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First, Cisco Security Core Technologies 350-701 SCOR practice exam online
QUESTION 1
Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and
control?
A. SNORT
B. NetFlow
C. SNMP
D. 802.1X
Correct Answer: B
Application Visibility and Control (AVC) supports NetFlow to export application usage and performance statistics. This
data can be used for analytics, billing, and security policies.
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?
A. It is the password for the certificate that is needed to install it.
B. It provides the server information so a certificate can be created and signed
C. It provides the certificate client information so the server can authenticate against it when installing
D. It is the certificate that will be loaded onto the server
Correct Answer: B
A certificate signing request (CSR) is one of the first steps towards getting your own SSL Certificate. Generated on the
same server you plan to install the certificate on, the CSR contains information (e.g. common name, organization,
country) that the Certificate Authority (CA) will use to create your certificate. It also contains the public key that will be
included in your certificate and is signed with the corresponding private key
QUESTION 3
An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not
installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this
ransomware infection? (Choose two)
A. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on
the network.
B. Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on
the network.
C. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before
allowing access to the network.
D. Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.
E. Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a
timely fashion.
Correct Answer: AC
A posture policy is a collection of posture requirements, which are associated with one or more identity groups, and
operating systems. We can configure ISE to check for the Windows patch at Work Centers > Posture > Posture
Elements > Conditions > File.In this example, we are going to use the predefined file check to ensure that our Windows
10 clients have the critical security patch installed to prevent the Wanna Cry malware.
QUESTION 4
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two)
A. Exchange
B. Pull messaging
C. Binding
D. Correlation
E. Mitigating
Correct Answer: BC
The Trusted Automated exchange of Indicator Information (TAXII) specifies mechanisms for exchanging structured cyber threat information between parties over the network.TAXII exists to provide specific capabilities to those interested in sharing structured cyber threat information.
TAXII Capabilities are the highest level at which TAXII actions can be described. There are three capabilities that this version of TAXII supports: push messaging, pull messaging, and discovery.Although there is no “binding” capability in the list it is the best answer here.
QUESTION 5
What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?
A. access point
B. WSA
C. ASA
D. ESA
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/security-manager/index.html
QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?
A. Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.
B. Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.
C. Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.
D. Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the
organization to create a policy to control application-specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?
A. Use security services to configure the traffic monitor,
B. Use URL categorization to prevent application traffic.
C. Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.
D. Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality
Correct Answer: C
The Application Visibility and Control (AVC) engine lets you create policies to control application activity on the network without having to fully understand the underlying technology of each application. You can configure application control settings in Access Policy groups. You can block or allow applications individually or according to application type. You can also apply controls to particular application types.
QUESTION 9
Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)
A. It can handle explicit HTTP requests.
B. It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.
C. It requires a proxy for the client web browser.
D. WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
E. Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is testing NTP authentication and realizes that any device synchronizes time
with this router and that NTP authentication is not enforced. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The hashing algorithm that was used as MD5, which is unsupported.
B. The key was configured in plain text.
C. NTP authentication is not enabled.
D. The router was not rebooted after the NTP configuration was updated.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak control
the method is used to accomplish this task?
A. device flow correlation
B. simple detections
C. application blocking list
D. advanced custom detections
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of authentication is in use?
A. LDAP authentication for Microsoft Outlook
B. POP3 authentication
C. SMTP relay server authentication
D. external user and relay mail authentication
Correct Answer: D
The exhibit in this Question shows a successful TLS connection from the remote host (reception) in the mail log.
QUESTION 13
What is the difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, FlexVPN only uses IKEv1
B. DMVPN uses only IKEv1 FlexVPN uses only IKEv2
C. FlexVPN uses IKEv2, DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2
D. FlexVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, DMVPN uses only IKEv2
Correct Answer: C
Second, Cisco 350-701 SCOR pdf download
350-701 SCOR dumps pdf https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ayHc-HIUTc0eLVh2e_CjfseaTK-LJkcK/view?usp=sharing
Ending:
The 350-701 practice exam should be thoroughly studied, and more time should be spent practicing the 350-701 practice test! Another tip: To test your true understanding of the topic, ask yourself some questions. Overall, the 350-701 exam is very difficult to learn, and there are too many questions to know, and it is difficult to remember them all. But I think if you follow my advice, you should be able to get through!
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