D. Router2#

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Ctrl-Shift-6 x command suspends the telnet session and hence the prompt will again be Router2>

QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It should be one less than the switch IP to which it is connected so it will be B.

QUESTION 114
Refer to the exhibit. A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however,
place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are
layer 1 devices.

QUESTION 115
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.)
A. a bridge
B. a router
C. a hub
D. a Layer 3 switch E. an access point

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Routers and layer 3 switches will not propagate broadcast traffic beyond the local segment, so the use of
these devices is the best method for eliminating broadcast storms.

QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 11 Cisco 100-101 Exam

A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port so there are a total of 9 for each device shown. In
addition to this, the switch to switch connections (3) are a separate collision domain. Finally, we add the
switch to router connections (2) and the router to router connection (1) for a total of 15.

QUESTION 117
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. drops the frame
B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Understanding this concept is prime for understanding that when switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to the source port on the MAC address table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in it’s table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in it’s MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.
QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 12 Cisco 100-101 Exam
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.It will also add the MAC address of the source device to its MAC address table
QUESTION 119
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port, and each VLAN is a separate broadcast

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QUESTION 105
Which statement best describes the relationships between AAA function and TACACS+, RADIUS based on the exhibit shown?

A. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS3 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS4
B. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS3
C. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS3
D. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TSS3 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Which two statements are correct regarding a Cisco IP phone’s web access feature? (Choose two.)
A. It is enabled by default.
B. It uses HTTPS.
C. It can provide IP address information about other servers in the network.
D. It requires login credentials, based on the UCM user database.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 107
Which option ensures that data is not modified in transit?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Authorization
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
What is a static packet-filtering firewall used for ?
A. It analyzes network traffic at the network and transport protocol layers.
B. It validates the fact that a packet is either a connection request or a data packet belonging to a connection.
C. It keeps track of the actual communication process through the use of a state table.
D. It evaluates network packets for valid data at the application layer before allowing connections.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which firewall best practices can help mitigate worm and other automated attacks?
A. Restrict access to firewalls
B. Segment security zones
C. Use logs and alerts
D. Set connection limits

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which statement best describes the Turbo ACL feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Turbo ACL feature processes ACLs into lookup tables for greater efficiency.
B. The Turbo ACL feature leads to increased latency, because the time it takes to match the packet is variable.
C. The Turbo ACL feature leads to reduced latency, because the time it takes to match the packet is fixed and consistent.
D. Turbo ACLs increase the CPU load by matching the packet to a predetermined list.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 111
Which two actions can be configured to allow traffic to traverse an interface when zone-based security is being employed? (Choose two.)
A. Flow
B. Inspect
C. Pass
D. Allow

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 112
Which three items are Cisco best-practice recommendations for securing a network? (Choose three.)
A. Deploy HIPS software on all end-user workstations.
B. Routinely apply patches to operating systems and applications.
C. Disable unneeded services and ports on hosts.
D. Require strong passwords, and enable password expiration.

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 113
Which key method is used to detect and prevent attacks by use of IDS and/or IPS technologies?
A. Signature-based detection
B. Anomaly-based detection
C. Honey pot detection
D. Policy-based detection

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
Based on the following items, which two types of interfaces are found on all network-based IPS sensors? (Choose two.)
A. Loopback interface
B. Monitoring interface
C. Command and control interface
D. Management interface Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 115
With which three tasks does the IPS Policies Wizard help you? (Choose three.)
A. Selecting the interface to which the IPS rule will be applied
B. Selecting the direction of traffic that will be inspected
C. Selecting the inspection policy that will be applied to the interface
D. Selecting the Signature Definition File (SDF) that the router will use

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 116
Examine the following options, when editing global IPS settings, which one determines if the IOS-based IPS feature will drop or permit traffic for a particular IPS signature engine while a new signature for that engine is being compiled?
A. Enable Engine Fail Closed
B. Enable Fail Opened
C. Enable Signature Default
D. Enable Default IOS Signature

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117

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QUESTION 1
Which three primary functions are required to secure communication across network links? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. anti-replay protection
C. authentication
D. authorization
E. confidentiality
F. integrity
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 2
Which two encryption algorithms are commonly used to encrypt the contents of a message? (Choose two.)
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IPsec
D. PKI
E. SHA1
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
An administrator requires a PKI that supports a longer lifetime for keys used for digital signing operations than for keys used for encrypting data. Which feature should the PKI support?
A. certificate keys
B. nonrepudiation keys
C. usage keys
D. variable keys
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Two users must authenticate each other using digital certificates and a CA. Which option describes the CA authentication procedure?
A. The CA is always required, even after user verification is complete.
B. The users must obtain the certificate of the CA and then their own certificate.
C. After user verification is complete, the CA is no longer required, even if one of the involved certificates expires.
D. CA certificates are retrieved out-of-band using the PSTN, and the authentication is done in-band over a network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. The e-commerce site must maintain proof that the data exchange took place between the site and the customer. Which feature of digital signatures is required?
A. authenticity of digitally signed data
B. integrity of digitally signed data
C. nonrepudiation of the transaction
D. confidentiality of the public key
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
A. The data is encrypted three times with three different keys.
B. The data is encrypted, decrypted, and encrypted using three different keys.
C. The data is divided into three blocks of equal length for encryption.
D. The data is encrypted using a key length that is three times longer than the key used for DES.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Which statement describes a cryptographic hash function?
A. A one-way cryptographic hash function is hard to invert.
B. The output of a cryptographic hash function can be any length.
C. The input of a cryptographic hash function has a fixed length.
D. A cryptographic hash function is used to provide confidentiality.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which statement is a feature of HMAC?
A. HMAC is based on the RSA hash function.
B. HMAC uses a secret key that is only known to the sender and defeats man-in-the-middle attacks.
C. HMAC uses a secret key as input to the hash function, adding authentication to integrity assurance.
D. HMAC uses protocols such as SSL or TLS to provide session layer confidentiality.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Why is RSA typically used to protect only small amounts of data?
A. The keys must be a fixed length.
B. The public keys must be kept secret.
C. The algorithms used to encrypt data are slow.
D. The signature keys must be changed frequently.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
The network administrator for an e-commerce website requires a service that prevents customers from claiming that legitimate orders are fake. What service provides this type of guarantee?
A. authentication
B. confidentiality
C. integrity
D. nonrepudiation

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which encryption algorithm is described in the exhibit?

A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RC4
E. SEAL

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which statement describes asymmetric encryption algorithms?
A. They include DES, 3DES, and AES.
B. They have key lengths ranging from 80 to 256 bits.
C. They are also called shared-secret key algorithms.
D. They are relatively slow because they are based on difficult computational algorithms.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which symmetrical encryption algorithm is the most difficult to crack?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
E. SHA
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is a characteristic of the RSA algorithm?
A. RSA is much faster than DES.
B. RSA is a common symmetric algorithm.
C. RSA is used to protect corporate data in high-throughput, low-latency environments.
D. RSA keys of 512 bits can be used for faster processing, while keys of 2048 bits can be used for increased security.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cipher method is depicted?

A. Caesar cipher
B. stream cipher
C. substitution cipher
D. transposition cipher
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What does it mean when a hashing algorithm is collision resistant?
A. Exclusive ORs are performed on input data and produce a digest.
B. It is not feasible to compute the hash given the input data.
C. It uses a two-way function that computes a hash from the input and output data.
D. Two messages with the same hash are unlikely to occur.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
How do modern cryptographers defend against brute-force attacks?
A. Use statistical analysis to eliminate the most common encryption keys.
B. Use an algorithm that requires the attacker to have both ciphertext and plaintext to conduct a successful attack.
C. Use a keyspace large enough that it takes too much money and too much time to conduct a successful attack.
D. Use frequency analysis to ensure that the most popular letters used in the language are not used in the cipher message.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the PKI? (Choose two.)
A. A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes.
B. A class 0 certificate is more trusted than a class 1 certificate.
C. The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate.
D. A class 5 certificate is for users with a focus on verification of email.
E. A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between companies.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 19
Which statement describes the use of keys for encryption?
A. The sender and receiver must use the same key when using symmetric encryption.
B. The sender and receiver must use the same key when using asymmetric encryption.
C. The sender and receiver must use the same keys for both symmetric and asymmetric encryption.
D. The sender and receiver must use two keys: one for symmetric encryption and another for asymmetric encryption.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which encryption protocol provides network layer confidentiality?
A. IPsec protocol suite
B. Keyed MD5
C. Message Digest 5
D. Secure Sockets Layer
E. Secure Hash Algorithm 1
F. Transport Layer Security
Correct Answer: A Exam H

QUESTION 1
Which IPsec protocol should be selected when confidentiality is required?
A. tunnel mode
B. transport mode
C. authentication header
D. encapsulating security payload
E. generic routing encapsulation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
When using ESP tunnel mode, which portion of the packet is not authenticated?
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. new IP header
D. original IP header
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
When configuring an IPsec VPN, what is used to define the traffic that is sent through the IPsec tunnel and protected by the IPsec process?
A. crypto map
B. crypto ACL
C. ISAKMP policy
D. IPsec transform set
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two IPsec framework components are valid options when configuring an IPsec VPN on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.)

A. Integrity options include MD5 and RSA.
B. IPsec protocol options include GRE and AH.
C. Confidentiality options include DES, 3DES, and AES.
D. Authentication options include pre-shared key and SHA.
E. Diffie-Hellman options include DH1, DH2, and DH5.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen, which Easy VPN Server component is being configured?

A. group policy
B. transform set
C. IKE proposal
D. user authentication
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Under the ACL Editor, which option is used to specify the traffic to be encrypted on a secure

A. connection?
B. Access Rules
C. IPsec Rules
D. Firewall Rules
E. SDM Default Rules

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two authentication methods that can be configured using the SDM Site-to-Site VPN Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. SHA
C. pre-shared keys
D. encrypted nonces
E. digital certificates
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A site-to-site VPN is required from R1 to R3. The administrator is using the SDM Site-to-Site VPN Wizard on R1. Which IP address should the administrator enter in the highlighted field?

A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 10.2.2.1
D. 10.2.2.2
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.3.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN?
A. VPN client software must be installed.
B. A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
C. The host must be in a stationary location.
D. A web browser must be installed on the host.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which two statements accurately describe characteristics of IPsec? (Choose two.)
A. IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data.
B. IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer.
C. IPsec works at the network layer and operates over all Layer 2 protocols.
D. IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms.
E. IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms.
F. IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 When configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN using the CLI, the authentication pre-share command is configured in the ISAKMP policy. Which additional peer authentication configuration is required?
A. Configure the message encryption algorithm with the encryptiontype ISAKMP policy configuration command.
B. Configure the DH group identifier with the groupnumber ISAKMP policy configuration command.
C. Configure a hostname with the crypto isakmp identity hostname global configuration command.
D. Configure a PSK with the crypto isakmp key global configuration command.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which action do IPsec peers take during the IKE Phase 2 exchange?
A. exchange of DH keys
B. negotiation of IPsec policy
C. verification of peer identity
D. negotiation of IKE policy sets

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE VPN tunnel between R1 and R2. Assuming the R2 GRE configuration is correct and based on the running configuration of R1, what must

A. change the tunnel source interface to Fa0/0
B. change the tunnel destination to 192.168.5.1
C. change the tunnel IP address to 192.168.3.1
D. change the tunnel destination to 209.165.200.225
E. change the tunnel IP address to 209.165.201.1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 When verifying IPsec configurations, which show command displays the encryption algorithm, hash algorithm, authentication method, and Diffie-Hellman group configured, as well as default settings?
A. show crypto map
B. show crypto ipsec sa
C. show crypto isakmp policy
D. show crypto ipsec transform-set

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
With the Cisco Easy VPN feature, which process ensures that a static route is created on the Cisco Easy VPN Server for the internal IP address of each VPN client?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Network Access Control
C. On-Demand Routing
D. Reverse Path Forwarding
E. Reverse Route Injection
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
Which statement describes an important characteristic of a site-to-site VPN?
A. It must be statically set up.
B. It is ideally suited for use by mobile workers.
C. It requires using a VPN client on the host PC.
D. It is commonly implemented over dialup and cable modem networks.
E. After the initial connection is established, it can dynamically change connection information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
What is the default IKE policy value for authentication?
A. MD5
B. SHA
C. RSA signatures
D. pre-shared keys
E. RSA encrypted sconces
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which requirement necessitates using the Step-by-Step option of the SDM Site-to-Site VPN wizard instead of the Quick Setup option?
A. AES encryption is required.
B. 3DES encryption is required.
C. Pre-shared keys are to be used.
D. The remote peer is a Cisco router.
E. The remote peer IP address is unknown.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
How many bytes of overhead are added to each IP packet while it is transported through a GRE tunnel?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
What are two benefits of an SSL VPN? (Choose two.)
A. It supports all client/server applications.
B. It supports the same level of cryptographic security as an IPsec VPN.
C. It has the option of only requiring an SSL-enabled web browser.
D. The thin client mode functions without requiring any downloads or software.
E. It is compatible with DMVPNs, Cisco IOS Firewall, IPsec, IPS, Cisco Easy VPN, and NAT.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
Which UDP port must be permitted on any IP interface used to exchange IKE information between security gateways?
A. 400
B. 500
C. 600
D. 700
Correct Answer: B Exam I

QUESTION 1
What are the two major elements of the Cisco Secure Communications solution? (Choose two.)
A. secure communications for extranets
B. secure communications for intranets
C. secure communications for management
D. secure communications for remote access
E. secure communications for site-to-site connections
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2
Which component of the security policy lists specific websites, newsgroups, or bandwidth-intensive applications that are not allowed on the company network?
A. remote access policies
B. acceptable use policies
C. incident handling procedures
D. identification and authentication policies
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What are the two major components of a security awareness program? (Choose two.)
A. awareness campaign
B. security policy development
C. security solution development
D. self-defending network implementation
E. training and education
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which term describes a completely redundant backup facility, with almost identical equipment to the operational facility that is maintained in the event of a disaster?
A. backup site
B. cold site
C. hot site
D. reserve site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What are three benefits of a comprehensive security policy? (Choose three.)
A. defines legal consequences of violations
B. ensures consistency in system operations
C. ensures diversity in system operations, software and hardware acquisition and use, and maintenance
D. identifies reputable network equipment providers
E. sets the rules for expected behavior
F. provides a database for information assets
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 6

Which two Cisco Threat Control and Containment technologies address endpoint security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Application Control Engine
B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System
E. virtual private network
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
What are three key principles of a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.)
A. adaptability
B. authentication
C. collaboration
D. confidentiality
E. integration
F. integrity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 8
Which three detailed documents are used by security staff for an organization to implement the security policies? (Choose three.)
A. asset inventory
B. best practices
C. guidelines
D. procedures
E. risk assessment
F. standards
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 9
Which security document includes implementation details, usually with step-by-step instructions and graphics?
A. guideline document
B. standard document
C. procedure document
D. overview document
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When an organization implements the two-person control principle, how are tasks handled?
A. A task requires two individuals who review and approve the work of each other.
B. A task is broken down into two parts, and each part is assigned to a different individual.
C. A task must be completed twice by two operators who must achieve the same results.
D. A task is rotated among individuals within a team, each completing the entire task for a specific amount of time.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which policy includes standards regarding the installation and update of endpoint threat-control software?
A. distribution policy
B. end-user policy
C. management policy
D. technical policy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which three statements describe ethics in network security? (Choose three.)
A. principles put into action in place of laws
B. foundations for current laws
C. set of moral principles that govern civil behavior
D. standard that is higher than the law
E. set of regulations established by the judiciary system
F. set of legal standards that specify enforceable actions when the law is broken
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
What are the two components in the Cisco Security Management Suite? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Intrusion Prevention
B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco Security MARS
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 14
In which phase of the system development life cycle should security requirements be addressed?
A. Add security requirements during the initiation phase.
B. Include a minimum set of security requirements at each phase.
C. Apply critical security requirements during the implementation phase.
D. Implement the majority of the security requirements at the acquisition phase.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which security services, available through the Cisco Self-Defending Network, include VPN access?
A. secure communications
B. threat control and containment
C. operational control and policy management
D. application control for infrastructure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis uses a mathematical model that assigns a monetary figure to the value of assets,
the cost of threats being realized, and the cost of security implementations?
A. Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Qualitative Asset Analysis
D. Quantitative Continuity Analysis
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which principle of the Cisco Self-Defending Network emphasizes that security should be built in?
A. adapt
B. collaborate
C. integrate
D. simplify

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. When implementing the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which two technologies ensure confidentiality when referring to secure communications? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco NAC appliances and Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System
D. Intrusion Prevention System
E. IPsec VPN
F. SSL VPN

Correct Answer: EF QUESTION 19
Which three documents comprise the hierarchical structure of a comprehensive security policy for an organization? (Choose three.)
A. backup policy
B. server policy
C. incident policy
D. governing policy
E. end-user policy
F. technical policy
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 20
Which network security test requires a network administrator to launch an attack within the network?
A. network scan
B. password crack
C. penetration test
D. vulnerability scan
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What is the primary focus of network operations security?
A. to design and develop secure application code
B. to support deployment and periodic maintenance of secure systems
C. to conduct regular employee background checks
D. to reprimand personnel who do not adhere to security policies
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 65
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-permit” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “class-default”?
A. inspect
B. pass
C. drop
D. police

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Which policy map is associated to the “sdm-zp-in-out” security zone pair?
A. sdm-permit-icmpreply
B. sdm-permit
C. sdm-inspect
D. sdm-insp-traffic

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the “sdm-inspect” policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class “sdm-invalid-src”, and which traffic is matched by the traffic class “sdm-invlid-src” ? (Choose two.)
A. traffic matched by ACL 100
B. traffic matched by the nested “sdm-cls-insp-traffic” class map
C. inspect/log
D. traffic matched by ACL 104
E. Drop/Log

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 68
Which one is the most important based on the following common elements of a network design?
A. Business needs
B. Best practices C. Risk analysis
D. Security policy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Examine the following items, which one offers a variety of security solutions, including firewall, IPS, VPN, antispyware, antivirus, and antiphishing features?
A. Cisco 4200 series IPS appliance
B. Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance
C. Cisco IOS router
D. Cisco PIX 500 series security appliance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
The enable secret password appears as an MD5 hash in a router’s configuration file, whereas the enable
password is not hashed (or encrypted, if the password-encryption service is not enabled).
What is the reason that Cisco still support the use of both enable secret and enable passwords in a
router’s configuration?

A. The enable password is used for IKE Phase I, whereas the enable secret password is used for IKE Phase II.
B. The enable password is considered to be a router’s public key, whereas the enable secret password is considered to be a router’s private key.
C. Because the enable secret password is a hash, it cannot be decrypted. Therefore, the enable password is used to match the password that was entered, and the enable secret is used to verify that the enable password has not been modified since the hash was generated.
D. The enable password is present for backward compatibility.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Which classes does the U.S. government place classified data into? (Choose three.)
A. SBU
B. Confidential
C. Secret
D. Top-secret
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 72
How does CLI view differ from a privilege level?
A. A CLI view supports only commands configured for that specific view, whereas a privilege level supports commands available to that level and all the lower levels.
B. A CLI view supports only monitoring commands, whereas a privilege level allows a user to make changes to an IOS configuration.
C. A CLI view and a privilege level perform the same function. However, a CLI view is used on a Catalyst switch, whereas a privilege level is used on an IOS router.
D. A CLI view can function without a AAA configuration, whereas a privilege level requires AAA to be configured.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
When configuring Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual connections, what is the “quiet period”?
A. A period of time when no one is attempting to log in
B. The period of time in which virtual logins are blocked as security services fully initialize
C. The period of time in which virtual login attempts are blocked, following repeated failed login attempts
D. The period of time between successive login attempts

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which three statements are valid SDM configuration wizards? (Choose three.)
A. Security Audit
B. VPN
C. STP
D. NAT

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 75
How do you define the authentication method that will be used with AAA?
A. With a method list
B. With the method command
C. With the method aaa command
D. With a method statement

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
What is the objective of the aaa authentication login console-in local command?
A. It specifies the login authorization method list named console-in using the local RADIUS username-password database.
B. It specifies the login authorization method list named console-in using the local username-password database on the router.
C. It specifies the login authentication method list named console-in using the local user database on the router.
D. It specifies the login authentication list named console-in using the local username- password database on the router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which one of the following commands can be used to enable AAA authentication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level?
A. aaa authentication enable default local
B. aaa authentication enable level
C. aaa authentication enable method default
D. aaa authentication enable default

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Please choose the correct matching relationships between the cryptography algorithms and the type of algorithm.

A. Symmetric – TIS1, TIS2 and TIS3 Asymmetric – TIS4, TIS5 and TIS6
B. Symmetric – TIS1, TIS4 and TIS5 Asymmetric – TIS2, TIS3 and TIS6
C. Symmetric – TIS2,TIS4 and TIS5 Asymmetric – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS6
D. Symmetric – TIS2, TIS5 and TIS6 Asymmetric – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which two ports are used with RADIUS authentication and authorization?(Choose two.)
A. TCP port 2002
B. UDP port 2000
C. UDP port 1645
D. UDP port 1812

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?
A. OOB
B. SAFE
C. MARS
D. OTP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Information about a managed device??s resources and activity is defined by a series of objects. What defines the structure of these management objects?
A. FIB
B. LDAP
C. CEF
D. MIB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
When configuring SSH, which is the Cisco minimum recommended modulus value?
A. 2048 bits
B. 256 bits
C. 1024 bits
D. 512 bits

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
When using the Cisco SDM Quick Setup Siteto-Site VPN wizard, which three parameters do you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Interface for the VPN connection
B. IP address for the remote peer
C. Transform set for the IPsec tunnel
D. Source interface where encrypted traffic originates

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 84
If you click the Configure button along the top of Cisco SDM??s graphical interface,which Tasks button permits you to configure such features as SSH, NTP, SNMP, and syslog?
A. Additional Tasks
B. Security Audit
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. Interfaces and Connections

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 85
Which method is of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures?
A. Creating a back door
B. Starting a Smurf attack
C. Conducting social engineering
D. Launching a DoS attack

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
Examine the following options, which Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) protection mechanism disables a switch port if the port receives a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU)?
A. PortFast
B. BPDU Guard
C. UplinkFast
D. Root Guard

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
If a switch is working in the fail-open mode, what will happen when the switch’s CAM table fills to capacity and a new frame arrives?
A. The switch sends a NACK segment to the frame’s source MAC address.
B. A copy of the frame is forwarded out all switch ports other than the port the frame was received on.
C. The frame is dropped.
D. The frame is transmitted on the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
Which type of MAC address is dynamically learned by a switch port and then added to the switch’s running configuration?
A. Pervasive secure MAC address
B. Static secure MAC address
C. Sticky secure MAC address
D. Dynamic secure MAC address

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 89
Which are the best practices for attack mitigations?

A. TIS1, TIS2, TIS3 and TIS5
B. TIS2, TIS5, TIS6 and TIS8
C. TIS2, TIS5, TIS6 and TIS7
D. TIS2, TIS3, TIS6 and TIS8
E. TIS3, TIS4, TIS6 and TIS7

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
In an IEEE 802.1x deployment, between which two devices EAPOL messages typically are sent?
A. Between the RADIUS server and the authenticator
B. Between the authenticator and the authentication server
C. Between the supplicant and the authentication server
D. Between the supplicant and the authenticator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which item is the great majority of software vulnerabilities that have been discovered?
A. Stack vulnerabilities
B. Software overflows C. Heap overflows
D. Buffer overflows

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
What will be enabled by the scanning technology-The Dynamic Vector Streaming (DVS)?
A. Firmware-level virus detection
B. Layer 4 virus detection
C. Signature-based spyware filtering
D. Signature-based virus filtering

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
What Cisco Security Agent Interceptor is in charge of intercepting all read/write requests to the rc files in UNIX?
A. Network interceptor
B. Configuration interceptor
C. Execution space interceptor
D. File system interceptor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
Which name is of the e-mail traffic monitoring service that underlies that architecture of IronPort?
A. IronPort M-Series
B. E-Base
C. TrafMon
D. SenderBase

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
Which statement is not a reason for an organization to incorporate a SAN in its enterprise infrastructure?
A. To increase the performance of long-distance replication, backup, and recovery
B. To decrease the threat of viruses and worm attacks against data storage devices
C. To decrease both capital and operating expenses associated with data storage
D. To meet changing business priorities, applications, and revenue growth

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Which protocol will use a LUN as a way to differentiate the individual disk drives that comprise a target device?
A. iSCSI
B. ATA
C. SCSI

D. HBA Correct Answer: C QUESTION 97
Which statement is true about a Smurf attack?
A. It sends ping requests to a subnet, requesting that devices on that subnet send ping replies to a target system.
B. It intercepts the third step in a TCP three-way handshake to hijack a session.
C. It uses Trojan horse applications to create a distributed collection of “zombie” computers, which can be used to launch a coordinated DDoS attack.
D. It sends ping requests in segments of an invalid size.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
For the following statements, which one is perceived as a drawback of implementing Fibre Channel Authentication Protocol (FCAP)?
A. It is restricted in size to only three segments.
B. It requires the implementation of IKE.
C. It relies on an underlying Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).
D. It requires the use of netBT as the network protocol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which two primary port authentication protocols are used with VSANs? (Choose two.)
A. ESP
B. CHAP
C. DHCHAP
D. SPAP
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 100
Which VoIP components can permit or deny a call attempt on the basis of a network’s available bandwidth?
A. MCU
B. Gatekeeper
C. Application server
D. Gateway

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
Which statement is true about vishing?
A. Influencing users to forward a call to a toll number (for example, a long distance or international number)
B. Influencing users to provide personal information over the phone
C. Using an inside facilitator to intentionally forward a call to a toll number (for example, a long distance or international number)
D. Influencing users to provide personal information over a web page

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 102
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?
A. GRE tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. L2F tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which type of firewall is needed to open appropriate UDP ports required for RTP streams?
A. Proxy firewall
B. Packet filtering firewall
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 104
Please choose the correct description about Cisco Self-Defending Network characteristics.

A. INTEGRATED – TIS1 COLLABORATIVE – TIS2 ADAPTIVE – TIS3
B. INTEGRATED – TIS2 COLLABORATIVE – TIS1 ADAPTIVE – TIS3
C. INTEGRATED – TIS2 COLLABORATIVE – TIS3 www-CareerCert-info ADAPTIVE – TIS1
D. INTEGRATED – TIS3 COLLABORATIVE – TIS2 ADAPTIVE – TIS1

Correct Answer: B

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 4
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B. What dial plan below best represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?
A. Translate all called numbers within Site A to four digits.
B. Translate all called numbers within Site B to three digits.
C. Translate all called numbers at either site to ten digits.
D. Translate all called numbers leaving Site A to ten digits.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three.)
A. call waiting
B. on hook
C. ring
D. busy
E. off hook
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which command parameter specifies that the router should not attempt to initiate a trunk connection but should wait for an incoming call before establishing the trunk?
A. connection trunk answer-mode 408555
B. connection trunk 408555….
C. connection-trunk 404555…. answer-mode Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
D. ds0-group timeslots 1-23 type ext-sig
E. voice-port 1/0:1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
What does a gatekeeper do when it matches a technology prefix?
A. strips off the zone prefix and forwards the technology prefix to the remote gatekeeper
B. strips off the technology prefix and sends the matching zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
C. sends both the technology prefix and zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
D. strips off both the technology prefix and zone prefix and forwards the remaining destination number

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
E. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
What is the best description of an MGCP endpoint?
A. the gatekeepers in a VoIP network
B. IP phones
C. any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, etc.)
D. the interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)
A. Define COR labels.
B. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
C. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure SRST.
F. Configure COR lists.
Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 12
A telemarketing firm needs to use number translation for incoming and outgoing calls. They have defined
two translation profiles, one for incoming and one for outgoing calls.
What can be used to simplify this task?

A. dial peer
B. source IP group
C. trunk group
D. voice port
E. hunt group
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 13
The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both gateways provide access to area code 408. Which two command strings should be entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway? (Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 14
What is the most common E&M type used outside North America?
A. Type III
B. Type I
C. Type II
D. Type V
E. Type IV
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about MGCP?
A. Call completion is always shared, with some intelligence on the endpoint, some on the call agent.
B. Endpoints may act alone or cooperate with call agent to complete calls.
C. Endpoints always take all actions to complete calls.
D. Call agents order and direct each step of call completion for the endpoints.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which dial-peer command can set the parameters that search through a series of dial peers for a destination that is not in use?
A. distribute
B. request
C. circulate
D. rotary
E. hunt
F. query
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
What is the E.164 standard?
A. national numbering plan
B. dial plan
C. private numbering plan Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
D. international public telecommunications numbering plan
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
B. acts only as a recorder of call details
C. provides only call signaling and call setup
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which best defines an ACD?
A. a telephone system that switches calls between users on local lines
B. a telephone system that responds to a caller with a voice menu and helps to appropriately connect the call
C. a telephone system that is connected to the exchange to provide conventional voice services to several subscribers
D. a local company that provides phone capability and distribution from the phone company’s central office
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)
A. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they support voice or video.
D. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.
E. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
You have set up a complex dial plan using translation rules. The following translation rule has been configured. What output would correspond to the test translation-rule
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
command? translation-rule 1 rule 0 ^0.. 215550210 rule 1 ^1.. 215550211 rule 2 ^2.. 215550212 rule 3 ^3.. 215550213 rule 4 ^4.. 215550214 rule 5 ^5.. 215550215 rule 6 ^6.. 215550216 rule 7 ^7.. 215550217 rule 8 ^8.. 215550218 rule 9 ^9.. 215550210
A. test translation-rule 1 555 The replaced number: 55521555021
B. test translation-rule 1 617 The replaced number: 61721555021
C. test translation-rule 1 910 The replaced number: 21555021910
D. test translation-rule 1 512 The replaced number: 21555021512
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
A customer wants to roll out IP telephony to the regional office. They are currently using the G.711 codec at headquarters. Which codec will support voice activity detection and comfort noise generation?
A. G.723.1
B. G.726
C. G.711
D. G.729B
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which three services are supported by CUBE when supporting H323-to-SIP calls? (Choose three.)
A. codec transparent support
B. media flow-through
C. Transport Layer Security
D. H.261, H.263, and H.264 video codecs Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
E. SIP cause codes
F. media flow-around
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
B. All voice packets carry their own signaling.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
A customer needs to configure a CAS E & M circuit that will support inbound and outbound DNIS and inbound ANI. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type fgd-eana
B. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type e&m-fgd
C. pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type none
E. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-31 type r2-digital r2-compelled ani
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
The D channel in ISDN is an example of which two signaling methods? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. gateway
C. CAS
D. CCS
E. out-of-band

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
Examine the example output. hostname GW1 !
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
interface Ethernet 0/0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2 h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1 h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1212. session-target ras ! dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2125551212 no register e164 ! end Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1
B. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
C. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
D. gateway
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
D. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 29
A new business in Great Britain needs to have a PSTN connection that will handle a maximum of 30 inbound and outbound calls at any given time. The customer only has
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
one slot available on the designated PSTN router. Which digital line type should be recommended?
A. QSIG
B. ISDN E1 PRI
C. ISDN BRI
D. ISDN T1 PRI
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
Where would you assign COR lists in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. ephone
B. voice register dn
C. ephone-dn
D. voice register pool

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. subscriber code
B. national destination code
C. country code
D. provider code

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. number expansion
B. digit masking
C. prefix extension
D. forward digits
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 33
Using a standalone IOS gateway, which three steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose three.)
A. Configure COR lists.
B. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
C. Define COR labels.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
F. Configure SRST.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. post-dial delay
B. availability
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 35
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup signaling
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
statement is correct?
A. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
B. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
C. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.
D. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
E. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 36
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. You have a client
that is testing a directory gatekeeper in the lab to provide address resolution between two different zones.
Two of the commands in the running-config output are incorrect.
Which two changes will correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

A. replace zone prefix GK-B 404 . . . . with zone prefix GK-B 404 . . . . . . .
B. replace zone prefix GK-A 770 . . . . . . . with zone prefix GK-A 770 . . . .
C. replace zone remote GK-B acme.com 172.16.14.99 1719 with Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 zone local GK-B acme.com 172.16.14.99 1719
D. replace zone local DGK acme.com with zone remote DGK acme.com
E. replace zone local GK-A acme.com 172.16.14.44 1719 with zone remote GK-A acme.com 172.16.14.44 1719

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com uses H.323 to place calls to their supplier RR Industries. Certkiller .com also has a voice connection to an ITSP for long distance over a SIP network. Which configuration should Certkiller use to deploy the CUBE?
A. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip allow-connections sip to h323
B. service voice voip allow-connections h323 to h323
allow-connections h323 to sip
allow-connections sip to sip
allow-connections sip to h323

C. service voice voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip
D. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 allow-connections h323 to sip

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which protocol provides the necessary sequence numbers so that voice packets originating at R1 are played in the correct order at R5?
A. UDP
B. RTP
C. RTCP
D. LFI
E. CRTP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 39
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. What is the minimum WAN bandwidth required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls in this network?
A. 51,600 bps
B. 19,200 bps
C. 247,200 bps
D. 79,200 bps

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 40
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which configuration option will allow communication between a voice-enabled router and a PBX?
A. voice port 1/0/0 signaling wink-start operation 4-wire auto-cut-through type 1
B. voice port 1/0/0 signaling immediate-start operation 4-wire type 5
C. voice port 1/0/0 signaling delay-start auto-cut-through operation 4-wire type 3 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
D. voice port 1/0/0 signaling wink-start operation 4-wire type 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 41
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on Certkiller 2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?
A. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0
D. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 555[2-5][56]

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 42
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Users are not able to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-1111. What is the correct diagnosis for the problem?
A. incorrect destination-pattern in router 1
B. incorrect port statement in router 1 pots dial peer
C. missing no digit-strip on the voip dial peer in router 1
D. incorrect POTS dial-peer statement in router 2
E. incorrect session-target statement in router 2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. You have configured a gatekeeper and an IP-IP gateway on the same router. When you look at the output from the show gatekeeper endpoint command, the IP-IP gateway is not registered with the gatekeeper. What needs to be configured to resolve this issue?

A. You need to add a VoIP dial peer to the configuration.
B. You need to stop and restart the gateway.
C. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect IP address.
D. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect gatekeeper ID and IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 44
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 Refer to the output from the debug h225 asn1 command in the exhibit. You have configured a gatekeeper with two local zones, hq and br. You want the gateway at the branch location to register with zone BR. What needs to be corrected in the branch gateway to resolve the issue?

A. Change the gatekeeper-id in the h323-gateway voip id command.
B. Change the IP address in the h323-gateway voip id command.
C. Add a zone remote for zone BR so the gateway can register with the correct zone.
D. Change the gatekeeper-id and the IP address in the h323-gateway voip id command. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 45
Exhibit:

To hide its identity when initiating calls, Phone B requests that Server Certkiller B place its calls for it. What kind of device is Server Certkiller B?
A. user agent client
B. redirect
C. registrar
D. proxy
E. user agent server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 46
Exhibit:

Refer to the IOS configuration in the exhibit. How will the next incoming call be routed?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
A. The call will be routed to a random available channel.
B. The call will be routed to the longest idle channel.
C. The call will be routed to the next available channel, starting from channel 1, hunting up toward channel
24.
D. The call will be routed to the least used channel.
E. The call will be routed to the next available channel, starting from channel 24, hunting down toward channel 1.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 47
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Enzo’s Bikes manufactures high end bicycle frames. Until recently they sold only to bicycle shops; however, now they are starting to sell to end users. They need a way to add two additional sales staff and ensure that the senior sales technician always gets the first call. Drew is the senior sales technician. Bob is the newest sales technician. Bob’s phone should always be the last one chosen for incoming sales calls, after Drew and James. Bob’s phone should be chosen first only when Drew and James are busy on calls. Select the correct dial-peer command set for Bob’s phone.
A. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference 2
B. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference firstlast
C. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference 3 huntstop
D. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
preference high

E. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference 0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 48
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Three department managers share the directory number 3000. The Marketing manager’s phone is attached to port 1/1. The Engineering manager’s phone is attached to port 1/2. The Shipping manager’s phone is attached to port 1/3. In which situation would an incoming call ring on the Shipping manager’s phone?
A. None of the managers are on the phone.
B. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
C. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 49
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. All IP phones use SCCP. Phone D calls phone G. Which statement is true about the audio path?
A. The first call leg terminates at gateway
B. The second call leg is from gateway A to phone G.
C. The first call leg terminates at gateway B. The second call leg is from gateway B to phone G.
D. The voice packets are routed through the gatekeeper.
E. The first call leg terminates at gateway
F. The second call leg is from gateway A to its termination at gateway B. The third call leg is from gateway B to phone G.
G. The voice packets are routed through the call agent.
H. The voice packets travel directly from phone to phone.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 50

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. country code
B. subscriber code
C. national destination code
D. provider code
Correct Answer: AB Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E.164 is an international numbering plan created by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Each number in the E.164 numbering plan
contains the following components:
Country code (CC)
National destination code (NDC – optional)
Subscriber number (SN)

The CC consists of one, two or three digits. It is what we add in order to access different countries and often prefixed with a +
The NDC is the code we often call the area code.
The SN is for telephone numbering. It is given by your phone operator.
E.164 numbers are limited to a maximum length of 15 digits.
For example, the North American Numbering Plan E.164 is as follows:
1-602-555-1212
+
1: Country code

+
602555: National destination code (for North American Numbering Plan, 602 is called the area code while 555 is called Central Office Code)

+
1212: Subscribe Number
Answer C is also correct but just optional. E.164 Numbering Plan must have Country Code and Subscriber Code so A & B are the correct answers.
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice packets carry their own signaling.
Correct Answer: B Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Out-of-Band signaling is telecommunication signaling exchange of information in order to control a telephone call. Out-of-Band signaling uses common channel signaling (CCS), that means signaling information is transmitted using a separate, dedicated signaling channel.
Answers A C D are characteristics of Channel associated signaling (CAS) so they are not correct.
QUESTION 3
The D channel in ISDN is an example of which two signaling methods? (Choose two.)
A. CCS signaling
B. out-of-band signaling
C. in-band signaling
D. CAS signaling
Correct Answer: AB Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V
Correct Answer: B Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This information is quoted from http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk1077/
technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f60.shtml

E&M Type I – This is the most common interface in North America.
Type I uses two leads for supervisor signaling: E, and M.
During inactivity, the E-lead is open and the M-lead is connected to the ground.
The PBX (that acts as trunk circuit side) connects the M-lead to the battery in order to indicate the off-hook
condition.
The Cisco router/gateway (signaling unit) connects the E-lead to the ground in order to indicate the off-
hook condition.

E&M Type II – Two signaling nodes can be connected back-to-back.
Type II uses four leads for supervision signaling: E, M, SB, and SG.
During inactivity both the E-lead and M-lead are open.
The PBX (that acts as trunk circuit side) connects the M-lead to the signal battery (SB) lead connected to
the battery of the signaling side in order to indicate the off-hook condition.
The Cisco router / gateway (signaling unit) connects the E-lead to the signal ground (SG) lead connected
to the ground of the trunk circuit side in order to indicate the off-hook condition.

E&M Type III – This is not commonly used in modern systems.
Type III uses four leads for supervision signaling: E, M, SB, and SG.
During inactivity, the E-lead is open and the M-lead is set to the ground connected to the SG lead of the
signaling side.
The PBX (that acts as trunk circuit side) disconnects the M-lead from the SG lead and connects it to the
SB lead of the signaling side in order to indicate the off-hook condition.
The Cisco router / gateway (signaling unit) connects the E-lead to the ground in order to indicate the off-
hook condition.

E&M Type IV – This is not supported by Cisco routers / gateways.

E&M Type V – Type V is symmetrical and allows two signaling nodes to be connected back-to-back. This is
the most common interface type used outside of North America.
Type V uses two leads for supervisor signaling: E, and M.
During inactivity the E-lead and M-lead are open.
The PBX ( that acts as trunk circuit side) connects the M-lead to the ground in order to indicate the off-
hook condition.
The Cisco router / gateway (signaling unit) connects the E-lead to the ground in order to indicate off-hook
condition.

Although above information specifies E&M Type 1 is the most commonly used interface in North America
but this type generates significant delay in the signaling operation when transmitting between
geographically separated equipment and affects voice signal quality (because of significant inductance and
capacitance of the long wires) so Type 2 is often used instead.

QUESTION 5
Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three.)
A. busy
B. on hook
C. off hook
D. call waiting
E. ring
Correct Answer: BCE Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the approximate frequency range of human speech?
A. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
B. 40 Hz to 15,000 Hz
C. 200 Hz to 9000 Hz
D. 600 Hz to 5400 Hz
Correct Answer: C Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What is the process of assigning audio amplitude to a unique digital code word?
A. linear prediction
B. encoding
C. sampling
D. quantization
Correct Answer: D Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
What is the E.164 standard?
A. private numbering plan
B. national numbering plan
C. dial plan
D. international public telecommunications numbering plan
Correct Answer: D Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
For the following items, which is the most common E&M type used outside North America?
A. Type IV
B. Type I
C. Type II
D. Type III
E. Type V
Correct Answer: E Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A new business in Great Britain needs to have a PSTN connection that will handle a maximum of 30 inbound and outbound calls at any given time. The customer only has one slot available on the designated PSTN router. Which digital line type should be recommended?
A. QSIG
B. ISDN BRI
C. ISDN E1 PRI
D. ISDN T1 PRI
Correct Answer: C Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam B
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit for IP addresses and telephone numbers. You are working with a customer opening a small sales office in Atlanta. You want the user in Atlanta to be able to dial into the PBX in New York over the IP WAN. The New York PBX uses ground start, a two-wire operation, and DTMF dialing. Choose the correct FXO port configuration commands for New York.
Exhibit:

A. voice-port 1/0/0signal ground-startoperation 2-wiredial-type dtmf
B. voice-port 1/1/1destination 2015551212 signal ground-startoperation 2-wiretype 1dial-type dtmf
C. voice port 1/0/0session target ipv4:172.16.1.1destination 2015551212 signal ground-startoperation 2-wiredial-type dtmf
D. voice port 1/0/0session target ipv4:172.16.1.1source 2015551212 signal wink-startoperation 2-wiredial-type dtmf
Correct Answer: A Section: Analog Voice Port Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration option will allow communication between a voice-enabled router and a PBX?
Exhibit:

A. voice port 1/0/0signaling wink-startoperation 4-wireauto-cut-throughtype 1
B. voice port 1/0/0signaling immediate-startoperation 4-wiretype 5
C. voice port 1/0/0signaling delay-startauto-cut-throughoperation 4-wiretype 3
D. voice port 1/0/0signaling wink-startoperation 4-wiretype 4
Correct Answer: A Section: Analog Voice Port Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Examine the following PBX system parameters:
The calling side seizes the line by going off-hook on its E-lead and sends information as DTMF digits.

The voice path is 4-wires, and the voice enabled router is in another building from the PBX.
Select the correct set of commands to allow communication between a voice enabled router and a PBX.
A. voice port 1/0/0signal immediate-startoperation 4-wiretype 2
B. voice-port 1/0/0signal delay-dialoperation 4-wiretype 1
C. voice port 1/0/0signal wink-startoperation 4-wiretype 3
D. voice port 1/0/0signal immediate-startoperation 4-wiretype 4
Correct Answer: A Section: Analog Voice Port Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam C
QUESTION 1
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as a recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup
Correct Answer: B Section: Call Signaling Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MGCP Call Agent is a central control component to remotely control various devices. When the MGCP call agent exists in the network, calls are routed via route patterns on the Call Agent (Cisco Unified Communications Manager), not by dial peers on the gateway.

The messages sent between the voice gateway and the MGCP Call Agent are just used for call signaling and call setup only. In summary, the Call Agent will instruct the gateways what to do in each stage: receive dialed digits, find the destination gateway, send connection request… Finally, the Call Agent will allow gateways to establish RTP Streams with each other. Notice that the voice streams only flow between the two voice gateways, not to the Call Agent.
At the conversation finishs (one of the endpoints goes on-hook), that gateway notifies the Call Agent and the Call Agent sends Delete Connection (DLCX) Requests for both gateways.
QUESTION 2
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source
Correct Answer: D Section: Call Signaling Explanation

The MGCP call agent releases the setup of the call path to the residential gateways when the conversation begins. After sending the Modify Connection (MDCX), the two gateways have enough information to start the conversation so the duty of the Call Agent finishs.
QUESTION 3
Which three services are supported by CUBE when supporting H323-to-SIP calls? (Choose three.)
A. SIP cause codes
B. media flow-around
C. media flow-through
D. codec transparent support
E. Transport Layer Security
F. H.261, H.263, and H.264 video codecs
Correct Answer: CDE Section: Call Signaling Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two are attributes of SCCP? (Choose two.)
A. It is Cisco proprietary.
B. It is a supervisory signaling protocol.
C. It is classified as client/server architecture.
D. SCCP devices are considered intelligent endpoints.
Correct Answer: AC Section: Call Signaling Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones are SCCP phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone G. Which call setup signaling statement is true?
Exhibit:

A. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
D. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.
Correct Answer: E Section: Call Signaling
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about MGCP?
A. Call completion is always shared, with some intelligence on the endpoint, some on the call agent.
B. Endpoints always take all actions to complete calls.
C. Endpoints may act alone or cooperate with call agent to complete calls.
D. Call agents order and direct each step of call completion for the endpoints.
Correct Answer: D Section: Call Signaling Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam D
QUESTION 1
You work as a network technician , study the exhibit carefully. The Acme Corp. uses H.323 to place calls to their supplier RR Industries. Acme also has a voice connection to an ITSP for long distance over a SIP network. Which configuration should Acme use to deploy the CUBE?
Hot Area:

Correct Answer: Section: Internet Telephony Service Provider Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Acme Corp connects to the ITSP via SIP Trunk and connects to RR industries via H.323. The Acme
Corp itself uses H.323 so we have to enable protocol interworking with allow-connections commands:

allow-connections h323 to h323: allow Acme Corp to communicate with RR industries (in both ways)
allow-connections h323 to sip: allow Acme Corp to talk with ITSP (Acme Corp can talk and ITSP can hear
but not vice versa)
allow-connections sip to h323: allow ITSP to talk with Acme Corp (Acme Corp can hear and ITSP can talk
but not vice versa)

Notice that the configuration for H.323 and SIP interworking is unidirectional, thus if bidirectional
interworking is required, you need to configure the mirror-matching statement as well.

Acme Corp doesn’t use SIP so we don’t need to configure “allow-connections sip to sip”.

QUESTION 2
H.323 is an umbrella Recommendation from the ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T) that defines the protocols to provide audio-visual communication sessions on any packet network. Which CUBE configuration will support H.323 protocol interworking and address hiding?
A. voice services voip
h323 interworking
media flow-around

B. voice services h323 to h323 h323 interworking media flow-through
C. voice services voip allow-connections h323 to h323 media flow-around
D. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323
Correct Answer: D Section: Internet Telephony Service Provider Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?

A. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are the digits manipulated in R1 so that they are presented correctly at R2?

A. The outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
B. The digits 404-555 are stripped off before matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
C. The digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and R2 receives only 1200.
D. R1 collects the 1200 and prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the PBXs today. Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?

A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as a recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit for IP addresses and telephone numbers. You are working with a customer opening a small sales office in Atlanta. You want the user in Atlanta to be able to dial into the PBX in New York over the IP WAN. The New York PBX uses ground start, a two-wire operation, and DTMF dialing. Choose the correct FXO port configuration commands for New York.

A. voice-port 1/0/0signal ground-startoperation 2-wiredial-type dtmf
B. voice-port 1/1/1destination 2015551212 signal ground-startoperation 2-wiretype 1dial-type dtmf
C. voice port 1/0/0session target ipv4:172.16.1.1destination 2015551212 signal ground-startoperation 2-wiredial-type dtmf
D. voice port 1/0/0session target ipv4:172.16.1.1source 2015551212 signal wink-startoperation 2-wire
dial-type dtmf
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Lighthorse Equine Management would like to investigate converging voice and data on their existing T1 Frame Relay WAN link between New York and Atlanta. Currently the following list of applications are consuming no more bandwidth than what is listed on this segment of the network.
T1 link 1536 kbps e-mail 75 kbps internet 200 kbps Oracle 500 kbps FTP 250 kbps Total 1025 kbps
The customer has allocated 25% of the WAN link for routing updates and other overhead. They would like to increase the number of samples encapsulated in each PDU to 40 ms. You have calculated 6 bytes of overhead for Frame Relay, no cRTP, and the use of the G.711 codec. How many simultaneous calls could be placed on this link?
A. 0 calls
B. 1 call
C. 2 calls
D. no more than 5 calls
E. no more than 10 calls
F. no more than 20 calls
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. A QoS strategy has already been deployed on the LAN. Choose three WAN QoS best practices that should be used over the WAN link. (Choose three.)

A. Implement NBAR.
B. Implement admission control.
C. Mark voice traffic as EF in DSCP.
D. Mark voice traffic highest priority in 802.1p.
E. Use cRTP to maximize bandwidth utilization.
F. Configure access switches to trust traffic from IP phones.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. call leg
B. IP route
C. session target
D. destination pattern
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Users are not able to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-1111. What is the correct diagnosis for the problem?

A. incorrect destination-pattern in router 1
B. incorrect POTS dial-peer statement in router 2
C. incorrect session-target statement in router 2
D. incorrect port statement in router 1 pots dial peer
E. missing no digit-strip on the voip dial peer in router 1
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both gateways provide access to area code 408. Which two command strings should be entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway? (Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Highland Park Property Development is integrating a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system with the existing PBX via an E1 QSIG trunk. After the initial configuration, no
calls can be placed from IP phones to PBX phones. How can this problem be resolved?

A. Increase the ISDN T302 timer to allow more time for call setup.
B. Add the command isdn negotiate-bchan to the serial interface.
C. Add the command isdn contiguous-bchan to the serial interface.
D. Change the channel selection order from descending to ascending.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The Carmichael caller dials the site access code for Merrimack (6) followed by the four-digit extension number of the destination phone (0124). If the call is going to go across the IP WAN, which action will have to be taken?

A. Translate 50124 to 5125550124.
B. Strip the site access code and send four digits.
C. Strip the site access code and prepend 1512555.
D. Do nothing because the site access code matches the last five digits of the target number.
E. Strip the site access code, send four digits, then prepend the access code when it reaches the Merrimack gateway.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which path selection mechanism lets you choose either the even or odd channels first?
A. hunt groups
B. trunk groups
C. tailend hopoff
D. Call Admission Control
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which mechanism do you use to implement calling privileges on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. CoS
B. QoS

C. CAC
D. COR
E. SRST

Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17

Refer to the H.323 message in the exhibit. What is the gateway doing with the gatekeeper?

A. initial registration
B. full registration

C. lightweight registration
D. registration retry

Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18

In which three RAS messages is the technology prefix sent? (Choose three.)
A. GRQ
B. RRQ
C. RCF
D. IRR
E. IRQ
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the output from the debug h225 asn1command in the exhibit. You have configured a gatekeeper with two local zones, hq and br. You want the gateway at the branch location to register with zone BR. What needs to be corrected in the branch gateway to resolve the issue?
A. Change the IP address in the h323-gateway voip id command.
B. Change the gatekeeper-id in the h323-gateway voip id command.
C. Add a zone remote for zone BR so the gateway can register with the correct zone.
D. Change the gatekeeper-id and the IP address in the h323-gateway voip id command.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three services are supported by CUBE when supporting H323-to-SIP calls? (Choose three.)
A. SIP cause codes
B. media flow-around
C. media flow-through
D. codec transparent support
E. Transport Layer Security
F. H.261, H.263, and H.264 video codecs
Correct Answer: CDE Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
You have been asked to deploy a gatekeeper to support CUBE that will connect your organizational domain to the domain of an Internet Telephony Service Provider so that callers can reach the 407 area code. Which configuration will support this function?
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
B. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
E. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.
F. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
Correct Answer: EF Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which CUBE configuration will support H.323 protocol interworking and address hiding?
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The Acme Corp. is deploying a CUBE. As a component of protocol interworking between RR Industries and the ITSP, they need to configure at least two dial peers. When the IP WAN is functional, Acme Corp. wants to use 5-digit dialing to RR Industries. Which three dial peers will complete the configuration for Acme Corp.? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BCF Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. You have configured a gatekeeper and an IP-IP gateway on the same router. When you look at the output from the show gatekeeper endpoint command, the IP-IP gateway is not registered with the gatekeeper. What needs to be configured to resolve this issue?

A. You need to stop and restart the gateway.
B. You need to add a VoIP dial peer to the configuration.
C. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect IP address.
D. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect gatekeeper ID and IP address.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
A new business in Great Britain needs to have a PSTN connection that will handle a maximum of 30 inbound and outbound calls at any given time. The customer only has one slot available on the designated PSTN router. Which digital line type should be recommended?
A. QSIG
B. ISDN BRI
C. ISDN E1 PRI

D. ISDN T1 PRI
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
A customer needs to configure a CAS E&M circuit that will support inbound and outbound DNIS and inbound ANI. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. pri-group timeslots 1-24
B. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type none
C. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type e&m-fgd
D. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type fgd-eana
E. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-31 type r2-digital r2-compelled ani
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Refer to the IOS configuration in the exhibit. How will the next incoming call be routed?

A. The call will be routed to the longest idle channel.
B. The call will be routed to the least used channel.
C. The call will be routed to a random available channel.
D. The call will be routed to the next available channel, starting from channel 1, hunting up toward channel
E. The call will be routed to the next available channel, starting from channel 24, hunting down toward channel 1.
Correct Answer: E Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
A telemarketing firm needs to use number translation for incoming and outgoing calls. They have defined two translation profiles, one for incoming and one for outgoing calls. What can be used to simplify this task?
A. dial peer
B. voice port
C. hunt group
D. trunk group
E. source IP group
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. Three department managers share the directory number 3000. The Marketing manager’s phone is attached to port 1/1. The Engineering manager’s phone is attached to port 1/2. The Shipping manager’s phone is attached to port 1/3. In which situation would an incoming call ring on the Shipping manager’s phone?

A. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
B. None of the managers are on the phone.
C. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
Correct Answer: E Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

The Cisco 642-436 certification can make you a competent person. It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 642-436 configurations,get information about the Cisco 642-436 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 642-436 united computing systems.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost-effective, high-bandwidth solution that is suitable only within a limited geographical area?
A. FCIP
B. DWDM
C. CWDM
D. SONET/SDH
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Your Cisco MDS 9509 configuration requires 2000 watts of power and is configured with two 2500W power supplies. If 110V power is provided to the switch, in which power mode does the switch operate?
A. The director will operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director will operate in combined mode only
C. The director will operate in redundant mode or combined mode
D. The director cannot operate with 110V power
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two kinds of applications require sustained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)
A. synchronous replication
B. asynchronous replication
C. OLTP
D. tape backup
E.
F. mail
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
Which of the following designs would provide your customer with the highest performance and port utilization?
A. multi-tier design
B. collapsed core design
C. corE.edge design
D. singlE.tier design
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer plans to add a tape backup subsystem to its existing storage network. In which location should the customer place the tape backup device in order to provide the best performance during backup and recovery?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

You are designing a new SAN. The existing SAN uses eight 32-port 2-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches, and the remaining six switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has two ISLs to each of the two core switches. The disk array has twelve 2-Gbps Fibre Channel ports. Each of the 84 servers has a dual-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel HBA. Which Cisco MDS 9000 configuration would improve performance?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 switches, with two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch
B. two Cisco MDS 9506 switches, with three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 switches, with one 16-port Fibre Channel line card and two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch
D. two Cisco MDS 9513 switches, with two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
How does RolE.Based Access Control (RBAC) enhance manageability in an environment with VSANs?
A. limits operator errors by isolating user management domains within a large physical infrastructure “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
B. specifies port membership to a specific VSAN
C. configures security options for host ports that are assigned to a VSAN
D. configures VSAN membership for specific trunk ports
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three of these Cisco storage and networking devices are optimized for use in FCIP SAN Extension implementations? (Choose three.
A. MDS 92161 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. IPS-8
C. MDS 9120 Multilayer Fabric Switch
D. MDS 9140 Multilayer Fabric Switch
E. MPS-14/2
F. ssm
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to FibreChannel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two items are necessary when implementing a highly available SAN design? (Choose two.)
A. redundant hardware
B. localized data backups
C. real-time fabric monitoring
D. nondisruptive upgrades
E. traffic engineering and QoS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

Your customer has an existing SAN with eight edge switches and two core switches. In your detailed assessment, which metric will help you convince the customer to consider an alternative, more highly available topology?
A. SFP characteristics .
B. total port count
C. cost of edge switch devices
D. total versus usable ports for end devices

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements correctly identify how Cisco MDS Series switches increase the overall resiliency of SAN extension? (Choose two.)
A. VSANs and IVR eliminate the potential disruption of a WAN failure.
B. VSANs and IVR increase reliability by combining control traffic and data traffic over the WAN.
C. Parallel tunnels and PortChannels prevent any VSAN or IVR in the local fabric from failing. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
D. PortChannels and VSANs can be used with FCIP to provide enD.to-end redundancy and load balancing.
E. Recovery at the PortChannel level, instead of at the FSPF routing level, is non-disruptive.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.A customer is using an 18/4-Port Multiservice Module in his data center to provide FCIP connectivity to 20 remote sites. The 18/4 MSM has encountered connectivity problems at four of the remote sites. After investigating, the customer’s network administrator found that the 18/4 MSM is sending 2300-byte packets, but the receiving switches at the four remote sites do not support jumbo frames. What should you do? Select the best response.

A. Disable packet shaping on the 18/4 MSM.
B. Reduce the minimum retransmit timeout.
C. Disable jumbo frames on the 18/4 MSM.
D. Enable Path MTU Discovery.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
A. LUN Zoning
B. ReaD-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the recommended design practice for routing from Cisco MDS to remote iSCSI host subnets?
A. configure a default route on the IPS module
B. configure a static route on the IPS module
C. configure a dynamic IP routing protocol on the IPS module
D. place the iSCSI hosts on the same subnet as the IPS module interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
What is an advantage of Cisco MDS 9000 Distributed Device Alias Services over Fibre Channel aliases?
A. Persist across switch reboots
B. Stored on the management server, not on the switch
C. Preserved when devices are moved between VSANs
D. Simplify SAN migration operations

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
A customer has recently deployed a number of Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in a new data center. At the time of deployment, it was discovered that 110V AC power circuits had been installed instead of the high-voltage 220V AC circuits that had been ordered. The customer decided to install one of the directors and use the 110V AC circuit. The MDS 9509 is configured with two 2500W AC power supplies. The power supplies are configured in redundant mode.
What is the redundant power capacity of the MDS 9509 in this scenario? “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
A. 1300
B. 2500
C. 2600
D. 5000

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
A government agency data center that is used for tax processing is located in an earthquake fault zone. A backup data center, located 300 km away, is linked to the main data center over an OC.3 connection.
Which of the following provides the best solution to extend the SAN for business continuance and for support of their IP applications?
A. synchronous replication using FCIP
B. iSCSI
C. FCIP and asynchronous replication
D. dark fiber connectivity and use of synchronous replication over FC

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
A customer has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement for synchronous data replication between the data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart, what is the most cost effective solution?
A. CWDM
B. IVR
C. FSPF
D. DWDM
E. Native FC

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
A. fewer hops for a given exchange “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
B. fewer long-wave SFPs
C. fewer ISL connections
D. fewer domains on the domain list
E. fewer director-class switches

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Your customer uses a custom changE.management application. The customer wants running configuration files from Cisco MDS 9000 switches to be saved automatically to an FTP server every night. How can this be accomplished?
A. The customer must purchase Fabric Manager Server to set up automated jobs.
B. The customer must purchase the Enterprise license to enable Batch Job Automation.
C. The customer can use the CFS feature to distribute a command job to each switch in the fabric.
D. The customer can use the CLI Command Scheduler to set up automated jobs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
A. VSANs
B. zones
C. QoS
D. IVR

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
A customer would like to deploy a low-cost solution to implement an asynchronous database.replication application across a distance of 100 kilometers. Select the lowest-cost solution that will meet the requirements.
A. CWDM
B. DWDM
C. FCIP
D. SONET/SDH “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Your SAN environment requires redundant fabrics with redundant connectivity for 40 database hosts at 2 Gbps of throughput per host. Which two of these configurations are possible? (Choose two.)
A. two 48-port line cards
B. four 48-port line cards
C. four 32-port line cards
D. six 16-portline cards
E. two 32-port line cards and two 16-port line cards

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25
Which Cisco MDS feature alleviates a head.of.line blocking condition when occasional bursts of traffic exceed the capacity of an end device to receive data?
A. VOQs
B. VSAN allowed list
C. FCC
D. QoS

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Your customer has a number of data storage requirements:
* servers are not responsible for volume management or data migration storage is provisioned in real time legacy and heterogeneous storage assets can be consolidated and fully utilized data can be protected using simplified snapshot and replication techniques data can be assigned to different classes easily
Which solution would meet these requirements?
A. VSANs
B. Wide-Area Application Services (WAAS) “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
C. fabric-based virtualization
D. LUN zoning
E. host-based virtualization

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a sustained I/O rate of 75 MBps. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
What are three benefits of storage consolidation? (Choose three.)
A. management costs are reduced, since fewer people are needed to administer the common management applications
B. bandwidth demands on the network are reduced
C. corporate data is more accessible
D. Fibre Channel is no longer needed to transport traffic “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 12 Cisco 642-357: Practice Exam
E. existing disk space is utilized more effectively

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
A customer has deployed a number of Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in its data center. Some of the directors were deployed with a pair of 4000W AC power supplies and some were deployed with a pair of 2500W AC power supplies, depending on their locations within the data center. The customer has a pool of spare 4000W power supplies. The power supplies to some of the directors have been configured in combined mode in order to support line card configuration.
One of the 2500W power supplies to an MDS 9509 configured in combined mode fails. The administrator has no additional 2500W power supplies as spare. The administrator replaces the failed 2500W power supply with a 4000W power supply.
What will be the combineD.mode power capacity of the MDS 9509 running on 220V AC power?
A. 1300
B. 2500
C. 5000
D. 6500

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

We provide Cisco 642-357 help and information on a wide range of issues.Cisco 642-357 is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous.Cisco 642-357 free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.