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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints.
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 4
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B. What dial plan below best represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. country code
B. subscriber code
C. national destination code
D. provider code
Correct Answer: AB Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E.164 is an international numbering plan created by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Each number in the E.164 numbering plan
contains the following components:
Country code (CC)
National destination code (NDC – optional)
Subscriber number (SN)
The CC consists of one, two or three digits. It is what we add in order to access different countries and often prefixed with a +
The NDC is the code we often call the area code.
The SN is for telephone numbering. It is given by your phone operator.
E.164 numbers are limited to a maximum length of 15 digits.
For example, the North American Numbering Plan E.164 is as follows:
1-602-555-1212
+
1: Country code
+
602555: National destination code (for North American Numbering Plan, 602 is called the area code while 555 is called Central Office Code)
+
1212: Subscribe Number
Answer C is also correct but just optional. E.164 Numbering Plan must have Country Code and Subscriber Code so A & B are the correct answers.
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about only out-of-band signaling?
A. A signaling bit is robbed from each frame.
B. Signaling bits are sent in a special order in a dedicated signaling frame.
C. All signaling is directly associated with its corresponding voice frame.
D. All voice packets carry their own signaling.
Correct Answer: B Section: Voice Fundamentals Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Out-of-Band signaling is telecommunication signaling exchange of information in order to control a telephone call. Out-of-Band signaling uses common channel signaling (CCS), that means signaling information is transmitted using a separate, dedicated signaling channel.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?
A. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are the digits manipulated in R1 so that they are presented correctly at R2?
A. The outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
B. The digits 404-555 are stripped off before matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
C. The digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and R2 receives only 1200.
D. R1 collects the 1200 and prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the PBXs today. Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?
A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which option istrue concerning the MGCP call agent?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost-effective, high-bandwidth solution that is suitable only within a limited geographical area?
A. FCIP
B. DWDM
C. CWDM
D. SONET/SDH
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Your Cisco MDS 9509 configuration requires 2000 watts of power and is configured with two 2500W power supplies. If 110V power is provided to the switch, in which power mode does the switch operate?
A. The director will operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director will operate in combined mode only
C. The director will operate in redundant mode or combined mode
D. The director cannot operate with 110V power
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two kinds of applications require sustained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)
A. synchronous replication
B. asynchronous replication
C. OLTP
D. tape backup
E.
F. mail
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
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Which of the following designs would provide your customer with the highest performance and port utilization?
A. multi-tier design
B. collapsed core design
C. corE.edge design
D. singlE.tier design
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
A customer plans to add a tape backup subsystem to its existing storage network. In which location should the customer place the tape backup device in order to provide the best performance during backup and recovery?
A. A
B. B
C. C
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Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. A customer is scaling the existing SAN with four Cisco MDS 9513 directors.
The current topology includes 4 x 32-port Brocade switches that will remain part of the network
indefinitely.
What is the appropriate interoperability mode if the customer wants to take advantage of all functionalities
on the Cisco and Brocade switches?
A. interop mode 1
B. interop mode 2
C. interop mode 3
D. interop mode 4
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What is the prerequisite for accessibility, when a customer has a Cisco MDS 92222i switch deployed in two different locations with the mgmt0 port located in the management VLAN?
A. ACLs should be properly configured.
B. IP routes in management network should point to the remote location.
C. RADIUS server should be authenticating the Cisco MDS switches.
D. Each Cisco MDS switch should have individual VSANs.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
A. use SNMPv3 only
B. configure IP ACLs
C. configure management VSANs
D. use digital certificates
E. implement RBAC
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What are two recommended ways for protecting the management access to a Cisco MDS switch? (Choose two.)
A. Use ACLs.
B. Use only console cable.
C. Use Telnet access.
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Exhibit #1:
Exhibit #2:
You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibits carefully. What is the effect of executing the commands shown in the exhibit?
A. No hosts will be able to communicate with interface mgmt0
B. All hosts will be able to communicate with interface mgmt0
C. Host B will not be able to communicate with interface mgmt0
D. Host A will not be able to communicate with interface mgmt0
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What two commands must be executed on an MDS 9000 family switch in order to change a dynamically assigned Domain ID 5 to a static Domain ID 10 for VSAN 10? (Choose two.)
A. Certkiller 2(Config)#fcdomain domain 10
B. Certkiller 2(Config-if)#no shut fcdomain 10
C. Certkiller 2(Config-if)#shut fcdomain 5
D. Certkiller 2(Config)#fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 10
E. Certkiller 2(Config)#fcdomain domain 10 static vsan 10
F. Certkiller 2(Config)#fcdomain restart vsan 10
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
You have been asked to convert three existing ISLs into a PortChannel as nondisruptively as possible. Which approach will best accomplish this?
A. Convert the ISLs into EISL and then place them into a PortChannel
B. Ensure that the VSAN allowed lists on both ends of each link are identically configured, then create the three-link PortChannel
C. Place all three ISLs into a PortChannel, because PortChannel creation is a nondisruptive operation
D. Place one link into a single-link PortChannel and then add the other two links to the PortChannel
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3
B. WEBM
C. RMON
D. SSH
E. SES
F. RBAC
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What is the default policy when defining role-based accessfor a VSAN?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh
Correct Answer: B Section: 1-18 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents
Correct Answer: B Section: 1-18 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.
Correct Answer: D Section: 1-18 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Presence integration is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
In CRS Administration, what is created on the CommunicationsManager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?
A. set
B. call subflow
C. on exception goto
D. get reporting statistic
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three tasks are supported by the cisco supervisor desktop?
A. push a web page to an agent s cisco agent desktop
B. chat with an agent
C. log in an agent
D. change an agent s state to ready
E. send an email to an agent
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?
A. a CTI port to the custormer
B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer
C. the personal line of the agent to the customer
D. a CTI port the agent then redirected to the customer
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Presence integration is a Cisco unified CCX teature available in which of these packages?
A. premium, enhanced,and standard
B. premium only
C. premium with high availability only
D. premium and enhanced\
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which step would you use to get information about the numbet of contacts currently in queue?
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A. get contact info
B. get session info
C. get call contact info
D. get reporting statistics
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the maximux number of concurrent emailsan agent can have ?
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The Cisco 640-916 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
Exam A QUESTION 1
1. By what percentage is the congestion window reduced when the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 12 %
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
2. Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. NP_Port
B. E_Port
C. N_Port
D. NL_Port
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
3. What is the benefit of a modular data center design?
A. ease of management
B. doesn’t require configuration
C. resilience
D. one size fits all
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
4. What information do bridges and switches use to forward data?
A. destination MAC address
B. destination IP address
C. they send all data to all ports, save port it was received on
D. destination hostname
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
5. What do the following commands accomplish? N100v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N100v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
A. Pushes the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vcenter server on the Nexus N1000v-VSM
B. Displays the configuration of the port profile named VMdata
C. Resets the port profile named VMdata to default settings
D. Deletes the port profile VMdata
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
6. What interface provides heartbeat messagesbetween the VEM and VSM?
