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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to analyze the data rates that are available to a corporate laptop in its wireless deployment. The customer wants a heat map that displays actual data and shows the data rates that are available to the client in different areas of its facility. When using AirMagnet Survey PRO, which type of survey provides the actual data rates?
A. virtual
B. predictive
C. passive
D. active
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
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Refer to the exhibit. A customer is using central web authentication with a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller and Cisco Identity Services Engine. An error occurs when wireless clients are redirected to the hosted splash page. What is causing the client error?
A. Secure Web Mode is disabled on the WLC.
B. OCSP is disabled on the WLC.
C. Management Via Dynamic Interface is disabled on the WLC.
D. Ethernet Multicast Forwarding is enabled on the WLC.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization?
A. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Device andgt; Utilization
B. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports andgt; Saved Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
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200-355 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm

C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12

G. 18
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor

200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
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QUESTION 20
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. TXT
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application

E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
200-355 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their pre shared key. Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. WPA-PSK
E. WEP
F. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocol helps the administrator to determine whether a detected rogue AP is in the network of the organization?
A. RLDP

B. RCP
C. RDP
D. RAPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What three configuration options can be executed by navigating to the WCS Administration andgt; AAA menu? (Choose three.)
A. Add a Lobby Ambassador guest
B. Add a LDAP server
C. Add an administrative user
D. Add a MAC address list filter
E. Add a RADIUS server
F. Add a TACAS+ server
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 30
An engineer is seeing a pattern closest to that of an Isotropic Radiator. What other antenna will produce a similar pattern?
A. 5 dBi patch
B. 13.5 dBi Yagi
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 21 dBi parabolic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which device divides a signal between two antennas?
A. splitter
B. lightening arrestor
C. attenuator
D. amplifier
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
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What is the meaning of the inverted orange triangle (marked andquot;0andquot;) in the Alarm Summary tab of Cisco WCS?
A. number of major alarms
B. number of minor alarms
C. number of critical alarms
D. number of system alarms
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
How many RADIUS servers can be configured globally and per WLAN on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 7 global; additional 1 per WLAN
B. 7 global; additional 3 per WLAN
C. 17 global; additional 1 per WLAN
D. 17 global; additional 3 per WLAN
E. 7 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
F. 17 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN

G. 17 global; reuse of up to 3 maximum per WLAN
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 35
Which key combination provides a detailed wireless connection status for an Apple MacBook running 10.6?
A. Command + Click the SSID of the network
B. Alt + Click the SSID of the network
C. Command + the Airport icon
D. Option + the Airport icon
E. Ctrl + the Airport Icon
F. Option + Click the SSID of the network
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 34
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF
QUESTION 36
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Before upgrading Secure Platform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the Secure Platform boot menu.
C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.

D. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R76. To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway. Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. snapshot
B. database revision
C. backup
D. upgrade export
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Your R76 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1. Create a database revision control backup using the Smart Dashboard
2. Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and »FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to another networked machine.
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite existing files.
B. 1. Download the latest upgrade export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3. Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4. Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5. Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the configuration
C. 1. Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Perform any requested upgcade_veriЈic«tion suggested steps
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4. Use Smart Update to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5. Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6. Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D. 1. Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade utilities
2. Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3. Save the export ” tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5. Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6. Run upgrade import to import the configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
True or false? After creating a snapshot of a Windows 2003 SP2 Security Management Server, you can restore it on a Secure Platform R76 Security Management Server, except you must load interface information manually.
A. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.20.
B. False, you cannot run the Check Point snapshot utility on a Windows gateway.

C. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.10.
D. False, all configuration information conveys to the new system, including the interface configuration settings.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major changes, such as upgrades?
A. snapshot
B. upgrade export
C. backup
D. migrate export
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months, depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. upgrade export
D. snapshot
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. backup export
D. snapshot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Snapshot is available on which Security Management Server and Security Gateway platforms?
A. Solaris
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. Windows XP Server
D. Secure Platform
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded

B. Individual members of a cluster configuration
C. Windows Server class systems
D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines?
A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration
B. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level
C. State, Secure Platform version, and patch level
D. State, Secure Platform version, and objects database
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?
A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components?
1 GUI Client
2 Security Management Server
3 Security Gateway
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 3, 1
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration?
A. Smart Event database
B. Smart Reporter database
C. classes. C file
D. System interface configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Both machines must have the same number of interfaces installed and configured before migration can be attempted.
B. The new machine may not have more Check Point products installed than the original Security Management Server.
C. All product databases are included in the migration.
D. The Security Management Server on the new machine must be the same or greater than the version on the original machine.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.
A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Event database.
B. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Reporter database.
C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/opt/backups
B. /var/backups
C. /var/CPbackup/backups

D. /var/tmp/backups
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Full Connectivity Upgrade
B. Fast path Upgrade
C. Minimal Effort Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment what command do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster.
A. cphaconf set mc_relod
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
In a “zero downtime” scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded?
A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set mc_relod
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which command provides cluster upgrade status?
A. cphaprob status
B. cphaprob ldstat
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. cphaprob tablestat
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R76. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message:
Title: Incompatible pattern.
What is happening?
A. R76 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.
B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be 
aborted.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R76. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R76 Security Gateways.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA Gateway?
A. netstat rn > [filename].txt
B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
C. ifconfig > [filename].txt
D. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
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Correct Answer: C

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You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. a storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
B. a spanned volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. a mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
E. a RAID-5 volume on Disk 1, Disk 2, and Disk 3
F. a storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
G. a spanned volume on Disk 0 and Disk 4
H. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. A mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
B. A storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. A storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. A mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Served, and Server3. You create a server group named ServerGroup1. You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager. What should you do?
A. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
B. On Server2, run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. On Server2/ modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add a computer account named Server2, and then restart Server2.
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. You create a LUN on the SAN. You need to provide VM1 with access to the LUN. The solution must prevent other virtual machines from accessing the LUN. What should you configure?
A. A fixed-size VHDX
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A dynamically expanding VHDX
E. A pass-through disk
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a print server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a local group named Group1. You share a printer named Printer1 on Server1. You need to configure Printer1 to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the members of Group1, the Server Operators group, the Administrators group, and the Print Operators group can send print jobs to Printer1. Prevent other users from sending print jobs to Printer1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Assign the Print permission to the Server Operators group
B. Remove the permissions for the Creator Owner group.
C. Remove the permissions for the Everyone group.
D. Assign the Print permission to Group1.
E. Assign the Print permission to the Administrators group.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has two dual- core processors and 32 GB of RAM. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Dynamic Memory

C. NUMA topology
D. Memory weight
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet
C. the imagex.exe command
D. the setup.exe command
E. the ocsetup.exe command
F. the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
G. the Install-Module cmdlet
H. the Install-RoleService cmdlet
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Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. You need to configure storage for a virtual machine to meet the following requirements:
– Support up to 3 TB of data on a single hard disk.
– Allocate disk space as needed.
– Use a portable storage format.
What should you configure?
A. A pass-through disk
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A fixed-size VHDX
E. A dynamically expanding VHDX
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
You have a virtual machine named VM1. You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM1. You plan to use VM1 as an image that will be distributed to sales users to demonstrate the features of a custom application. The custom application only requires the Web Server (IIS) server role to be installed. You need to ensure that the VHD file for VM1 only contains the required Windows Server 2012 R2 source files. Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. ocsetup.exe
C. imagex.exe
D. servermanagercmd.exe
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named Employees. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. You link GP1 to the Employees OU. You need to ensure that GP1 does not apply to the members of a group named Managers. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of Employees
B. The WMI filter for GP1
C. The Block Inheritance option for Employees
D. The Security settings of GP1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to create a snapshot of VM1. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the snapshot of VM1. What should you do before you create the snapshot?
A. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
B. Run the Convert-VHD cmdlet.
C. Decrease the Maximum RAM
D. Decrease the Minimum RAM.
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1. Share1 contains the home folder of each user. All users have the necessary permissions to access only their home folder. The users report that when they access Share1, they can see the home folders of all the users. You need to ensure that the users see only their home folder when they access Share1. What should you do from Server1?
A. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
B. From Server Manager, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
C. From Server Manager, modify the properties of Share1.
D. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of Share1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed. You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1. You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Install-ADDSDomainController
B. Install-ADDSDomatn
C. Install-ADDSForest
D. Install-WindowsFeature
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. You need to ensure that when new client computers join the domain, their computer accounts are created in OU1 by default. What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run the redircmp.exe command.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADObject cmdlet.
C. From Ldp, configure the properties of the Computers container.
D. From ADSI Edit, configure the properties of the OU1 object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a user account named User1 that resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. GPO1 is used to publish several applications to a user named User1. In the Users container, you create a new user named User2. You need to ensure that the same applications are published to User2. What should you do?
A. Modify the security of GPO1.
B. Modify the settings in GPO1.
C. Link a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. Move User2 to OU1.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has the AD DS, DHCP, and DNS server roles installed. L2P.com also has a server, named L2P-SR08, which has the DHCP, and Remote Access server roles installed. You have configured a server, which has the File and Storage Services server role installed, to automatically acquire an IP address. The server is named L2PSR09. You then create a filter on L2P-SR07. Which of the following is a reason for this configuration?
A. To make sure that L2P-SR07 issues L2P-SR09 an IP address.
B. To make sure that L2P-SR07 does not issue L2P-SR09 an IP address.
C. To make sure that L2P-SR09 acquires a constant IP address from L2P-SR08 only.
D. To make sure that L2P-SR09 is configured with a static IP address.
Correct Answer: B
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Question No : 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
070-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
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You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No : 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
070-461 vce Answer: C

 

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Exam Code: 70-595
Exam Name: TS: Developing Business Process and Integration Solutions by Using Microsoft BizTalk Server 2010
Q&As: 50

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QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution processes XML messages. The solution uses a single Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity and BAM tracking profile to extract content values from the message. Some of the values are bound to a receive port when the message is received. The other values are bound to a send port when the message is transmitted. At run time you find out that instead of one, two records are created in the BAM database for each processed message. One record contains only the values bound to the receive port. The second record contains only the values bound to the send port. You need to ensure that only one record is created that contains all the values for every message. What should you do?
A. Add a continuation and continuation ID to the tracking profile.
B. In the tracking profile, associate a unique value from the message payload to the ActivityID field.
C. Add a relationship to the tracking profile.
D. Add a document reference URL to the tracking profile.
70-595 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You are developing a BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration. In the Business Rule Composer, you create and save a policy named BonusPolicy that calculates an employees bonus based on year- to-date sales. You add a Call Rules shape to the orchestration. In the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, BonusPolicy is not listed in the menu of available policies to call. You need to make the policy available in the Orchestration Designer. What should you do?
A. Use the Rule Engine Deployment Wizard to export BonusPolicy.
B. In the Business Rules Composer, publish BonusPolicy.
C. In the Business Rules Composer, create a vocabulary with a definition that references the XML
schema used to evaluate BonusPolicy. Publish the vocabulary.
D. In the Business Rules Composer, use the Rule Store menu and load policies from the
BizTalkRuleEngineDb database.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A company tracks storage containers and integrates radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on BizTalk Server 2010. You define a custom tag event named ContainerArrivedEvent. You use the RFID manager to add the SqlServerSink component to the RFID process. You need to ensure that the SqlServerSink component logs only the custom tag event. What should you specify for the EventTypes property?
A. ContainerArrivedEvent
B. the fully qualified assembly name
C. All
D. Generic
70-595 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You use BizTalk Server 2010 to send EDI purchase orders to three trading partners. All of the trading partners use the same version of the purchase order message but define custom codes for the product types. The trading partners confirm purchase order acknowledgements by email instead of through response messages. The standard purchase order schemas included with BizTalk do not include the custom product type codes for each trading partner. You need to ensure that each trading partners purchase order schema is the schema that is used for orders that are sent to them. What should you do?
A. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
B. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For
  the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
C. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
D. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration calls a Business Rules Engine policy. This policy evaluates test scores to determine whether a candidate passes or fails. The BizTalk solution and the policy are deployed. Business users have decided that the value of a passing score should be raised from 60% to 70%. You need to adjust the policy to reflect the modified rule parameter. What should you do?
A. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then deploy the new version.
B. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then publish the new version.
C. Create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary and then publish the vocabulary.
D. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer and create a different policy with a new name. Then copy the currently deployed version to the new policy and modify to reflect the changed parameter. Deploy the new policy.
70-595 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution uses Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) to collect business information. The solution contains a BAM view named OrderView. After you deploy the view, application users can log on to the BAM portal but the OrderView view does not appear to them. You need to ensure that the BAM portal displays the OrderView view to application users. What should you do?
A. Use the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to add a subscription for the OrderView view.
C. Create a Microsoft SQL Server logins for the users on the server that hosts the BAMPrimaryImport database.
D. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to grant the users access to the OrderView view.
Correct Answer: D

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Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 16
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions. The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical. How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
1Y0-250 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues. What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Which command-line interface command could an administrator use to display communication between the LDAP server and the NetScaler system?
A. cat /etc/krb5.conf
B. cat /etc/krb5.keytab
C. cat /tmp/aaad.debug
D. cat /var/log/aaad.debug
E. tail -f /var/log/aaad.debug
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Scenario: An administrator configured an LDAP authentication policy and bound it globally. The only system group configured on the Netscaler is NS_Admins. After reviewing the security logs, the administrator notices that users in the External_Contractors LDAP group are able to log on to NetScaler using SSH; however, members of the External_Contractors group are NOT authorized to run any commands. Which action could the administrator take to prevent the members of the External_Contractors LDAP Group from logging on to NetScaler using SSH without affecting other users?
A. Configure an authorization policy that allows logon only by members of the “External_Contractors” LDAP Group. Bind the new policy globally.
B. Specify (memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
C. Specify (!(memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”)) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
D. Create a new command policy with a DENY action. Create a System Group named “External_Contractors” and assign the new command policy to the External_Contractors group.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic.
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
1Y0-250 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection: The site’s security certificate is not trusted! One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.  Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure
the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
1Y0-250 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state
shows as UP on the production NetScaler. What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message: “Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10; STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.” What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
1Y0-250 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Scenario: After a restart of a single NetScaler, users complain that the logon page has changed. An administrator plans to verify that a startup script exists and contains the necessary command. Where can the administrator find the startup script?
A. /etc
B. /dev
C. /nsconfig
D. /netscaler
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION NO: 129
The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.
B. Only progress forward through the stages.

C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 130
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.
B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person’s abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 132
The five A’s of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess,Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
400-351 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.
B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being “on edge.”
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 137
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 138
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to
conduct an assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 139
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 140
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 142
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 45
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After performing a global gap analysis, the global HR team has identified an initiative to identify at
least three potential candidates for each Senior Director and VP position. In order to build
accountability for implementing this initiative, which of the following pieces of information is NOT
necessary?
A. Source of resources
B. Modes of communication
C. Benefit to the individual and organization
D. Developing S.M.A.R.T objectives
70-534 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following type of listening is occurring when a person is thinking. “Robert has some
legitimate points about the importance of quality and its importance in the company’s growth” while
listening to a ISO-9001 training session?

A. Active
B. Empathic
C. Informational
D. Evaluative
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is NOT a potential difference in benefits practices that Human Resources
should evaluate when developing a global compensation and benefits strategy?
A. Leaves of absences
B. Life insurance benefits
C. Medical coverage
D. Reasons for termination
70-534 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
A gap analysis is performed to measure the skill gap between current executives and the type of
executives in order to have a truly global workforce. Which of the following analysis techniques
does this measure utilize?
A. Ratio analysis
B. Criterion-referenced analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Norm-referenced analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
According to Claus, which of the following HR activities is considered an upstream function?
A. Compensation
B. Employee relations
C. HRIS
D. Staffing
70-534 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following represents a HR strategic activity?
A. Recruitment of staff for new R&D project
B. Implement annual performance appraisal programs
C. Designing an employment brand
D. Provide specific job training programs
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is NOT a potential reason for a company’s decision to fill a position through
an international assignment?
A. Assist in creating alignment with headquarters’ goals and objectives
B. Assist in developing a consistent culture across the corporation
C. Specific person is the most qualified candidate for the job
D. Lack of core skill sets for the position available in the area
70-534 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
In the European Union, many multinational companies have Work Councils that are created to
protect workers interests. A company with 50 employees working across the EU has decided to
create a Work Councils Recently, a court has fined the corporation for laying off 10% of the
employee population in one of its E.U sites without discussing it with its Work Councils. Which of
the following reasons represents the PRIMARY rationale for why this occurred?
A. The company did not follow the collective bargaining agreement
B. The company did not follow the voluntarily-provided program
C. The company did not follow the government-provided program
D. The company did not follow the government-mandated program
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Code: CCD-410
Exam Name: Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH)
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
CCD-410 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In a MapReduce job reducers do not start executing the reduce method until the all Map jobs have
completed. Reducers start copying intermediate key-value pairs from the mappers as soon as they are
available. The programmer defined reduce method is called only after all the mappers have finished.
Note: The reduce phase has 3 steps: shuffle, sort, reduce. Shuffle is where the data is collected by the
reducer from each mapper. This can happen while mappers are generating data since it is only a data
transfer. On the other hand, sort and reduce can only start once all the mappers are done.
Why is starting the reducers early a good thing? Because it spreads out the data transfer from the
mappers to the reducers over time, which is a good thing if your network is the bottleneck.
Why is starting the reducers early a bad thing? Because they “hog up” reduce slots while only copying
data. Another job that starts later that will actually use the reduce slots now can’t use them.
You can customize when the reducers startup by changing the default value of  CCD-410 dumps
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps in mapred-site.xml. A value of 1.00 will wait for all the mappers
to finish before starting the reducers. A value of 0.0 will start the reducers right away. A value of 0.5 will
start the reducers when half of the mappers are complete. You can also change
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps on a job-by-job basis. Typically, keep
mapred.reduce.slowstart.completed.maps above 0.9 if the system ever has multiple jobs running at once.
This way the job doesn’t hog up reducers when they aren’t doing anything but copying data. If you only
ever have one job running at a time, doing 0.1 would probably be appropriate.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, When is the reducers
are started in a MapReduce job?
QUESTION 2
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode returns the block location
(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode then queries the
DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode
redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s). The client then reads the
data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode contacts the DataNode
that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then
from the NameNode to the client.
CCD-410 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How the Client
communicates with HDFS?

QUESTION 3
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys,
IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
CCD-410 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the
mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
CCD-410 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hadoop streaming is a utility that comes with the Hadoop distribution. The utility allows you to create and
run Map/Reduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer.
QUESTION 5
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase
of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reducer has 3 primary phases:
1. Shuffle The Reducer copies the sorted output from each Mapper using HTTP across the network.
2. Sort The framework merge sorts Reducer inputs by keys (since different Mappers may have output the same key).
 The shuffle and sort phases occur simultaneously i.e. while outputs are being fetched they are merged. SecondarySort CCD-410 dumps  To achieve a secondary sort on the values returned by the value iterator, the application should extend the key with the secondary key and define a grouping comparator. The keys will be sorted using the entire key, but will be grouped using the grouping comparator to decide which keys and values are sent in the same call to reduce.
3. Reduce
In this phase the reduce(Object, Iterable, Context) method is called for each <key, (collection of values)>
in the sorted inputs. The output of the reduce task is typically written to a RecordWriter via TaskInputOutputContext.write (Object, Object).
The output of the Reducer is not re-sorted.
Reference: org.apache.hadoop.mapreduce, Class
Reducer<KEYIN,VALUEIN,KEYOUT,VALUEOUT>

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