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QUESTION 75
Nexus7000# config t Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11 Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50 Nexus700(config-if)# exit Nexus700(config)#
What will this command sequence achieve?
A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50
B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50
C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14
D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to each QoS group?
A. show interface priority-flow-control
B. show interface queuing
C. show queuing interface
D. show policy-map system type queuing
E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit.

During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What’s the cause of this issue?
A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, and CPU state?
A. show memory detailed
B. show process cpu sorted
C. show system resources
D. show hardware capacity

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?
A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-plane traffic.
C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four)
A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vPC domain.
B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios
C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other when needed
D. vPC member ports forming the PortChannel
E. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peers
F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 81
Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. fabric binding
C. IVR
D. port tracking
E. FICON

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit.

Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.
Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link?
A. show fspf traffic vsan 10
B. show vsan 10
C. show trunk protocol
D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment?
A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC
D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?
A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX.
B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or channels.
C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF.
D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active is supported.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch?
Flow ID. 44 Initiator VSAN: 200 Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db Target VSAN: 200 Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef Target LUN: ALL LUNs Flow Verification Status:
Initiator Verification Status: success Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator Linecard Status: success Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked Feature Status:
Write-Acceleration enabled Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024 Configuration Status: flow verification failed
A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist
B. The zone set has not been activated
C. The target is not logged into the fabric
D. The pWWN used for the target is invalid

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a lossless class of Ethernet traffic?
A. LLDP
B. LACP
C. PFC
D. FIP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?
A. It’s hard-set and cannot be disabled
B. It’s configurable, with an upper limit of 16
C. It’s hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel
D. It’s hard-set but can disable all but one class
E. It’s configurable with an upper limit of eight

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can exist in the team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel?
A. Cannot be disabled
B. Cannot have the CoS changed
C. Can have “Packet Drop” enabled
D. Is multicast optimized
E. Can have the MTU changed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.)
A. Priority flow control
B. Buffer-to-buffer credits
C. TCP retransmission
D. Ethernet checksum
E. QoS policies

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 91
Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?
A. show flogi database
B. show system fc login
C. show npv flogi-table
D. show npv fcns database
E. show interface vfc X flogi
F. show interface flogi
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?
A. Server’s CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.
B. A “no-drop” class has not been configured for FCoE.
C. The system is running with the default QOS policies.
D. The link is oversubscribed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)
A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled
B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage
C. FIP negotiation timing
D. Peer does not support LLDP
E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 94
When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 95
Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?
A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.
B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments.
C. It is not used to build the FCoE links.
D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame?
A. Ethernet FCS
B. Source address
C. Destination address
D. EtherType
E. Protocol type

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 25 m bus length
B. Only one device per SCSI bus
C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus
D. Half-duplex operation
E. Full-duplex operation

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 98
Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host?
A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.
B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port.
C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port.
D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue?
switch# show npv status
npiv is enabled
External Interfaces:
===============
InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of External Interfaces: 4
A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch?
B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state
C. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN?
D. The local host interface is not able to login
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.)
A. use summary view in the device manager
B. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list
C. for each port channel, select Monitor Continually
D. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON
E. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance collections
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 101
A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 102
When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?

A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.
B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode active.
C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive.
D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.
E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 103
How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. authentication
C. authorization
D. network monitoring
E. network planning

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 105
Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS?
A. channel-group auto mode on
B. channel-group auto mode active
C. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp
D. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual
E. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 106
vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose two.)
A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSG
B. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM
C. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC
D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager
E. deep packet inspection

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 107
n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status Current Status : Enabled Running Config Status : Enabled Saved Config Status : Disabled What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.)
A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.
B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch.
C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM.
D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM.
E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 108
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature. DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default.
When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports?
A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.
B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.
C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.
D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these?
A. Upstream switch
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. VMware distributed switch
D. VMware vSwitch
E. Service virtual machine

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 110
Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will be sent out upon?
Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210 Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning State enabled Vmware port-group No shut
Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200 Switchport mode access Switchport vlan 200 State enabled Vmware port-group No shut
A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk
B. show module 3 internal pinning
C. module vem X execute vemcmd show port
D. show module vem mapping
E. show interface vethX pinning

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)
A. perform flow lookups
B. intercept packets on service enabled ports
C. run packets through the vPath flow manager
D. classify the packets
E. flow manager emits an action for the packets
F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager
Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 112
A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv.
Interface fastethernet 1/10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut
Interface fastethernet 1/11 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut
Interface port-channel10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport allowed vlan all No shut

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QUESTION 56
What does the command “IP ARP synchronize” do in a vPC configuration?
A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes
B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary
C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored
D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?
A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature pim ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1 ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
B. feature pim ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.1 2.2.2.2 ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.2 2.2.2.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
C. interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1 ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
D. feature pim feature msdp ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip msdp originator-id loopback1
ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1
ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2
ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword
!
ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the overlay?
A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control- group multicast address for transport
B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlay
C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group multicast address for transport
D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.
B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast configuration is possible on the switch.
C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature with the feature pim command.
D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance.
E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command?

switch# config terminal
switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10 switch(config)#

A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module
B. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 110
C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs.
D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated?
A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated.
B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.
C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated.
D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.)
A. Root priority
B. System ID
C. Bridge ID
D. Switch ID
E. Port ID
F. Subswitch ID
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 65
By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. DSA key generated with 512 bits
B. RSA key generated with 768 bits
C. RSA key generated with 1024 bits
D. DSA key generated with 1024 bits
E. RSA key generated with 2048 bits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.
B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded.
C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.
D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.
E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 67
In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?
A. GLBP redirect timer
B. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer
C. GLBP hold timer
D. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer
E. GLBP extended hold timer
F. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit.

vPC+ is configured between which switches?
A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23
B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12
C. Switch-ID 100 only
D. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3? (Choose two.)
A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol
B. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol
C. Community String Match protocol
D. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol
E. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 70
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 71
Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs.
B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed.
C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs.
D. Only options drop and forward are permitted.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 72
Which two statements about a “Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check” are true?
A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.
B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.
C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode.
D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 73
Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled?
A. Cisco AV-pair
B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute
C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute
D. privilege level attribute

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.)
A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535.
B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP.
C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot standby links within the port channel.
D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier.
E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed

Correct Answer: ACD

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