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Top Cisco Certification Exams
- 200-301: Cisco Certified Network Associate
- 350-201: Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
- 350-401: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
- 300-410: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
- 300-415: Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)
- 300-420: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
- 350-801: Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)
- 300-810: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)
- 300-815: Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLACCM)
- 300-825: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing (CLCNF)
- 350-601: Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR)
- 300-610: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)
- 300-615: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)
- 300-620: Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI)
- 350-701: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)
- 300-710: Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF)
- 300-715: Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (SISE)
- 300-720: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
- 300-725: Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)
- 350-501: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)
- 300-510: Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI)
- 350-901: Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)
- 300-910: Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)
- 200-901: Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)
- 500-490: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks
- 700-680: Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization (CSaaS)
- 500-220: Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist
Category: 350-401 exam questions
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Latest Cisco 350-401 exam questions for free
QUESTION 1
An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on
the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel
interface?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is provided by the Stealthwatch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?
A. real-time threat management to stop DDoS attacks to the core and access networks
B. real-time awareness of users, devices and traffic on the network
C. malware control
D. dynamic threat control for web traffic
Correct Answer: B
Cisco Stealthwatch is a comprehensive, network telemetry-based, security monitoring and analytics solution that
streamlines incident response through behavioral analysis; detecting denial of service attacks, anomalous behaviour,
malicious
activity and insider threats. Based on a scalable enterprise architecture, Stealthwatch provides near real-time situational
awareness of all users and devices on the network.
Reference: https://www.endace.com/cisco-stealthwatch-solution-brief.pdf
Note: Although answer A seems to be correct but in fact, Stealthwatch does not provide real-time protection for DDoS
attack. It just helpsdetect DDoS attack only.
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QUESTION 1
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?
A. 1500
B. 9100
C. 4464
D. 17914
Correct Answer: B
VXLAN adds 50 bytes to the original packet. The common denominator and recommended MTU value available on
devices operating in a fabric role is 9100. Network should have a minimum starting MTU of at least 1550 bytes to
support the
fabric overlay. MTU values between 1550 and 9100 are supported along with MTU values larger than 9100 though there
may be additional configuration and limitations based on the original packet size.
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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
EIGRP maintains alternative loop-free backup via the feasible successors. To qualify as a feasible successor, a router
must have an Advertised Distance (AD) less than the Feasible distance (FD) of the current successor route. Advertised
distance (AD): the cost from the neighbor to the destination. Feasible distance (FD): The sum of the AD plus the cost
between the local router and the next-hop router
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback
interfaces asthe BGP router ID.
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QUESTION 1
How does the RIB differ from the FIB?
A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network
destinations.
B. The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.
C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route
D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a Iist of routes to particular network
destinations.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding istrue?
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QUESTION 1
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?
A. The RP responds to the PIM join messes with the source of requested multicast group
B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.
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Cisco 350-401 Practice Test Questions Answers
QUESTION 1
An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in
the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish
this task?
A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt
B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120
C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120
D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.)
A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet.
B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments.
C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode.
D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based.
E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html
QUESTION 3
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?