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QUESTION 71
The project baseline is _______.
A. Original plans plus the approved changes
B. Important in the project initiation phase
C. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
D. Original plans and the approved major changes
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project baseline: original plans plus the approved changes.

QUESTION 72
Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.

QUESTION 73
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Procurement Management is groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services,

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QUESTION 101
You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see “two-way/DROTHER” listed as the state for neighbor 10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1 1 1 is not a DR or BDR
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan.
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
In which of these phases is a customer’s

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QUESTION 116
Which statement about importing and exporting Adobe Photoshop files from Adobe Illustrator is true?
A. When a Photoshop file is opened in Illustrator all clipping paths are imported.
B. When you export Illustrator files to Photoshop layers they remain vector objects.
C. A Photoshop file can be placed into Illustrator with its layers all available for editing.
D. A Photoshop file with multiple layers can be opened in Illustrator, and have the layers either converted to objects or flattened.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Which statement about layers in Adobe Illustrator is true?
A. Hidden layers are automatically deleted when you flatten an Illustrator document.
B. You CANNOT flatten artwork into a layer that is locked, or a layer that is a template.
C. When merging layers, items will be merged into the layer or group that you selected first.
D. Layers can only merge with other layers that are on a lower hierarchical level in the Layers palette.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
You are applying a stroke and fill to a clipping mask. Which statement is true?
A. The stroke and fill are drawn above the clipped objects.
B. The stroke and fill are drawn below the clipped objects.
C. The stroke is drawn below the clipped objects; the fill is drawn above the clipped objects.
D. The stroke is drawn above the clipped objects; the fill is drawn below the clipped objects.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
When should you assign registration color?
A. when there are printer’s marks
B. when guides are used to align objects in a document
C. when an object should print only on the K (black) separation plate
D. when there are printer’s

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QUESTION 50
When designing, why would a network architect use active performance monitoring instead of passive performance monitoring?
A. To collect history and event statistics (specific to network devices)
B. To decrease Router CPU utilization on end systems (both user and server)
C. To maintain accurate network statistics (independent of end systems)
D. For performance verification (independent of application servers and users)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Assume that Telnet users of your company are experiencing delays caused by cyclic congestion spikes. Traffic analysis shows minimal use of UDP. Which technology can be used to solve this problem?
A. Committed Access Rate
B. Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Deficit Round Robin
D. Weighted RED
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
When you decide on Campus QoS Design elements, which two statements correctly identify considerations to be taken into account?
A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue.
B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue.
C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service.
D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 53
During periods of congestion, which two impacts are of traffic shaping on traffic flows? (Choose two)
A. More packets dropped
B. Fewer packets dropped
C. Less bandwidth consumption
D. Increased delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 54
WRED is short for Weighted Random Early Detection. Which two descriptions are correct concerning WRED? (Choose two)
A. WRED allows thresholds to be applied to give higher priority applications access to limited buffer resources.

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QUESTION 110
You have adjusted the settings for a Raw image. You want to apply those settings to another image in
Bridge. What should you do?
Options:

A. In the adjusted image, choose Edit > Copy, then select another image and choose Edit > Paste
B. In the adjusted image, choose Edit > Develop Settings > Copy Camera Raw Settings, then select another image and choose Edit > Develop Settings > Paste Camera Raw Settings
C. Choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor
D. Choose Tools > Photoshop > Process Collections in Photoshop

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You have adjusted the settings for a Raw image. You want to apply those settings to another image in
Bridge. What should you do?
Options:

A. Bridge
B. Photoshop
C. After Effects
D. Camera Raw

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
You want to assign keywords to your image files in Bridge. Where will you find the list of available
keywords?
Options:

A. Keywords Panel
B. Tools > Append Metadata
C. In the Keywords options of the Preferences dialog box
D. In the Filter Panel, expand the Keywords

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
You have created a Collection of multiple files that you plan to use in a project. You want to see only the
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QUESTION 47
A network administrator needs to be notified if someone attempts to tamper with or shut down the VPN connection on an iPad or iPhone. Which product should the administrator use to configure the notification alert?
A. Mobile Email Monitor
B. Mobile Device Management
C. Network Prevent
D. Mobile Prevent

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which command attempts to find the name of the drive in the private region and to match it to a disk media record that is missing a disk access record?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdctl
C. vxreattach
D. vxrecover

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
What is the correct configuration for BoxMonitor.Channels that will allow the server to start as a Network Monitor server?
A. Packet Capture, Span Port
B. Packet Capture, Network Monitor
C. Packet Capture, Network Tap
D. Packet Capture, Copy Rule

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is testing the DLP installation by placing .EML files into the drop folder, but has been
unsuccessful in generating any incidents. The administrator is checking the Advanced Server Settings
page to see if it can help diagnose the issue.
What could be causing this problem?

A. BoxMonitor.IncidentWriter setting needs to be set to Test
B. BoxMonitor.FileReader needs to be set to default
C. BoxMonitor.IncidentWriterMemory is set too high
D. BoxMonitor.Channels contains an incompatible entry

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
An administrator needs to remove an agent and its associated events from a specific Endpoint Server. Which Agent Task does the administrator need to perform to disable its visibility in the Enforce UI?

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QUESTION 197
What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Destination IP address
B. SIC revoke certificate event
C. Number of concurrent IKE negotiations
D. Most accessed Rule Base rule

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 198
How do you use SmartView Monitor to compile traffic statistics for your company’s Internet Web activity during production hours?
A. View total packets passed through the Security Gateway.
B. Configure a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway.
C. Use Traffic settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day.
D. Select Tunnels view, and generate a report on the statistics.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 199
What happens when you run the commanD. fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?
A. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
B. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked with the need to change the Security Policy.
C. Connections from the specified source are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
D. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 200
An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R76 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).
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QUESTION 355
Which of the following label operations can be performed by a P router that is not a penultimate router in the MPLS VPN path?
A. Pop
B. Purge
C. Push
D. Swap

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 356
If labels are being distributed in an MPLS network but no labels are being allocated for local routes, what could be the problem?
A. There is an error with the conditional label distribution configurat on.
B. CEF is disabled on the LSR.
C. There are no LDP neighborships established to the LSR.
D. CEF is not enabled on an input interface.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 357
If you use the configuration statement “mpls mtu 1512” how many labels in a label stack are being allowed for?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 358
In an MPLS domain that carries BGP traffic it is best to use host routes without summarization for BGP next hop addresses. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 359
How is the TTL field in the label header generated?
A. It is set to a number equal to the number of hops in the MPLS path plus 1.
B. It is copied from the TTL field in the IP header on ingress.
C. It is copied from the TTL field in the IP header on egress.

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QUESTION 225
The Cisco CallManager dial plan architecture is set up to handle two general types of calls. What are they? (Choose all that apply.)
A. External calls through a SAA Gateway
B. External calls through a PSTN gateway or to another Cisco CallManager cluster
C. Internal calls From the source router to the PBX-1
D. Internal calls to Cisco IP phones registered to the Cisco CallManager cluster itself-
E. Internal calls from the IP SoftPhone to the 7200 VXR2
F. External calls through the last downstream CallManager phone set.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 226
From the list below, what protocol is designed to provide end-to-end network transport functions for applications transmitting real-time data, such as audio, video, or simulation data, over Multicast or Unicast network services.
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A. CAM
B. IPTV
C. STP
D. RTP
E. DMVRP
F. PIM
G. IS-IS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 227
Which statement represents the definition of an MGCP endpoint?
A. The interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks.
B. Any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, ect).
C. IP hones
D. The gatekeepers in a VoIP network.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A typical MGCP gateway environment connects on one side with a public switched telephone network (PSTN), and on the other side with an IP network. Specialized call agent applications control the flow of media data across the distributed environment. Call agents determine the route that data follows as it flows through the system. Multiple call agents can control call processing and data transfer. These call agents use a separate protocol to synchronize with each other and to send coherent commands to modules under their control. MGCP assumes a connection model where the basic constructs are endpoints and connections. Endpoints are sources or sinks of data and could be physical or virtual. Examples of physical endpoints are:
*
An interface on a gateway that terminates a trunk connected to a PSTN switch (e.g., Class 5, Class4,

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QUESTION 106
The current site requires an asset that is located in another site. What is the most efficient way to access and use that asset?
A. The user is not able to use an asset from one site in another site.
B. Locate the asset and copy it from the other site. Paste the asset into the desired page of the current site.
C. Open the other site containing the needed asset and from its Assets panel, drag the asset onto the open page in the present site.
D. Locate the asset in the other site, right-click (CTRL-click Mac) the asset, choose Copy to Site, then select the new site and click OK.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
When Dreamweaver form validation behavior is attached to a specific form element other than the Submit button, when will the behavior be triggered by default?
A. when the form is reset
B. when the form is submitted
C. when the user selects the form control to which the behavior is attached
D. when the user de-selects the form control to which the behavior is attached

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 108
What features enable source management and communications tracking within a collaborative development environment? (Choose TWO)
A. Snippets
B. Libraries
C. File panel
D. Design notes
E. Check-In/Check-Out

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 109
What happens when a template with three editable regions is applied to an existing page without an attached template?
A. prompts to update the template
B. content of the page is placed within the largest editable region
C. prompts to assign the document body to one of the editable regions
D. prompts what region to unlock and then places the content in that region

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 110
What feature enables a developer to use a web page layout that was created in a graphic application asa blueprint for the actual web page development in Dreamweaver?

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