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Learning Cisco 350-401 ENCOR certification test question


Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. The device will allow users at to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey
B. The device will allow only users at 192 168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4
C. When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4. the device will authenticate them against TACACS* if local
authentication fails
D. The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+

Correct Answer: D


Drag the drop the description from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.
Select and Place:


An engineer creates the configuration below. Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of
priority on the right. Not all options are used.

R1#sh run | i aaaaaa new-model aaa authentication login default group ACE group AAA_RADIUS local-cassava
session-id common
Select and Place:


Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present?

A. Patch B. Omnidirectional
C. Yagi
D. Dipole

Correct Answer: A



Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis?

A. Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT
B. Cisco Stealthwatch system
C. Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance

Correct Answer: B

The goal of the Cyber Threat Defense solution is to introduce a design and architecture that can help facilitate the
discovery, containment, and remediation of threats once they have penetrated into the network interior. Cisco Cyber
Threat Defense version 2.0 makes use of several solutions to accomplish its objectives:

NetFlow and the Lancope StealthWatch System
Broad visibility
User and flow context analysis
Network behavior and anomaly detection
Incident response and network forensics

Cisco FirePOWER and FireSIGHT
Real-time threat management
Deeper contextual visibility for threats bypassing the perimeters?URL control

Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
Endpoint control with AMP for Endpoints
Malware control with AMP for networks and content

Content Security Appliances and Services
Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) and Cloud Web Security (CWS)
Dynamic threat control for web traffic
Latest 350-401 Dumps | 350-401 Study Guide | 350-401 Exam Questions 6 / 13
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Outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls
Detection of suspicious web activity
Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)
Dynamic threat control for email traffic
Detection of suspicious email activity

Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)
User and device identity integration with Lancope StealthWatch
Remediation policy actions using pxGrid



A customer has deployed an environment with shared storage to allow for the migration of virtual machines between
servers with dedicated operating systems that provide the virtualization platform.

What is this operating system described as?

A. hosted virtualization
B. type 1 hypervisor
C. container oriented
D. decoupled

Correct Answer: B


An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets that include an ACK In the TCP header. Which entry must be
Included In the ACL?

A. access-list 110 permits tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack
B. access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack
C. access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established
D. access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

Correct Answer: D


Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefox session. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large
commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to
frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 GHz channel list
B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference
C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar
D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference
E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 GHz band only

Correct Answer: AC


Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two)

A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
C. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination
E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table

Correct Answer: DE

Cisco IOS software basically supports two modes of CEF load balancing: On a per-destination or per-packet basis. For predestination load balancing a hash is computed out of the source and destination IP address (-> Answer \’ It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination\’ is correct).

This hash points to exactly one of the adjacency entries in the adjacency table (-> Answer \’ Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table\’ is correct), providing that the same path is used for all packets with this source/destination address pair.

If per-packet load balancing is used the packets are distributed round-robin over the available paths. In either case, the information in the FIB and adjacency tables provide all the necessary forwarding information, just like for non-load balancing operation.

The number of paths used is limited by the number of entries the routing protocol puts in the routing table, the default in IOS is 4 entries for most IP routing protocols with the exception of BGP, where it is one entry. The maximum number that can be configured is 6 different paths -> Answer \’ Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations\’ is not correct.

en/US/products/HW/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference 09186a00800afeb7.html


What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes the root bridge for VLAN 10? (Choose two.)

A. DSW1(config)#spanning-tree VLAN 10 priority 4096
B. DSW1(config)#spanning-tree VLAN 10 priority root
C. DSW2(config)#spanning-tree VLAN 10 priority 61440
D. DSW1(config)#spanning-tree VLAN 10 port-priority 0
E. DSW2(config)#spanning-tree VLAN 20 priority 0

Correct Answer: AB


Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are
registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

A. Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.
B. CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B.
C. Client 1 uses an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.
D. The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Correct Answer: D

This is called Inter Controller-L2 Roaming. Inter-Controller (normally layer 2) roaming occurs when a client roams
between two APs registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. In
In this instance, controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is
moved from the original controller to the new controller

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