Adobe_PrepKing 9A0-029 v2011-06-11_175q_By-Laren
Exam A QUESTION 1
Which is necessary to create new data and markup text that will be inserted into an XML or SGML document when a structured FrameMaker document is exported?
A. a read/write rule file
B. an SGML or XML application
C. a special version of FrameMaker
D. an API client created with the FDK
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which part of the structured FrameMaker application controls how long SGML and FrameMaker element names can be by default?
A. EDD
B. DTD
C. SGML declaration file
D. CSS formatting sheet
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
In the application definition file, what is the first required child element needed in the SGML or XML application?
A. Doctype
B. Template
C. ReadWriteRules
D. ApplicationName
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
How many read/write rules documents can be referenced in a single structured FrameMaker application?
A. one, as a child of the SGMLApplication element or XMLApplication element
B. none, since read/write rules are not referenced in structured FrameMaker applications
C. an unlimited number as long as each one is a reference to a different read/write rules document
D. an unlimited number as long as each one is in referenced with a separate ReadWriteRules element
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which command should you use to update the EDD of a structured FrameMaker document with a DTD?
A. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > New EDD
B. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Open DTD
C. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Import DTD
D. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Save As DTD
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
In which three file formats can Adobe FrameMaker files be saved? (Choose three.)
A. TXT
B. IAF
C. PDF
D. EPS
E. HTML
F. PM65
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7
You need to rename a file in your book. You are accessing the file on your local hard disk. You want to ensure that all cross-references from other chapters to the file are maintained. What should you do?
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Adobe_PrepKing 9A0-019 v2011-06-11_114q_By-David
Exam A
QUESTION 1
If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 4
You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Exhibit:
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer: with the type layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer: with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
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3COM_PrepKing 3M0-701 v2011-06-11_139q_By-Drew
Exam A QUESTION 1
The Dial Plan Entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose One)
A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Mailbox
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Extension
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Dial Plan operations. Match the Dial plan Operation with the appropriate description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Camp on allows you to queue to transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Configurable operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned. What are these two operators called? ( Choose two.)
A. Personal Operator
B. System Operator
C. User Operator
D. Destination Operator
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following best defines the acronym VPIM (Choose one)
A. Voice profile for internet messaging
B. Vector profile for internet messaging
C. Voice protocol for internet messages
D. Vector protocol for internet messages
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Bridge station Appearance is created via button mappings.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? ( Choose three.)
A. Supports up to 1500 total devices
B. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports
C. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines
D. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines
E. Supports up to 200 total devices
F. Supports up to 72 Voice mail ports
Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 9
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. NBX 100
C. V5000
D. V3000 BRI-ST
E. V3001R
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Call
Forward Options. Match the Options with the appropriate descriptions.
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3Com_PrepKing 3M0-700 v2011-06-11_108q_By-Peter
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 3
Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of “user” and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000” for access
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a “s
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leatest 3M0-600 exam dumps v2011-06-11_97q_By-Clinton
Latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-600.html exam dumps Certification Answers. Recenty Updated 3M0-600 Actual Test
Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
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latest 3M0-331 exam dumps _v2011-11-09_180q_By-Nels
3M0-331 Test Software. High Pass Rate https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-331.html Certification Braindumps Is Your Best Choice
Exam A
QUESTION 1
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button. In the diagram, which additional router command is needed to correctly configure CHAP?
A. [RTA] LCP Chap
B. [RTB] Chap enable
C. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
D. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp chap user RTA
E. [RTB-Serial1/0/0] ppp authentication-mode chap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
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Latest 3M0-300 exam dumps _v2011-06-11_55q_By-Bruni
3m0-300 Exam Book Pdf Free Download. This Article Profiles The 3COM https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-300.html Exam Book Pdf Free Download Are The Same As Real Test.
Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
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3COM 3M0-250 3Com Certified Enterprise Lan Post-Sales Expert 50 Q&A Version 2.73
Our https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-250.html Cost Effective Certification vce braindumps are the best preparation materials for the certification exam and the guarantee of clearing exam quickly with less effort
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
Latest 3M0-212 exam dumps _v2010-07-31_135q_By-Alex
3COM 3M0-212 Exams get through Latest Upload https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html Study Guides On Sale the vast amount of email received everyday exam study guide answers exam providing exam study guide
Exam A QUESTION 1
What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?
A. DVMRP
B. PIM-SM/DM
C. IGMP Snooping
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported on all Switch 8800 I/O modules? (Choose two.)
A. Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) interface for all Ethernet ports
B. IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
C. Layer 2/ Layer 3 switch packet processing
D. Each interface module maintains its own routing and forwarding tables
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
B. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
C. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
D. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
E. Port-based VLANs
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 4
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
B. XRN Interconnect
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping
B. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
E. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
F. Cut-through switching
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Match each Spanning Tree acronym with itsdefinition.
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3COM_CertifyMe 3M0-211_v2010-07-31_85q_By-Williams
3COM https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-211.html Exam Answers exam training materials are the necessities of each of candidates who participating in the IT certification
Exam : 3M0-211 Ver : 2010-07-31 Overall it’s been a good Question for exams. Best wishes for exam. By-Williams
Exam A
QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
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