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QUESTION 108
If a NOC firewall separates the Provider-1 MDS machine and the MDG (as shown below), what would you need to do, to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?

A. Create a UDP service and rule on the NOC firewall for MDG traffic.
B. Create a specific RPC service and rule on the NOC firewall for MDG traffic.
C. Create a rule on the NOC firewall that allows CPMI traffic to pass from the MDG to the MDS object.
D. Create a rule on the NOC firewall that allows CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass from the MDG to the MDS object.
E. Select the Accept VPN-1/FireWall-1 control connections option in the Global Properties screen, to allow the MDG traffic to pass through the NOC firewall.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
You are attempting to mirror the full functionality of the Primary MDS to the Secondary MDS in your NOC configuration. The MDS mirror procedure will fail in which of the following scenarios?
A. When an MLM is configured on the Secondary MDS
B. When an MLM is configured on the Primary MDS
C. When NOC firewall control connections do not allow mds_stat and mds_push to pass from the Primary
MDS to the Secondary MDS
D. When a CMA on the Secondary MDS uses a virtual IP address included in the range defined on the Primary MDS
E. When a CMA on the Primary MDS uses a virtual IP address included in the range defined on the Secondary MDS

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 111
All modules of Provider-1 communicate using CPMI which allows the MDG to communicate with the MDS. CPMI is a generic open protocol that is incorporated into the OPSEC SDK. This allows third party vendors to develop applications that can be integrated into the Provider-1 configuration, and access and control the MDS. Identify a port used by CPMI use to communicate between Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 18186
C. TCP port 264
D. TCP port 18190
E. TCP port 981

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
Global SmartDefense settings may be modified within specific Customer Security Policies.
A. True, but only if the Global Policy is “merged” with the Customer’s existing Security Policy.
B. True, unlike globally defined rules, global SmartDefense settings are not read-only and may be modified.
C. True, but only if the Global Policy is applied to the Customer but not installed. Once installed, the policy cannot be modified.
D. False, all aspects of a Global Policy are read-only and cannot be modified within individual Customer Policies.
E. True, all aspects of a Global Policy may be modified within individual Customer Security Policies, if the Administrator has Superuser privileges.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which of the following directories are required to migrate an existing VPN-1 NG Management Server into Provider-1 NGX?
A. conf, state, and CPshared conf directories
B. conf and database directories
C. conf, CPshared conf, and CPshared database directories
D. conf, bin, and lib directories
E. conf, state, and database directories

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
What utility is a CPMI client that allows an administrator to add or remove a customer or to use the mirror option to back up MDS information?
A. fwmds
B. mdsenv
C. mdscmd
D. mdsstat
E. mdsconfig

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
If services other than the predefined global services are needed:
A. They must be imported from a preconfigured CMA Security Policy.
B. They must be imported from a preconfigured Global Policy.
C. They can be specifically defined in the Global SmartDashboard.
D. No action can be taken. Administrators cannot create services not predefined in the Global SmartDashboard.
E. They can be created by editing a default service already included in the Global Policy database and saved under a new name.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Two CMAs can be created for a single Customer, for High Availability (HA). Which of these statements is NOT correct for this type of CMA configuration?
A. Should a CMA fail for any reason, the Standby CMA can continue operation without service interruption.
B. If the Active CMA’s data has not recently been synchronized with the Standby CMA, it can no longer be used to replace the Active CMA if fail over occurs.
C. Administrators make Security Policy changes through the Active CMA only.
D. The HA scheme requires one Primary CMA and one Secondary CMS, housed on different MDS computers.
E. The CMAs must be synchronized to maintain the same information.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
How many Customer Management Add-ons (CMA) can be stored on a Multi Domain Server (MDS) that serves as a MDS Container for an ISP?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 200
D. 350
E. 500
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
Evaluate the following statement: GUI clients and Administrators defined on the MDS are transferred to the SmartCenter Database during synchronization.
A. True, all GUI clients and Administrators are applied to a backup SmartCenter Server automatically during database synchronization.
B. False, only Administrators defined on the MDS are transferred during database synchronization. GUI clients must be manually defined.
C. False, only GUI clients defined on the MDS are transferred during database synchronization. Administrators must be manually defined.
D. False, GUI clients and Administrators must be manually defined on the SmartCenter Server. They are not transferred during database synchronization.
E. False, a SmartCenter Server cannot be used to back up a CMA in a Provider-1 NGX configuration.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
By NOT checking the Install Policy on assigned customers option at the bottom of the Assign/Install Global Policy screen, the Global Policy will:
A. Be installed either when installed from the MDS or from the CMA SmartDashboard.
B. Not be installed, but will require the Administrator to rename the Global Policy so that it will be available for future assignment.
C. Be installed on the remote Security Gateways, but not enforced.
D. Not be installed, but will require the Administrator to install policy from the SmartDashboard on the MDS.
E. Not be installed, but will require the Administrator to back up Global Policy information on a Secondary MDS, if one is configured.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which of the following Administrator types can migrate a SmartCenter Management Server into the Provider-1 system as a CMA?
A. Provider-1 Superuser
B. Provider-1 Manager
C. Customer Manager
D. Both the Provider-1 and Customer Managers
E. Both the Provider-1 and Customer Superusers

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 122
Which of the following Network Object status icons indicates that an application installed on a module is NOT running properly?

A. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 123
Is it possible to connect directly to the CMA with the SmartDashboard, without the MDG running?
A. Yes, only if the SmartDashboard launched from the MDS is already connected to the CMA.
B. Yes, only if the SmartDashboard launched from the MDG is unable to reach the CMA.
C. No, the SmartDashboard must be launched from the MDG connected to the Primary MDS.
D. Yes, the SmartDashoard can connect directly to the CMA without any involvement from the MDG.
E. Yes, only if the Provider-1 Administrator sets the GUI client properties to include NGX SmartConsole access.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
Which of the following statements is true about configuring Global VPNs?
A. For Gateways to be included in a Global VPN configuration, each must exchange the same shared-secret key to all Community member Gateways.
B. Remote-access VPNs are only available for use in a Global VPN for Security Gateways with VPN-1 Pro installed.
C. Site-to-site VPNs are only available for use in a Global VPN for Security Gateways with VPN-1 installed.
D. It is possible to have a single Customer participate in multiple Global VPN Communities.
E. To configure a Global VPN for gateways from different legal entities, the Security Gateways’ CMAs must be configured on different MDS machines.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
How many CMAs can be configured for each Customer on a single MDS?
A. Two, one Primary CMA and one Secondary CMA
B. Depends on configuration: either one Primary CMA and one Secondary CMA, or one Primary CMA and one Customer Log Module
C. Two different Primary CMAs
D. One
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
To configure cross-Customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
A. Administrator objects
B. Certificate Authority objects and Certificates
C. Network objects
D. User Group objects
E. Customer objects

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Teri is an Administrator for an ISP in France. Her NOC includes two MDS machines. One is installed and configured as a Manager + Container with 30 Primary CMAs, and the other maintains the 30 backup CMAs for High Availability at both the management and CMA level.
Teri wants to schedule her Primary MDS to back up her Global Policy information to the Secondary MDS at midnight every Friday night. Can she configure her Provider-1 system to do this from the Global SmartDashboard of the MDG?
A. Yes, by creating a Time Object for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the At Scheduled Time option in the Management High Availability screen.
B. Yes, by creating a Scheduled Event for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the On Scheduled Event option in the Management High Availability section of the Global Properties screen.
C. No, a specific time cannot be set for this action. The action can only occur when the Global Policy is saved.
D. Yes, by creating a Time Object for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the At Scheduled Time option in the Management High Availability section of the Global Properties screen.
E. Yes, by creating a Scheduled Event for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the On Scheduled Event option in the Management High Availability screen.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
Can multiple MDGs connect to a Provider-1 system in Read/Write mode?
A. Yes, if all connect through MDS Manager machines.
B. No, only one MDG at a time can have Read/Write permissions in the Provider-1 system.
C. No, Provider-1 cannot have more than one MDS Manager.
D. Yes, if one MDG is connected to the MDS Manager, and the other MDG is connected to a MDS Container.
E. Yes, only if Administrators connecting though the MDGs have different permission levels.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
A Global VPN Community can be used in which of the following:
A. In the Global Security Policy, only above the Customer-defined rules
B. In the implied rules of the Customer-defined Security Policy
C. In the Stealth rules associated with the Administrator Security Policy
D. In the Global Security Policy, either above or below the Customer-defined rules
E. In the Global Security Policy, only below the Customer-defined rules

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
Logging in to the MDG requires your username or Certificate and password. Which of the following is also required?
A. IP address of CMA
B. Virtual IP address (VIP) of CMA
C. IP address of Primary MDS
D. Resolvable name of CMA
E. Default IP address of CMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 131
For which of the following components in a Provider-1 NGX deployment can a SmartCenter Server be configured as a backup?
A. Primary MLM backed up by a Secondary CMA
B. CLM
C. MDG
D. MLM
E. Primary CMA backed up by a Secondary CMA

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 132
Which of the following views allows Administrators to create and configure a new CMA?
A. Global Policies view, Security Policies mode
B. General view, MDS Contents mode
C. General view, Customer Contents mode
D. System Status view
E. General view, Network Objects mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
Which of the following actions is possible from the High Availability view of the MDG?
A. Change the Active/Standby status of MDS machines from the MDS Contents mode.
B. Change the Active/Standby status of CMAs from the Customer Contents mode.
C. Create new MDS machines from the MDS Contents mode.
D. Create a new backup CMA for a Customer with an existing CMA, from the Customer Contents mode.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which of the following NGX SmartConsole options can be opened from the MDG?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. User Monitor
D. SecureClient Packaging Tool
E. Global Policies

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 135
After configuring and licensing a backup CMA on a Secondary MDS, what must you do to ensure that the backup CMA can install Policy in the event of a failover?
A. No action is required. When a backup CMA is created for a Customer, the system automatically adjusts the Security Policy of the CMA and the backup to include the backup CMA as a Secondary Management Server.
B. Using the NOC firewall’s SmartDashboard, place the system-created object representing the backup CMA into the list of Masters for the Security Gateway.
C. Using the Primary CMA’s SmartDashboard, place the system-created object representing the backup CMA into the list of Masters for the remote Gateway.
D. From the MDG of the Primary MDS, configure the Customer for which CMA HA is desired. Select the High Availability tab in the Customer Configuration screen. On the High Availability tab, enter name, IP address, and server information for the Primary and Secondary CMA.
E. From the MDG of the Secondary MDS, configure the Customer for which CMA HA is desired. Select the High Availability tab in the Customer Configuration screen. On the High Availability tab, enter name, IP address, and server information for the Primary and Secondary CMA.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 136
Which of the following services must be allowed through the NOC firewall to give a remote MDG access to the MDS?
A. CPMI
B. FW1_MGMT
C. CP_GUI
D. TCP_GUI
E. FW1_CPMI

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
In Provider-1 NGX, which services are predefined as global services for use in the Global SmartDashboard?
A. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX.
B. None of the services are predefined.
C. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except VOIP related services.
D. Only FireWall-1 control connections are predefined.
E. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except the required user-defined CPMI service.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 138
Which of the following SmartConsoles CANNOT launch from a CLM?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartDashboard
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 139
How can a Provider-1 Administrator verify if a specific Administrator made changes to a specific Security Policy?
A. From the SmartDashboard of the CMA, select the View option; select the Audit Mode from the menu that appears.
B. From the MDS Contents mode of the General view, right-click the MDS icon on which the CMA resides, and select the Launch SmartView Tracker (Audit Mode) option from the menu.
C. From the CMA Contents mode of the General view, right-click the MDS icon on which the CMA resides, and select the Launch SmartView Tracker (Audit Mode) option from the menu.
D. From the SmartDashboard of the CMA, select the Manage option; select the Audit Mode from the menu that appears.
E. This action is not possible

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 140
You are responsible for Security Policies for 50 customers. You have just hired an assistant to administer 25 of those 50 customers for you. When creating a new user for your assistant in the Provider-1 configuration, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate permission settings to assign?
A. Provider-1 Manager
B. Customer Superuser
C. Customer Manager
D. Customer Monitor
E. None Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 66
How many CLMs can each MDs MLM hold?
A. 500
B. 50
C. 225
D. 250
E. unlimited

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
Can Multiple MDGs connect to a provider-1 system in Read/Write Mode?
A. Yes, only if Administrators connecting through the MDGs have different permission levels
B. Yes, if all connect through MDS Manager Machines
C. Yes, if one MDG is connected to the MDS Manager and the other MDG is connected to a MDG container
D. No, only one MDG at a time can have Read/Write Permissions in the Provider-1 system
E. No, Provider-1 can’t have more than one MDS Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
For which of the following components in a Provider-1 NGX deployment can a SmartCenter server be configured as a backup?
A. Primary MLM backed up by a Secondary CMA
B. CLM
C. Primary CMA backed up by a Secondary CMA
D. MDG
E. MLM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
If services other than the predefined global services are needed:
A. No action can be taken. Administrators can’t create services not predefined in the Global SmartDashboard
B. They must be imported from a preconfigured Global Policy
C. They can be created by editing a default service already included in the Global Policy database and saved under a new name
D. They must be imported from a preconfigured CMA Security Policy
E. They can be specifically defined in the Global SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 70
Which of the following actions is possible from the High Availability view of the MDG?
A. Create new MDS machines from the MDS contents mode
B. View status of High Availability configuration
C. Create a new backup CMA for a customer with an existing CMA, from the customer contents mode
D. Change the Active/Standby status of CMAs from the customer contents mode

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
In Provider-1 NGX, which services are predefined as global services for use in the Global SmartDashboard?
A. None of the services are predefined
B. All Services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX
C. All Services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except the required user-defined CPMI services
D. All Services are predefined in VPN-1, except VOIP related services
E. Only Firewall-1 control connections are predefined

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Evaluate the following statement: GUI clients and Administrators defined on the MDS are transferred to the SmartCenter Database during synchronization.
A. False, only Administrators defined on the MDS are transferred during database synchronization. GUI clients must be manually defined
B. True, all GUI clients and Administrators are applied to a backup SmartCenter Server automatically during database synchronization
C. False, a SmartCenter Server cannot be used to back up a CMA in a Provider-1 NGX configuration
D. False, GUI clients and Administrators must be manually defined on the SmartCenter Server. They are not transferred during database synchronization
E. False, only GUI clients defined on the MDS are transferred during database synchronization. Administrators must be manually defined
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote security Gateways
D. MDS-level High Availability is configured
E. Get Node data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS Name and CMA IP Address range
B. MDS Name and MDS IP Address
C. MDS IP address and MDS type
D. MDS IP Address and CMA IP Address range
E. MDS Name and MDS Type

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The General View is the only view in which an administrator can:
A. Execute custom commands
B. Assign a Global Policy to a customer
C. Edit the CMA and MDS objects
D. Reboot a remote workstation
E. View statistics on a remote Security Gateway’s performance
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 86
When you use the Global Properties’ default settings on R76, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
B. RIP traffic
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. SmartUpdate connections

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
You have installed a R76 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?
A. The new Gateway’s temporary license has expired.
B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.
C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.
D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from .
A. The ICA management tool
B. SmartUpdate
C. sysconfig
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway’s side with the command cpconfig and put in the same activation key in the Gateway’s object on the Security Management Server. Unfortunately, SIC cannot be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?
A. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig.
B. The installed policy blocks the communication.
C. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated.
D. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message: What is the reason for this behavior?

A. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
B. The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
C. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup > Initialize).
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R76 Security Management Server and a new R76 Gateway. He now wants to establish SIC between them. After entering the activation key, he gets the following message in SmartDashboard –
“Trust established”
SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won’t install and interface fetching does not work. What might be a reason for this?
A. It always works when the trust is established
B. This must be a human error.
C. SIC does not function over the network.
D. The Gateway’s time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
The SIC certificate is stored in the directory .
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $CPDIR/registry
D. $FWDIR/conf
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 95
You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway. After the SIC reset operation is complete, the policy that will be installed is the:
A. Default filter.
B. Last policy that was installed.
C. Standard policy.
D. Initial policy.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
Chris has lost SIC communication with his Security Gateway and he needs to re-establish SIC.

What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
A. 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 5, 1, 2, 4
D. 5, 1, 4, 2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
Which rule position in the Rule Base should hold the Cleanup Rule? Why?
A. Last. It explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic.
B. First. It explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.
C. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.
D. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
The and Rules are the two basic rules which should be used by all Security Administrators?
A. Cleanup; Stealth
B. Administrator Access; Stealth
C. Cleanup; Administrator Access
D. Network Traffic; Stealth

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
Which item below in a Security Policy would be enforced first?
A. Network Address Translation
B. Security Policy First rule
C. Administrator-defined Rule Base
D. IP spoofing/IP options
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?

A. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select
Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.
B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).
C. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules. Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).
D. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
A Cleanup rule.
A. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.
B. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
C. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.
D. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. You create them in SmartDashboard.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. Changes to the Security Gateway’s default settings do not affect implicit rules.
D. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the
Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?
A. After Stealth Rule
B. First
C. Before Last
D. Last
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
All of the following are Security Gateway control connections defined by default implied rules, EXCEPT:
A. Exclusion of specific services for reporting purposes.
B. Specific traffic that facilitates functionality, such as logging, management, and key exchange.
C. Acceptance of IKE and RDP traffic for communication and encryption purposes.
D. Communication with server types, such as RADIUS, CVP, UFP, TACACS, and LDAP.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy > Global Properties > Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port .
A. 257
B. 256
C. 259
D. 900

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Objects_5_0.C
B. fwauth.NDB
C. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
D. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
C. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
D. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Client Authentication
B. Session Authentication
C. User Authentication
D. Cleanup

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?
A. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.
B. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.
C. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.
D. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are

defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
A rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.
A. Cleanup
B. Stealth
C. Reject
D. IPS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port .
A. 259
B. 256
C. 80
D. 900

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP or SSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this?
A. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible.
B. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.
C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. “HTTP_SSH”) and define a clause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Boolean operator AND.
D. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action and select Accept here.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A. Reset all connections
B. Re-match connections
C. Keep all connections
D. Keep data connections

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
A. To permit implied rules.
B. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted.
C. To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway.
D. To permit management traffic.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
Which of these Security Policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible.
B. Using domain objects in rules when possible.
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.
D. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 52
Distinguish between the role of the data owner and the role of the data custodian. Complete the following sentence. The data owner is the:
A. department in the organization responsible for the data’s physical storage location. The data custodian is anyone who has access the data for any reason.
B. person or entity who accesses/and or manipulates data or information, in the course of assigned duties. The data custodian is a person or process with the appropriate level of privilege to access the data.
C. person or entity ultimately responsible for the security of an information asset. The data custodian is the person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the data owner.
D. person or process that originally creates the information. The data custodian is a role that shifts to any person or process currently accessing the data, and passes to the next person or process to access the data.
E. person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the functional user. The data custodian is a person or process who accesses and/or manipulates the information.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are considering purchasing a VPN solution to protect your organization’s information assets. The solution you are reviewing uses RFC-compliant and open-standards encryption schemes. The vendor has submitted the system to a variety of recognized testing authorities. The vendor does not make the source code available to testing authorities. Does this solution adhere to the secure design principle of open design?
A. No, because the software vendor could have changed the code after testing, which is not verifiable.
B. No, because the software vendor submitted the software to testing authorities only, and did not make the software available to the public for testing.
C. Yes, because the methods were tested by recognized testing authorities, and the source code is protected from vandalism.
D. Yes, because the methods are open, and the system does not rely on the secrecy of its internal mechanisms to provide protection.
E. No, because if a software vendor refuses to reveal the source code for a product, it cannot comply with the open-design principle.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of the following is the BEST method for managing users in an enterprise?
A. Enter user data in a spreadsheet.
B. Implement centralized access control.
C. Deploy Kerberos.
D. Place them in a centralized Lightweight Directory Access Protocol.
E. Use a Domain Name System.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
____________________ educate(s) security administrators and end users about organizations’ security policies.
A. Security-awareness training
B. Information Security (INFOSEC) briefings
C. Acceptable-use policies
D. Continuing education
E. Nondisclosure agreements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Operating-system fingerprinting uses all of the following, EXCEPT ________, to identify a target operating system.
A. Sequence Verifier
B. Initial sequence number
C. Address spoofing
D. Time to Live
E. IP ID field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Organizations _______ risk, when they convince another entity to assume the risk for them.
A. Elevate
B. Assume
C. Deny
D. Transfer
E. Mitigate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
A(n) _______________ is an unintended communication path that can be used to violate a system security policy.
A. Covert channel
B. Integrity axiom
C. Simple rule violation
D. Inferred fact
E. Aggregated data set

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
To protect its information assets, ABC Company purchases a safeguard that costs $60,000. The annual cost to maintain the safeguard is estimated to be $40,000. The aggregate Annualized Loss Expectancy for the risks the safeguard is expected to mitigate is $50,000.
At this rate of return, how long will it take ABC Company to recoup the cost of the safeguard?
A. ABC Company will never recoup the cost of this safeguard.
B. Less than 7 years
C. Less than 3 years
D. Less than 1 year
E. Less than 5 years

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
ABC Corporation’s network requires users to authenticate to cross the border firewall, and before entering restricted segments. Servers containing sensitive information require separate authentication. This is an example of which type of access-control method?
A. Single sign-on
B. Decentralized access control
C. Hybrid access control
D. Layered access control
E. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The items listed below are examples of ___________________ controls.
*Smart cards *Access control lists *Authentication servers *Auditing
A. Role-based
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Physical
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Why does the (ISC)2 access-control systems and methodology functional domain address both the confidentiality and integrity aspects of the Information Security Triad? Access-control systems and methodologies:
A. are required standards in health care and banking.
B. provide redundant systems and data backups.
C. control who is allowed to view and modify information.
D. are academic models not suitable for implementation.
E. set standards for acceptable media-storage devices.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
_______ intrusion-detection systems learn the behavior of a machine or network, and create a baseline.
A. Behavioral analysis
B. Statistical anomaly
C. Network
D. Pattern matching
E. Host

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Which of the following best describes the largest security challenge for Remote Offices/Branch Offices?
A. Leased-line security
B. Salami attacks
C. Unauthorized network connectivity
D. Distributed denial-of-service attacks
E. Secure access to remote organizational resources
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following should be included in an enterprise Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Choose THREE.)
A. Accidental or intentional data deletion
B. Severe weather disasters
C. Employee terminations
D. Employee administrative leave
E. Minor power outages

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 67
Which type of access management uses information about job duties and positions, to indicate subjects’ clearance levels?
A. Discretionary
B. Role-based
C. Nondiscretionary
D. Hybrid
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
When attempting to identify OPSEC indicators, information-security professionals must: (Choose THREE.)
A. Discover the information daily activities yield.
B. Meet with adversaries.
C. Perform business impact analysis surveys.
D. Scrutinize their organizations’ daily activities.
E. Analyze indicators, to determine the information an adversary can glean ?both from routine and nonroutine activities.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
Which of the following can be stored on a workstation? (Choose TWO.)
A. Payroll information
B. Data objects used by many employees
C. Databases
D. Interoffice memo
E. Customer correspondence
Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following should be included in an enterprise Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Choose THREE.)
A. Accidental or intentional data deletion
B. Severe weather disasters
C. Employee terminations
D. Employee administrative leave
E. Minor power outages

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 67
Which type of access management uses information about job duties and positions, to indicate subjects’ clearance levels?
A. Discretionary
B. Role-based
C. Nondiscretionary
D. Hybrid
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
When attempting to identify OPSEC indicators, information-security professionals must: (Choose THREE.)
A. Discover the information daily activities yield.
B. Meet with adversaries.
C. Perform business impact analysis surveys.
D. Scrutinize their organizations’ daily activities.
E. Analyze indicators, to determine the information an adversary can glean ?both from routine and nonroutine activities.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
Which of the following can be stored on a workstation? (Choose TWO.)
A. Payroll information
B. Data objects used by many employees
C. Databases
D. Interoffice memo
E. Customer correspondence
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 70
How is bogus information disseminated?
A. Adversaries sort through trash to find information.
B. Adversaries use anomalous traffic patterns as indicators of unusual activity. They will employ other methods, such as social engineering, to discover the cause of the noise.
C. Adversaries use movement patterns as indicators of activity.
D. Adversaries take advantage of a person’s trust and goodwill.
E. Seemingly, unimportant pieces of data may yield enough information to an adversary, for him to disseminate incorrect information and sound authoritative.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
Which type of access management allows subjects to control some access of objects for other subjects?
A. Discretionary
B. Hybrid
C. Mandatory
D. Role-based
E. Nondiscretionary

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which of the following are enterprise administrative controls? (Choose TWO.)
A. Network access control
B. Facility access control
C. Password authentication
D. Background checks
E. Employee handbooks

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 73
You are preparing a machine that will be used as a dedicated Web server.
Which of the following services should NOT be removed?
A. E. IRC
B. SMTP
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. PVP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
A new U.S. Federal Information Processing Standard specifies a
cryptographic algorithm. This algorithm is used by U.S. government organizations to protect sensitive,
but unclassified, information. What is the name of this Standard?

A. Triple DES
B. Blowfish
C. AES
D. CAST
E. RSA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
If a firewall receives traffic not explicitly permitted by its security policy, what should the firewall do?
A. Nothing
B. Do not log and drop the traffic.
C. Log and drop the traffic.
D. Log and pass the traffic.
E. Do not log and pass the traffic.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which of the following statements about encryption’s benefits is false? Encryption can: (Choose TWO.)
A. significantly reduce the chance information will be modified by unauthorized entities.
B. only be used to protect data in transit. Encryption provides no protection to stored data.
C. allow private information to be sent over public networks, in relative safety.
D. significantly reduce the chance information will be viewed by unauthorized entities.
E. prevent information from being destroyed by malicious entities, while in transit.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 77
Which principle of secure design states that a security mechanism’s methods must be testable?
A. Separation of privilege
B. Least common mechanism
C. Complete mediation
D. Open design
E. Economy of mechanism

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What type of document contains information on alternative business locations, IT resources, and personnel?
A. End-user license agreement
B. Nondisclosure agreement
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Security policy
E. Business continuity plan

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 79
A(n) ______________________________ is a quantitative review of risks, to determine how an organization will continue to function, in the event a risk is realized.
A. Monitored risk process
B. Disaster-recovery plan
C. Business impact analysis
D. Full interruption test
E. Information security audit
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Internal intrusions are loosely divided into which categories? (Choose TWO.)
A. Attempts by insiders to perform appropriate acts, on information assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.
B. Attempts by insiders to access resources, without proper access rights.
C. Attempts by insiders to access external resources, without proper access rights.
D. Attempts by insiders to perform inappropriate acts, on external information assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.
E. Attempts by insiders to perform inappropriate acts, on information assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 81
A security administrator implements Secure Configuration Verification (SCV), because SCV: (Choose THREE.)
A. Does not enable the administrator to monitor the configuration of remote computers.
B. Can block connectivity for machines that do not comply with the organization’s security policy.
C. Enables the administrator to monitor the configuration of remote computers.
D. Prevents attackers from penetrating headquarters’ Security Gateway.
E. Confirms that a remote configuration complies with the organization’s security policy.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 82
Which of the following is likely in a small-business environment?
A. Most small businesses employ a full-time information-technology staff.
B. Resources are available as needed.
C. Small businesses have security personnel on staff.
D. Most employees have experience with information security.
E. Security budgets are very small.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
ABC Corporation’s network is configured such that a user must log in individually at each server and access control. Which type of authentication is in use?
A. Role-based access control
B. Three-factor authentication
C. Single sign-on
D. Hybrid access control
E. Mandatory sign-on

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
Which type of Business Continuity Plan (BCP) test involves shutting down a primary site, bringing an alternate site on-line, and moving all operations to the alternate site?
A. Parallel
B. Full interruption
C. Checklist
D. Structured walkthrough
E. Simulation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
A(n) _______ is the first step for determining which technical information assets should be protected.
A. Network diagram
B. Business Impact Analysis
C. Office floor plan
D. Firewall
E. Intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which of the following is an example of a simple, physical-access control?
A. Lock
B. Access control list
C. Background check
D. Token
E. Firewall

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describes an external intrusion attempt on a local-area network (LAN)?
A. Internal users try to gain unauthorized access to information assets outside the organizational perimeter.
B. External-intrusion attempts from sources outside the LAN are not granted permissions or rights to an organization’s information assets.
C. External users attempt to access public resources.
D. External intruders attempt exploitation of vulnerabilities, to remove their own access.
E. Internal users perform inappropriate acts on assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Maintenance of the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) must be integrated with an organization’s _______________ process.
A. Change-control
B. Disaster-recovery
C. Inventory-maintenance
D. Discretionary-budget
E. Compensation-review
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
A(n) _______ occurs when intrusion-detection measures fail to recognize suspicious traffic or activity.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. CIFS pop-up
D. Threshold
E. Alarm

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
What is single sign-on? An authentication method:
A. that allows users to authenticate once, and then uses tokens or other credentials to manage subsequent authentication attempts
B. that stores user credentials locally, so that users need only authenticate the first time, a local machine is used
C. requiring the use of one-time passwords, so users authenticate only once, with a given set of credentials.
D. that uses smart cards, hardware tokens, and biometrics to authenticate users; also known as three-factor authentication
E. that requires users to re-authenticate for every resource accessed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is NOT a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) recovery strategy?
A. Delegating risk to another entity, such as an insurer
B. Manual procedures; alternative solution to technology available
C. Deferring action; action waiting until a later date
D. Reciprocal agreements with another organization
E. Doing nothing; no action taken to recover the technology

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
____________________ is the state of being correct, or the degree of certainty a person or process can have, that the data in an information asset is correct.
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Authenticity
D. Privacy
E. Availability

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Distinguish between the role of the data owner and the role of the data custodian. Complete the following sentence. The data owner is the:
A. department in the organization responsible for the data’s physical storage location. The data custodian is anyone who has access the data for any reason.
B. person or entity who accesses/and or manipulates data or information, in the course of assigned duties. The data custodian is a person or process with the appropriate level of privilege to access the data.
C. person or entity ultimately responsible for the security of an information asset. The data custodian is the person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the data owner.
D. person or process that originally creates the information. The data custodian is a role that shifts to any person or process currently accessing the data, and passes to the next person or process to access the data.
E. person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the functional user. The data custodian is a person or process who accesses and/or manipulates the information.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are considering purchasing a VPN solution to protect your organization’s information assets. The solution you are reviewing uses RFC-compliant and open-standards encryption schemes. The vendor has submitted the system to a variety of recognized testing authorities. The vendor does not make the source code available to testing authorities. Does this solution adhere to the secure design principle of open design?
A. No, because the software vendor could have changed the code after testing, which is not verifiable.
B. No, because the software vendor submitted the software to testing authorities only, and did not make the software available to the public for testing.
C. Yes, because the methods were tested by recognized testing authorities, and the source code is protected from vandalism.
D. Yes, because the methods are open, and the system does not rely on the secrecy of its internal mechanisms to provide protection.
E. No, because if a software vendor refuses to reveal the source code for a product, it cannot comply with the open-design principle.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of the following is the BEST method for managing users in an enterprise?
A. Enter user data in a spreadsheet.
B. Implement centralized access control.
C. Deploy Kerberos.
D. Place them in a centralized Lightweight Directory Access Protocol.
E. Use a Domain Name System.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
____________________ educate(s) security administrators and end users about organizations’ security policies.
A. Security-awareness training
B. Information Security (INFOSEC) briefings
C. Acceptable-use policies
D. Continuing education
E. Nondisclosure agreements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Operating-system fingerprinting uses all of the following, EXCEPT ________, to identify a target operating system.
A. Sequence Verifier
B. Initial sequence number
C. Address spoofing
D. Time to Live
E. IP ID field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Organizations _______ risk, when they convince another entity to assume the risk for them.
A. Elevate
B. Assume
C. Deny
D. Transfer
E. Mitigate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
A(n) _______________ is an unintended communication path that can be used to violate a system security policy.
A. Covert channel
B. Integrity axiom
C. Simple rule violation
D. Inferred fact
E. Aggregated data set

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
To protect its information assets, ABC Company purchases a safeguard that costs $60,000. The annual cost to maintain the safeguard is estimated to be $40,000. The aggregate Annualized Loss Expectancy for the risks the safeguard is expected to mitigate is $50,000.
At this rate of return, how long will it take ABC Company to recoup the cost of the safeguard?
A. ABC Company will never recoup the cost of this safeguard.
B. Less than 7 years
C. Less than 3 years
D. Less than 1 year
E. Less than 5 years

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
ABC Corporation’s network requires users to authenticate to cross the border firewall, and before entering restricted segments. Servers containing sensitive information require separate authentication. This is an example of which type of access-control method?
A. Single sign-on
B. Decentralized access control
C. Hybrid access control
D. Layered access control
E. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The items listed below are examples of ___________________ controls.
*Smart cards *Access control lists *Authentication servers *Auditing
A. Role-based
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Physical
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Why does the (ISC)2 access-control systems and methodology functional domain address both the confidentiality and integrity aspects of the Information Security Triad? Access-control systems and methodologies:
A. are required standards in health care and banking.
B. provide redundant systems and data backups.
C. control who is allowed to view and modify information.
D. are academic models not suitable for implementation.
E. set standards for acceptable media-storage devices.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
_______ intrusion-detection systems learn the behavior of a machine or network, and create a baseline.
A. Behavioral analysis
B. Statistical anomaly
C. Network
D. Pattern matching
E. Host

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Which of the following best describes the largest security challenge for Remote Offices/Branch Offices?
A. Leased-line security
B. Salami attacks
C. Unauthorized network connectivity
D. Distributed denial-of-service attacks
E. Secure access to remote organizational resources
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following should be included in an enterprise Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Choose THREE.)
A. Accidental or intentional data deletion
B. Severe weather disasters
C. Employee terminations
D. Employee administrative leave
E. Minor power outages

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 67
Which type of access management uses information about job duties and positions, to indicate subjects’ clearance levels?
A. Discretionary
B. Role-based
C. Nondiscretionary
D. Hybrid
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
When attempting to identify OPSEC indicators, information-security professionals must: (Choose THREE.)
A. Discover the information daily activities yield.
B. Meet with adversaries.
C. Perform business impact analysis surveys.
D. Scrutinize their organizations’ daily activities.
E. Analyze indicators, to determine the information an adversary can glean ?both from routine and nonroutine activities.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
Which of the following can be stored on a workstation? (Choose TWO.)
A. Payroll information
B. Data objects used by many employees
C. Databases
D. Interoffice memo
E. Customer correspondence
Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 55
A digital signature:
A. Automatically changes shared keys.
B. Uniquely encodes the receiver of the key.
C. Provides a secure key-exchange mechanism over the Internet.
D. Guarantees the authenticity of a message.
E. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Dr bill is a Security Administrator who must define a new user for SecuRemote access to his VPN-1/ FireWall-1 VPN Domain. Dr bill has an established Remote Access VPN community for existing SecuRemote users. Dr bill creates a new user and populates the Login Name field. He then saves and installs the Security Policy. When Dr bill attempts a SecuRemote connection using the newly created user, the connection fails. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the failure?
A. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module does not have a valid license for the new SecuRemote user.
B. Dr bill did not configure Time properties for the new user. New users are restricted to No Time.
C. Dr bill did not define an authentication method or generate a certificate for the new user.
D. The new user was not placed in a group. The All Users group cannot be used for SecuRemote access.
E. Dr bill did not configure the user’s locations. The Any location is not a valid option for SecuRemote users.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Dr bill wants to configure a custom script to launch an application for certain rules. Which of the following should Dr bill configure?
A. SNMP Trap Alert Script
B. Custom scripts cannot be executed through Alert Scripts.
C. Mail Alert Script
D. User-Defined Alert Script
E. Popup Alert Script

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Assume an intruder has succeeded in compromising your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys. Which of the following will end the intruder’s access after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs?
A. DES Key Reset
B. MD5 Hash Completion
C. SHA1 Hash Completion
D. Phase 3 Key Revocation
E. Perfect Forward Secrecy

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 59
To enable session tracking, you must do which of the following? (Choose two)
A. Create the path a packet takes after it leaves an Enforcement Module.
B. Define which parameters of an alert are established.
C. Define which parameters of a log are established.
D. Create the path a packet takes between an enterprise Enforcement Module and the perimeter router.
E. Create the path a packet has taken before reaching an Enforcement Module.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 60
Exhibit: Dr bill wants to reduce encryption overhead for his meshed VPN Community, without compromising security. Which of the following helps Dr bill accomplish his goal?

A. Check the box Support Site to Site IP compression.
B. Check the box User aggressive mode.
C. Change the setting Use Diffie-Hellman group: to “Group 5 (1536 bit)”.
D. Check the box Use Perfect Forward Secrecy.
E. Reduce the setting Renegotiate IKE security associations every to “720”.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
You are logging into a Policy Server in orderto update or download a new Desktop Policy. Which of the following initiates an Explicit login?
A. SecureClient
B. Remote Client Manager
C. Session Authentication Agent
D. Policy Server
E. LDAP Server
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from retrieving files from an external FTP Server, while allowing users to send files?
A. Block FTP_PASV.
B. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
D. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
E. Block all FTP traffic.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
If a VPN Community is included in the IF VIA field of a rule, all packets matching the rules’ criteria will be ______________, even though the rule shows Accept in the Action column.
A. user authenticated
B. encrypted
C. dropped
D. client authenticated
E. rejected

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Which of the following is configured in a rule allowing notification through SmartView Status?
A. Mail
B. Account
C. Log
D. Alert
E. SNMP Trap

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Dr bill wants to deploy SecureClient to remote users and wants to use certificate for authentication. What is the proper order to properly generate and deploy user certificates on the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)?
1.
Securely distribute the certificate.

2.
Create the user.

3.
Require the user to change the password protecting the certificate.

4.
Generate the user certificate.
A. 4, 1, 3, 2
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
E. 1, 3, 4, 2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which of the following statements about Hybrid IKE are FALSE? (Choose two)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. Only pre-shared secrets or certificates may be used.
C. SecureClient and Hybrid IKE are incompatible.
D. TCP/IP headers are encrypted along with the payload.
E. Any authentication mechanism supported by VPN-1/FireWall-1 is supported.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 67
VPN-1/FireWall-1 allows a Security Administrator to define four types of Certificate Authorities. Which of the following is NOT a type of Certificate Authority that can be defined in VPN-1/FirwWall-1?
A. OPSEC PKI
B. External SmartCenter Server
C. Entrust PKI
D. VPN-1 Certificate Manager
E. Caching Only Certificate Manager

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
Dr bill is a Security Administrator assisting a SecuRemote user who must switch from using a pre-shared secret, to using certificates for access to the VPN domain. The user is physically located on a different continent then Dr bill. Until the user has her certificate, she cannot access the resources she needs to perform her duties. Which of the following options is the BEST method for Dr bill to deliver the certificate to the user?
A. Initiate the user’s certificate, and send the user the registration key. Allow the user to complete the registration process.
B. Generate the certificate and save it to a floppy disk. Mail the floppy disk to the user’s location.
C. The user should mail her laptop to Dr bill. Dr bill needs physical to the SecuRemote machine to load the certificate.
D. Dr bill must delete the user’s account and create a new account. It is not possible to change encryption settings on existing users.
E. Generate the certificate, and place it on FTP Server in the VPN Domain. Ask the user to fetch the certificate.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 69
The Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is installed on which of the following?
A. SmartCenter Server
B. Policy Server
C. Enterprise Log Module
D. SmartConsole
E. Enforcement Module
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Exhibit Dr bill is adjusting the Global Properties > Remote Access > VPN – Advanced settings in SmartDashboard. Which of Dr bill’s VPN Communities will be affected by these changes?

A. All mesh VPN Communities
B. MyIntranet only
C. RemoteAccess only
D. All VPN Communities, regardless of type
E. All star VPN Communities

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
How many certificates can one entity have from a single Certificate Authority?
A. Two
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
E. Three
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements correctly describes a difference between pre-shared secrets and certificates, as implemented in gateway-to-gateway encryption in VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. A pre-shared secret is an attribute of a single entity, but a certificate is an attribute of a pair of entities.
B. A pre-shared secret is an attribute of a pair of entities, but a certificate is an attribute of a single entity.
C. Both a pre-shared secret and a certificate are attributes of a pair of entities.
D. Both a pre-shared secret and certificate are attributes of a single entity.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Dr Bill is assisting a SecureClient user who is not able to access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause for the user’s inability to access resources?
A. A key-exchange protocol is initiated with the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. The user’s ISP may be blocBill the protocol.
B. SecureClient holds the first packet without transmitting it. If the user’s Internet connection is very slow, the connection may be timed out.
C. SecureClient challenges users for authentication. The user may be supplying an incorrect user name or password.
D. The VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module pushes topology information to the SecureClient. If the user’s is behind a NAT device, the Enforcement Module cannot push the topology.
E. SecureClient examines the packet, to determine the responsible Enforcement Module. The user may have supplied incorrect information about the Enforcement Module.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 74
In the following graphic, the remote SecureClient machine does not have an installed Desktop Policy.

The SecureClient User tries to connect to a host in Rome’s VPN Domain. Because Romeis a Policy Server:
A. It will initiate Explicit Logon only, before it allows a connection to its VPN Domain.
B. It will initiate Explicit Logon an attempt to install a Desktop Policy on the SecureClient machine, before it allows a connection to its VPN Domain.
C. The SecureClient user will not be allowed to connect to a host in Rome’s VPN Domain.
D. It will initiate Implicit Logon and attempt to install a Desktop Policy on the SecureClient machine, before it allows a connection to its VPN Domain.
E. It will initiate Implicit Logon only, before it allows a connection to its VPN Domain.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Dr bill is a Security Administrator for a financial firm with very strict policies for remote access. Preventing users from modifying settings is a priority. Dr bill has selected SecureClient as his firm’s remote access solution. Dr bill is reviewing site definition solutions and attempting to decide which is appropriate for his environment. Which of the following should he choose?
A. Allow SecureClient users to connect to a trusted, third party site-distribution server and download the site.
B. Allow SecureClient users to download the site information from a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module.
C. Configure a SecureClient User Access Token, and allow users to attach the token to the client.
D. Establish a SecureClient connection and allow subsequent SecureClient connections to fetch site information from their peers.
E. Prepare a standard userc.C file for SecureClient users and predefine the site for them

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following Action column options is NOT available for use in a simplified mode Rule Base?
A. Drop
B. Accept
C. Reject
D. Client Auth
E. Encrypt

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 77
Dr bill is preparing to implement remote-access VPNs, using VPN-1/FireWall-1 and SecureClient. When Dr bill selects an authentication method, it must meet the following requirements:
1.
The authentication method must support existing authentication methods, including OS passwords and
RADIUS, for ClientAuthentication.
2.
The Enforcement Module must use certificates, to authenticate itself to the client.
3.
The authentication method must be flexible, allowing other authentication solutions to be added,
including SecureID and TACACS.
Which authentication method should Dr bill choose?

A. Digital Certificates

B. Pre-shared Secrets

C. LDAP

D. Public Key Signatures

E. Hybrid Mode
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 78
Dr bill is a security consultant. Dr bill’s client uses a 56-bit DES encryption key for its VPN-1/FireWall-1 VPNs. Dr bill informs his client that as a banking concern, the client is not using a long enough key to comply with new industry regulations. New industry regulations require a key length of no less then 120 bits. The new industry standards expressly prohibit the use of proprietary algorithms. Which of the following solutions could Dr bill suggest to his client, to help the client achieve regulatory compliance? (Choose two)
A. BlowFish
B. RC4
C. AES
D. 3DES
E. CAST

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 79
Arne is a Security Administrator for a small company in Oslo. He has just been informed that a new office is opening in Madrid, and he must configure each site’s Enforcement Module to encrypt all data being passed between the offices. Because Arne controls both sites, he decides to use a shared-secret key to configure an IKE VPN. Which of the following tasks does Arne NOT need to perform to configure the IKE VPN?
A. Configure the Rule Base to allow encrypted traffic between the VPN Domains.
B. Configure IKE encryption parameters for the Madrid and Oslo Enforcement Modules.
C. Establish a secure channel for the exchange of the shared secret.
D. Define VPN Domains for the Madrid and Oslo Enforcement Modules.
E. Create certificates for the Madrid and Oslo Enforcement Modules.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
A Security Administrator wants to reduce the load on Web servers located in a DMZ. The servers are configured with the same Web pages for the same domain, and with identical hardware. Which of the following is the BEST answer to help balance the load on the Web servers?
A. Round Trip
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Domain
E. Cluster

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which of the following encryption algorithms is a symmetric-key encryption method that uses a 168-bit key?
A. CAST Cipher
B. DES
C. AES (Rijndael)
D. 3DES
E. Blowfish
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Certificate-based encryption
B. Static encryption
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. Dynamic encryption
E. Symmetric encryption
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 83
You are setting up an IKE VPN between two VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Modules protecting two networks. One network is using an RFC 1918 compliant address range of 10.15.0.0. The other network is using an RFC 1918 compliant address range of 192.168.9.0. Which method of address translation would you use?
A. Dynamic Source
B. Dynamic
C. Static Source
D. None
E. Static Destination

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Dr bill is using VPN-1/FireWall-1 to provide load balancing for his Web servers. When a client initiates a session with one of Dr bill’s Web servers it must be able to retain its connection with the same server for the entire session. Which load-balancing mode is MOST appropriate for Dr bill’s environment?
A. Standby Server
B. Relay Server
C. Continuous Server
D. Active Server
E. Persistent Server
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 85
Exhibit: Dr bill is senior Security Administrator who supervises and trains junior Security Administrators. Dr bill must explain VPN-1/FireWall-1’s Diffie-Hellman settings to the junior Security Administrator. Which of the following explanations is MOST correct?

A. Diffie-Hellman key settings are in the Advanced Properties for a reason. Incorrect Diffie-Hellman key settings can stop and Enforcement Module from passing any traffic at all. Incorrect Diffie-Hellman key settings usually require a complete reinstallation.
B. Diffie-Hellman groups exist for backward compatibility. When establishing VPN tunnels between BG with Application Intelligence and older versions of VPN-1/FireWall-1, Diffie-Hellman groups allow Security Administrators to accommodate older encryption algorithms.
C. Diffie-Hellman key exchange is an encryption algorithm, which transforms clear text into ciphertext. Diffie-Hellman is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. Diffie-Hellman groups with higher numbers use stronger keys, but have no impact on performance.
D. Diffie-Hellman key exchange is a cryptographic protocol, which allows two communicators to agree on a secret key over an insecure communication channel. Diffie-Hellman groups with higher numbers use stronger keys. But have a negative impact on performance.
E. Diffie-Hellman keys are applied only when established Check Point-to-other-vendor VPNs. When creating VPN tunnels between different vendor’s software, Diffie-Hellman keys automatically negotiate IKE and IPSEC parameters.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
Which of the following conditions will cause Secure Client Verification to report that a SecureClient machine is NOT considered secured? (Choose three)
A. The local.svc file is either corrupt or miconfigured.
B. The SecureClient machine cannot contact the SmartCenter Server.
C. The user has selected Disable from the SecureClient Policy menu.
D. There are expired cookies in the machines TMP directory.
E. There is no SCV policy on the SecureClient machine.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 87
Which component of VPN-1/FireWall-1 is used for Content Security to prevent end-user access to specific URLs?
A. UFP Server
B. TACACS Server
C. URI Server
D. CVP Server
E. DEFENDER Server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Which of the following actions does Secure Configuration Verification perform? (Choose three) Secure Configuration Verification confirms that the:
A. Desktop Policy is installed on all client interfaces.
B. TCP/IP is enabled on the desktop.
C. User name and password cached on the desktop are correct.
D. Client’s operating system has the appropriate patch level.
E. IP address of the client is correct for entrance into the VPN Domain.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 89
Dr bill is his organization’s Chief Technology Officer. He is seeking a solution to control the impact if unauthorized software on his corporate network. Dr bill has established the following guidelines for any solution implemented:
1.
Required objective: The solution must not allow access to corporate resources if user’s virus-protection software is not current.

2.
Desired objective: The solution should be able to control protocols enabled on the user’s computers.

3.
Desired objective: The solution should prevent users snooping traffic across internal segments of the corporate network, from acquiring useful information. Dr bill’s Security Administrator proposes SecureClient with Policy Servers, internal Enforcement Modules, and Desktop policies as a solution. Based on the information, which of the following is the BEST answer?
A. The proposed solution does not meet the required objective.
B. The proposed solution meets the required objective, but does not meet the desired objectives.
C. The proposed solution meets the required objective, and only one desired objective.
D. The proposed solution meets the requires objective and both desired objectives.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Which of the following are TRUE about SecureClient? (Choose three)
A. SecureClient cannot use Hybrid IKE for its encryption method.
B. When SecureClient and Enforcement Module exchange keys, the user will be re-authenticated if the password has been erased.
C. Before you attempt to download a Security Policy, you must first define a site in which a Policy Server is contained.
D. SecureClient syntax checking can be used to monitor userc.C file parameters. This checking is used to prevent errors causing the site to which it belongs from being deleted.
E. SecureClient supports Desktop Policies issued by a Policy Server.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 91
The Check Point SecureClient Packaging Tool allows System Administrators to: (Choose three)
A. Install a package on a client machine.
B. Create customized SecuRemote/SecureClient installation packages to distribute to users.
C. Customize the flow of end-user installation processed, before SecuRemote/SecureClient is installed.
D. Configure Secu/Remote properties for users, before installation.
E. Automatically update SecureClient installation at regular intervals.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 92
Which VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Server can hide real user names by rewriting information in the From field, while maintaining connectivity by restoring correct addresses in the response?
A. RLOGIN
B. SMTP
C. FTP
D. TELNET
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
If a resource is specified in the Services field of a Rule Base, which of the following occurs?
A. Users attempting to connect to the object defined in the Destination column of the rule will be required to authenticate.
B. All packets matching the resource service will by analyzed based on resource properties.
C. All packets that match the resource will be dropped.
D. SecureClient users attempting to connect to the object defined in the Destination column of the rule will receive a new Desktop Policy from the resource.
E. All packets matching that rule are either encrypted or decrypted by the defined resource.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
Exhibit In the exhibit, SecureClient can be used inside and outside the LAN. To reach Finance.net, SecureClient users must pass through the Zulu Policy Server. When this connection is made, Zulu will attempt to load its Desktop Policy on the SecureClient remote user, and:

A. Zulu will not allow an improperly configured SecureClient machine to reach its internal VPN Domain.
B. Zulu will pass SecureClient users through the FinanceNet Servers to reach their internal VPN Domains.
C. Zulu will pass SecureClient users through the FinanceNet Servers to reach their external VPN Domains.
D. Zulu will pass SecureClient users through the Remote Enforcement Module to reach Mark.
E. Zulu will allow an improperly configured SecureClient machine to reach its internal VPN Domain, if the traffic is accepted by the Rome Enforcement Module.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Which VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Servers provide Content Security? (Choose three)
A. HTTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. TELNET
E. FTP

Correct Answer: ACE

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QUESTION 61
Which of the following modes allows a client in a load-balanced environment to retain its connection with the same server during a session?
A. Persistent Client Mode
B. Persistent Server Mode
C. Persistent Router Mode
D. Active Server Mode
E. Active Client Mode

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL) are maintained on the LDAP Server. You have problems when the Server. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would you perform?
A. Check the connectivity.
B. Check the entrust.ini files.
C. Run “fw authgexport -f -f_” from a command line prompt.
D. Use FireWall-1/VPN-1 Resource Hit’s certlist.exe.
E. Create the text file $FWAUTH/conf/loggers and input the public key.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
When configuring MEP, “Enable Backup Gateway for SecuRemote connections” must be selected from what tab of the Properties Setup screen?
A. IP Pool NAT
B. Security Policy
C. Entry Point
D. High Availability
E. Security Servers

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
What interface should be resolvable to the firewall module’s real host name when dealing with a SEP configuration?
A. DMZ Interface
B. Secure (Control) Interface
C. External Interface
D. Virtual Interface
E. Internal Interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
State synchronization should be used with the _______ High Availability configuration.
A. Single Entry Point
B. Dual Entry Point
C. Tandem Entry
D. Collateral Entry
E. Synchronized Entry

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
When describing encryption domain, a PROPER SUBSET implies that:
A. Gateway encryption domains are identical.
B. Gateway encryption domains share on or more hosts, but each host that are NOT shared.
C. One Gateway encryption domain is fully contained within another gateway encryption domain.
D. Two or more Gateway encryption domains are fully contained within another gateway encryption domain.
E. Gateway encryption domains share the same firewall.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which of the following is NOT one of the Desktop Policies that may be issued by a Policy Server?
A. Allow All
B. Allow Outgoing and Encrypted
C. Allow Incoming and Encrypted
D. Allow Outgoing Only
E. Allow Encrypted Only
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
A ______ is a ______ with added features for securing an interval network?
A. Desktop Policy, Policy Server
B. SecureClient, SecuRemote Server
C. SecureRemote Server, Policy Server
D. Policy Server, SecuRemote Server
E. Policy Server, Desktop Policy

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
When a SecuRemote Client and Server Key exchange occurs, the SecuRemote user will be re-authenticated if the passwords has been erased.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
You are in the process of setting up a local firewall for aggressive ISAKMP Phase One Exchange. This means you are exchanging the standard six packet ISAKMP Phase One exchange for a(n) _________ packet exchange.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Five
E. Ten

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
When using FWZ in a firewall-to-firewall VPN ______ is used to manage session keys, encryption methods, and data integrity.
A. ICMP
B. RDP
C. TCP
D. FW1_Mgmt
E. RWS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
You are setting up a VPN, and you want to encrypt not just the data packet, but the original headers as well. Which encryption scheme would you select?
A. Tunneling Mode
B. In-place
C. BlowFish
D. RC4
E. CAST

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
You are developing a network between separate corporate partners, each having its own secure intranet. If you want to share data among them, the type of VPN you would develop is a(n):
A. Client-to-Site VPN
B. Server-to-Server VPN
C. Intranet VPN
D. Extranet VPN
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
Which of the following are SYNDefender schemes offered by the VPN-1/FireWall-1 software to protect against SYN flood attacks?
A. SYNProtector, SYNStopper
B. SYN Gateway, Passive SYN Gateway
C. SYN Gateway, SYNStopper
D. SYNProtector, SYN Gateway, Passive SYN Gateway
E. SYNProtector, SYN Gateway, SYNStopper, Passive SYN Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The user composes a mail message and sends it through the firewalled gateway SMTP client to the original server. Assuming all necessary actions have been performed and the message has been transferred to the spool directory, which actions does the mail dequeuer perform next?
A. The mail dequeuer examines the spool directory for the messages.
B. the mail dequeuer takes R files and sends them, or processes them into E files.
C. The mail dequeuer opens a second connection to the final SMTP Server.
D. The mail dequeuer, after opening a connection to the mail server, opens a connection to the CVP Server if needed.
E. The mail dequeuer receives the files back from CVP Server and completes the sending of the message to final SMTP Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Most load-balancing algorithms use dynamic address translation. However, the ______ and _________ algorithms use Connect Control.
A. Round Trip, Server load
B. Random, Domain
C. Random, Round Robin
D. Server Load, Round Trip
E. Server Load, Domain

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
CRL lookups flow from the FireWall-1 modules, or the SecuRemote machines, to the LDAP Server.
When problems occur with CRL verification, how would you verify that the IP addresses and port numbers
are correctly referencing the CA and LDAP Severs?

A. Check the connectivity.
B. Check CRL timeout and other config parameters.
C. Check the entrust.ini files.
D. Run “fw authgezport -f -n” from a command line prompt.
E. Use Windows NT Resource Kit’s pulist.exe.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Multiple Entry Point configurations support:
A. Manual IPSec encryption
B. Gateway clusters
C. IP pools
D. SKIP encryption
E. Local management
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 79
When describing encryption domains, a FULL OVERLAP implies that:
A. Gateway encryption domains are identical.
B. Gateway encryption domains share on or more hosts, but each has hosts that are NOT shared.
C. One Gateway encryption domain is fully contained within another gateway encryption domain.
D. Two or more Gateway encryption domains are fully contained within another gateway encryption domain.
E. Gateway encryption domains share the same firewall.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
SecureClient syntax checking can be used to monitor users.C file parameters. This checking is used to prevent errors causing the site, to which it belongs, form being deleted.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
A desktop user’s SecureClient has established an initial connection and downloaded a Desktop Policy from a Policy Server. Which of the following is a visual indicator conforming this event?
A. SecureClient button will appear in the NT Task Bar.
B. SecureClient button will disappear in the NT Task Bar.
C. Pop-up message will ask the user to reboot the machine.
D. Grey login shortcut icon on SecureClient toolbar will “light up” become available for use.
E. Grey login icon will disappear when the window is refreshed.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
For standard RFC (Request For Comment) compliant IKE encryption, a user’s authenticationmethod is defined where?
A. In the “Authentication” tab of the user-
B. In the “Encryption” tab of the firewall and the “Authentication” tab of the user.
C. In the “Encryption” tab of the firewall and the “Encryption” tab of the user.
D. In the “Authentication” tab on the firewall.
E. In the “Authentication” tab of the firewall and the user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Symmetric encryption uses the same key for encryption and decryption.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
You are developing a Wide Area Network between a corporate main office and a group of branch sales offices. You are looking for fast, strong encryption for highspeed links. Reliability to ensure prioritization of missioncritical applications. The classification of this extended corporate network is:
A. Client-to-Firewall VPN
B. Server-to-Server VPN
C. Intranet VPN
D. Extranet VPN
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
If there is a syntax error in the cvpm.conf file, where will the error be logged?
A. An error message will be displayed and a log entry will be generated to the VPN-1/FireWall-1 log.
B. An error message will be displayed but no log entry will be generated.
C. No error message is generated.
D. An error message will not be displayed but a long entry will be generated to the VPN-1/FirwWall-1 log.
E. An event is logged to the NT event viewer only.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
The Check Point VPN-1/FireWall-1 software provides Content Security for which combination of the following?
A. RLOGIN, HTTP, FTP
B. FTP, TELNET, HTTPS
C. HTTP, FTP, TELNET
D. HTTP, RLOGIN, SMTP
E. HTTP, FTP, SMTP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
Which of the following should NOT be used to write user-defined alert applications?
A. C/C++
B. ActiveX
C. Bourne shell
D. Perl
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which configuration requires synchronized gateways?
A. Single Entry Point
B. Multiple Entry Point
C. Dual Entry Point
D. Tandem Entry
E. Synchronized Entry

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
If you want to stop SecureClient users from changing their Desktop Policy, you can include the line “:manual_slan_control(false)” in which file?
A. server.def
B. userc.C
C. policy.h
D. client.def
E. rulebase.fws

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
During a SecuRemote installation, which of the following options must you select to activate SecureClient?
A. Install SecuRemote without Desktop Support.
B. Install on all network adapters.
C. Log into Policy Server.
D. Install Desktop Security Support.
E. Install on Mobile Desktop Components.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Which encrypting scheme provides “In-place” encryption?
A. SKIP
B. Manual IPSec
C. IKE
D. FWZ
E. DES

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Where do you configure the types of alerts that CPMAD generates?
A. $syntax/conf directory
B. $FWDIR/bin directory
C. The cpmad_config.conf file, and the Log and Alert tab of the Properties Setup screen.
D. The Security tab of the Workstation Properties screen for the firewall object.
E. The Security of the Server Properties screen for the firewall object.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
You are implementing load-balancing, and using the firewall’s external IP address as the logical server IP address. Does the following Rule Base correctly apply HTTP load-balancing?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
By default, how often will SecuRemote query the external gateway of a MEP configured network?
A. Every 30 minutes.
B. Every 15 minutes.
C. Every 5 minutes.
D. Every minute.
E. Never

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
When you configure a proper subset cryptosystem, you must configure the Rule Base of exterior gateway to allow SecuRemote connections to remain encrypted passing though the internal gateway.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 96
Which parameter, if FALSE, will postpone sending an RDP status query until the information is actually needed?
A. keepalive
B. dns_xlate
C. active_resolver
D. resolver_session_interval
E. resolver_ttl

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 97
You have NOT selected “Encapsulate SecuRemote connections”. A packet will still reach its destination unless destination has an illegal or reserved IP address.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
You are using a 56-bit encryption key called DES. Your client is concerned that us insufficient security. You reconfigure the VPN to use the strongest encryption used by the VPN-1/FireWall-1. Which of the following would you use?
A. 3DES
B. FWZ-1
C. BlowFish
D. RC4
E. CAST

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
Based on the Rule Base, the inspect engine diverts all packets that match this rule to the corresponding Security Server.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
Which of the following describes one of the network conditions that must be satisfied when implementing a SEP configuration?
A. IP pools must be defined and implemented.
B. The Management Server must be installed on a member of the SEP configuration.
C. Manual IPSec encryption cannot be used.
D. Participating SEP gateways must be using a similar Security Policy.
E. State synchronization between the participating gateways.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 101
How do you enable “connection” logging when using SecureClient?
A. Go into the registry and add the key EnableLogging=1.
B. Create a file fwenc.log in the root directory.
C. Select “Enable Logging under options in the tool menu of the SecureClient GUI.
D. Create a file sr.log in the log directory.
E. Create a file sr.log in the root directory.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
The IKE encryption key for SecuRemote connections remains valid by default for:
A. About 15 minutes.
B. About 30 minutes.
C. About 45 minutes.
D. About 60 minutes.
E. The entire remote user operating session.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 103
You are in the process of the setting up a local firewall object. You are installing the Security Policy to update the CA and DH keys. Once you fetch the CA public key you will see a warning message. At this point you should:
A. Select Verify from the options menu.
B. Close the message and verify the key by some non-network means.
C. Re-send to the Certificate Authority to confirm the key.
D. Immediately shut down as your net has been compromised.
E. Restart the firewall to clear the false error.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
If for some reason CPMAD terminates, which of the following commands listed below will restart it?
A. $FWDIR/bin/fwstart
B. $FWDIR/conf/cpmad_start
C. $FWDIR/bin/cpmad_start
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwstart
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
When you have selected Wild Cards as the URI match, which of the following is NOT a valid scheme for URI resources?
A. mailto
B. news
C. WAIS
D. HTTP
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 87
Which of the following statements accurately describes the upgrade_export command?
A. Upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included before exporting.
B. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files directory.
C. Upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the data base revisions prior to upgrading the security Management Server.
D. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server. Upgrade_export stores all object database and the conf directions for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security gateway?
A. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.
B. In Global Properties / Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as none in the track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.
C. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R71 Gateway object.
D. Define two log servers on the R71 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable log rule Base on the second log server. Use Smart Reporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
From the output below, where is the fingerprint generated? ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. SmartUpdate
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartConsole

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Checkpoints Address Translation method?
A. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
B. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both secure and destination IP address translation.
C. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Secure and Destination IUP address translation.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
How can you reset the password of the Security Administrator that was created during initial installation of the security management sever on Secure Platform?
A. Type fwm -a, and provide the existing administrator’s account name. Reset the Security administrator’s password.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the password portion of the file. Then log in to the account without a password You will be prompted to assign a new password.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing administrator’s account name. Reset the Security administrator’s password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and edit the cpconfig administrator.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
Match each of the following command to there correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

ActualTests.com
A. C1>F2, C2>F1, C3>F6, C4>F4
B. C1>F6, C2>F4, C3>F2, C4>F5
C. C1>F2, C4>F4, C3>F1, C4>F5
D. C1>F4, C2>F6, C3>F3, C4>F2

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
Which of the following statement about bridge mode is TRUE?
A. When managing a Security Gateway m Bridge mode. It is possible to use a bridge interlace for Network Address Translation
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the network
C. All ClusterXL modes arc supported
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
Beginning with R71 Software Blades was introduced. One of the Software Blades is the IPS Software Blade as a replacement for Smart Defense. When buyers are upgrading to a bundle, some blades are included, e.g. FW, VPN, IPS in SG103. Which statement is NOT true?
A. The license price includes IPS Updates for the first year.
B. The IPS Software Blade can be used for an unlimited time.
C. There is no need to renew the service contract after one year.
D. After one year, it is mandatory to renew the service contract for the IPS Software Blade ActualTests.com because it has been bundled with the license when perchased.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
What is the desired outcome when running the command op info – z -o cpinfo -out?
A. Send output to a file called cpinfo. out in compressed format
B. Send output to a file called cpinfo. out in usable format for the CP Info View utility IOC.
C. Send output to a file called cpinfo. out without address resolution.
D. Send output to a file called cpinfo. out and provide a screen print at the same time

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 96
Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R71 windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A. SmartView Tracker. CPINFO. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker. SmartDashboard, CPINFO. SmartUpdate, SmartView Status
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer. Real Time Monitor GUI

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
Antivirus protection on a checkpoint gateway is available for all of the following protocols, EXCEPT:
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. TELNET

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
Message digests use which of the following?
A. SHA-1 and MD5
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. DES and RC4

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
Which fw monitor utility would be best to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. An error occurs when editing a network object in SmartDashboard
B. A statically NATed Web server behind a Security Gateway cannot be reached from the Internet
C. You get an invalid ID error in SmartView Tracker for phase 2 IKE key negotiations.
D. A user in the user database is corrupt.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
You have three servers located in DMZ address. You want internal users from 10.10.10×10 to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internet.net 10.10.10xis configured for the NAT behind the security gateway external interface.
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10xusers to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ server public IP address?

ActualTests.com
A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
B. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10xt configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
C. When connecting to internal network 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ servers.
D. When connecting to the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Rule author
B. TCP handshake average duration
C. TCP source port
D. Top used QOS rule

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
If you run fw monitor without any parameters, what does the output display?
A. In /var/adm/monitor. Out
B. On the console
C. In /tmp/log/monitor ?out
D. In / var/log/monitor. out

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 103
Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided: A. By authentication
B. By Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric- key encryption
C. By Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D. Via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 104
As a Security Administrator, you are required to create users for authentication. When you create a user for user authentication, the data is stored in the ___________.
A. SmartUpdate repository
B. User Database
C. Rules Database
D. Objects Database

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 105
Why are certificates preferred over pre-shared keys in an IPsec VPN?
A. Weak scalability: PSKs need to be set on each and every Gateway
B. Weak performance: PSK takes more time to encrypt than Drffie-Hellman
C. Weak security: PSKs can only have 112 bit length.
D. Weak Security. PSK are static and can be brute-forced

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Domain name resolution
B. Overlapping VPN Domains
C. Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
D. Connectivity between the R71 Gateway and LDAP server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
Jeff wanted to upgrade his Security Gateway to R71, but he remembers that he needs to have a contract file from the user centre before he can start the upgrade. If Jeff wants to download the contracts file from the User Center, what is the correct order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select Update Contracts from User Center.
2) Enter your Username for your User Center account.
3) Enter your Password for your User Center account.
4) Click the Browse button to specify the path to your download contracts file.
5) Enter your Username and Password for your Security Gateway.

A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 5, 4
C. 5, 2, 3
D. 1, 2, 3

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, Using an LDAP server.
A. Enable LDAP in Global Properties; configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, a Unit.
B. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 109
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam You have configured automatic static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box Translate destination on client site from global properties Nat. assuming all other settings on all properties are selected, what else must be configured so that a host on internet can initiate an inbound connection to this host.
A. A static route to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway’s internal interface.
B. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway’s external interface.
C. The NAT IP address must be added to the anti-spoofing group of the external gateway interface
D. No extra configuration is needed

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Which VPN Community object is used to configure Hub Mode VPN routing in SmartDashboard?
A. Mesh
B. Star
C. Routed
D. Remote Access

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view the blocked addresses’?
A. Run f wm blockedview.
B. In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C. In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant Security Gateway from the list
D. In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab. and the actively blocked connections displays

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R71 Security Management Server and a new R71 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them. After entering the activation key, the message “Trust established” is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won’t install and interface fetching still does not work. What might be a reason for this?
A. This must be a human error.
B. The Gateway’s time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C. SIC does not function over the network.
D. It always works when the trust is established.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A. Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B. Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C. Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D. Close all GUI clients

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 114
You are installing a Security Management Server Your security plan calls for three administrators for this particular server. How many can you create during installation’?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 115
You are installing your R71Security Gateway. Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A. Crossbeam
B. Solaris
C. Windows
D. IPSO

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 116
A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard connections to the stand-alone installation of R71. After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes. Which of the following change is the most likely cause of the block?
A. A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R71 Gateway.
B. The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C. The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D. The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed ActualTests.com VPN Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection. How is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A. Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B. Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C. Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D. Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A. fw stat
B. cpstat -gw
C. fw ver
D. tw printver

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
What is a Consolidation Policy?
A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.
C. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
D. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 120
What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A. Keep all connections
B. Keep data connections
C. Reset all connections
D. Re-match connections

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 121
Which OPSEC server can be used to prevent users from accessing certain Web sites?
A. LEA
B. AMON
C. UFP
D. CVP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 122
Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys. Which of the following options will end the intruder’s access after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs?
A. Perfect Forward Secrecy
B. SHA1 Hash Completion
C. Phase 3 Key Revocation
D. M05 Hash Completion

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 123
You are trying to save a custom log query in R71 SmartView Tracker, but getting the following error “Could not save ‘query-name’ (Error Database is Read only).
Which of the following is a likely explanation for this?
A. You have read-only rights to the Security Management Server database.
B. You do not have the explicit right to save a custom query in your administrator permission profile under SmartConsole customization
C. You do not have OS write permissions on the local SmartView Tracker PC in order to save the custom query locally
D. Another administrator is currently connected to the Security Management Server with read/write permissions which impacts your ability to save custom log queries to the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
Your company’s Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow the Telnet service to itself from any location. How would you configure authentication on the Gateway? With a:
A. Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on
B. Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900
C. Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on
D. Session Authentication rule

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port_____.
A. 256
B. 80
C. 900
D. 259
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 72
During the installation process of an MDS MLM, the MLM should be configured as a:
A. MDS Container.
B. Primary MLM.
C. VPN-1 NGX Management Server.
D. Comprehensive log server.
E. Primary MDS.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
The General view is the only view in which an Administrator can:
A. Assign a Global Policy to a Customer.
B. View statistics on a remote Security Gateway’s performance.
C. Reboot a remote workstation.
D. Edit the CMA and MDS objects.
E. Execute custom commands.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
When you install a Global Policy on a remote Security Gateway, where can you place the Global Rules within a CMA’s existing Policy?
A. At any point in the CMA Rule Base as defined in the Global Policy SmartDashboard.
B. In the middle of CMA-specific rules.
C. In the implied rules.
D. After CMA-specific rules.
E. In the Stealth rules.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
You are the Provider-1 Administrator for an MSP. You work from home and the MDG is at a remote location NOT inside the NOC. You need the ability to connect from the MDG to the MDS machine protected by the NOC firewall. Consider the NOC firewall Rule Base displayed below. Will this Rule Base allow you remote MDG access to the MDS, and allow the CMAs on the MDS to control the remote Security Gateways?

A. No, the NOC firewall Rule Base should not contain a Stealth Rule.
B. Yes, the Rule Base meets all of the requirements for the scenario presented.
C. No, the Rule Base does not allow the CMAs loaded on the MDS to connect to the remote Gateways.
D. No, the MDG-to-MDS Rule does not have the necessary service to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS.
E. No, the group object representing the CMAs should be in the destination field of the MDG-to-MDS Rule. The MDG can only connect to the individual CMAs loaded on the MDS Container.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Global Objects?
A. A Global Object must have a different IP address than that of the remote module on which it is installed.
B. Global Objects can share names if both the Provider-1 configuration and the remote Security Gateway are at version VPN-1 NGX.
C. Global Objects can only be edited using an ascii text editor.
D. A Global Object cannot share the IP address of the remote module on which the Global Policy is installed.
E. Global Objects cannot share the name of objects included in the Security Policy to which they are assigned.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 78
Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer’s security policies. What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC Security Administrator and the Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
Identify the following Provider-1 configuration: A. Point-of-presence

B. Standard
C. MSP
D. NOC
E. ISP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which of the following types of Communities can be configured as a Global VPN?
A. Site-to-site ring
B. Site-to-site meshed
C. Remote access meshed
D. Dual
E. Remote-access star

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license.
Which of the following commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
Which of the following is NOT required for the configuration of a CLM on an MDS that is installed, configured, and licensed as an MLM?
A. Name of CLM
B. License
C. IP address of associated CMA
D. Selection of MDS in Provider-1 configuration

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Check Point now offers a Provider-1 Enterprise license. How many CMAs may be managed by an MDS with an Enterprise license?
A. 250 to 500
B. Unlimited
C. 3 to 5
D. 200 to 250
E. 1 to 3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?

A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process, which of the following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Which of the following examples are the BEST uses of a Global Policy?
A. Allowing SecureClient access to a specific customer’s VPN Domain.
B. Logging all traffic.
C. Logging all accepted traffic.
D. Controlling connections with a global object to which all remote Customer systems have access, such as an FTP server installed at the MSP.
E. Forcing a specific group of users to authenticate before entering a specific customer’s VPN Domain.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
By default, remote Security Gateways deployed as part of a Provider-1 configuration send their logs to the:
A. Local CLM only.
B. CLM located on the Secondary MDS, which is configured by default when a CMA is created.
C. CMA only.
D. Local firewall and CMA.
E. CLM located on the Primary MDS, which is configured by default when a CMA is created.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
Before the CLM can act as a log repository, which of the following tasks must be performed?
A. A Global Policy must be installed, which includes a rule at the bottom of the Rule Base that sends all logs from any Gateways to the MDS MLM.
B. The Administrator must log directly in to the CLM with the SmartView Tracker and switch the Mode to Active.
C. The user database of the CMA must be installed on the CLM.
D. The Administrator must log directly in to the CLM with the SmartDashboard. The Administrator must then create a Rule Base with a rule allowing logs from the remote Gateway access to the CLM, and a rule allowing the GUI client access to the CLM.
E. The CMA Security Policy must be installed on the CLM.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which of the following actions is NOT possible from the SmartUpdate view?
A. Edit Provider-1 properties.
B. Launch CMA SmartDashboard.
C. Reboot remote workstation.
D. Uninstall a package
E. Get node license and product information from a remote Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
Provider-1 uses which protocol to communicate among MDS machines?
A. FW1_mgmt
B. CPMI
C. CP_mgmt
D. P1_omi
E. P1_mgmt

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
Are Global Objects available for use in the CMA-specific rules from the CMA SmartDashboard?
A. Yes, except objects defined as Externally Managed to the CMA-specific Policy.
B. Yes, except objects defined as Internally Managed to the CMA-specific Policy.
C. Yes, except objects with the VPN-1 Pro or VPN-1 Net options selected in the Check Point Products Installed list.
D. Yes, without restriction.
E. No, Global Objects cannot be used in CMA-specific rules configured by the CMA SmartDashboard.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
Logs can be ___________.
A. Exported to other third-party applications.
B. Analyzed in the System Status view, CMA Data mode.
C. Imported from SmartView Reporter to generate reports in various formats.
D. Sorted to identify users of interest.
E. Analyzed in the System Status view, Customer Data mode.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
Once integrated into a Provider-1 environment, Eventia Reporter maintains a connection to which of the following components?
A. Primary MDS
B. MDS MLM
C. CLM
D. CMA
E. Secondary MDS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
When creating a CMA, is it necessary to license the CMA and the MDS?
A. Yes, but only if the CMA is installed on an MDS Manager machine without an MDS Container.
B. No, the MDS license includes the CMA licenses.
C. Yes, each CMA requires its own license, in addition to the MDS license.
D. Yes, but only if you are configuring CMA-level High Availability.
E. Yes, but only if the MDS is not licensed.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 96
When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning Provider-1?
A. The MDS Manager functions as a firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
B. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system provides a greater level of security, but is not recommended, due to the complicated Security Policies that would be necessary.
C. The Provider-1 environment should be protected by its own CMA.
D. All traffic between Provider-1 modules is encrypted; no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1 system.
E. The Provider-1 environment should be protected by a separately managed firewall.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 98
What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 99
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Global Policies?
A. Every time the Global Policy is assigned, it is installed.
B. Global Policy information stored on the Primary MDS can be configured on the Secondary MDS for management failover in a High Availability configuration.
C. The Global Policy must be assigned and installed during initial MDS installation and configuration.
D. Before the MDG can create a Global Policy, the Provider-1 Administrator must load the Global Policy SmartDashboard package on the MDS machine. This special Policy Editor is available from the Check Point User Center.
E. Before the MDG can create a Global Policy, the Administrator must install the Global Policy SmartDashboard on the MDG machine. This special Policy Editor is available from the Check Point User Center.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
How many Customer Management Add-ons (CMA) can be stored on a Multi Domain Server (MDS) that serves as a MDS Manager with only one network interface for an ISP?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 0
D. 250
E. 300

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
All Security Gateway participating in a Global VPN Community must share the same __________.
A. Log server
B. VPN Configuration
C. Management Server (CMA)
D. User database
E. Legal entity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
When viewing the list of configured Administrators in the Administrators view of the MDG, you notice that there is no Customer assigned to the Customer Superuser Administrator. No specific Customer is indicated because:
A. This Administrator was assigned Read Only permissions to Customer CMAs.
B. The Customer Superuser does not have the ability to edit specific Customer CMAs. This type of Administrator can only monitor the actions of Customer Manager Administrators.
C. The Provider-1 Superuser has locked this Administrator out of the Customer databases.
D. The Customer Superuser has access to all Customer CMAs by default.
E. No Customer has been assigned to this Administrator.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Which of the following commands will mirror the complete functionality of MDS1 to MDS2?
A. mirror MDS1 MDS2
B. mdscmd mirrorcma MDS1 MDS2
C. mdscmd mirrormds MDS2 MDS1
D. mdscmd mirrormds <IP Address of MDS1> <IP Address of MDS2>
E. mdscmd mirrorcma <IP Address of MDS1> <IP Address of MDS2>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
You are a Provider-1 Administrator and have just secured a new contract with a large customer. Your new customer is requesting that its network administrator have access to the customer’s firewall logs. This network administrator will log in remotely from the customer site to view only this company’s firewall logs. When creating a new user for this network administrator in the Provider-1 configuration, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate permission settings to assign?
A. Customer Group Manager
B. Customer Manager
C. Customer Superuser
D. Customer Monitor
E. None

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 105
If a CLM is hosted on a non-MLM type of MDS, which of the following is TRUE?
A. This scenario is impossible. The CLMs cannot be loaded on any other type of MDS.
B. The CLM must be licensed.
C. There is a limit to the number of modules (20) that can log to the CLM.
D. The CLM can only function as a backup log server if the CMA is unreachable.
E. The CLM can function as both a log and management server.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 107
Which command, run from the MDS Manager, will stop a specific CMA?
A. mdscmd stopcustomer <CMA Name>
B. mdsstop <CMA Name>
C. mdscmd fwstop <CMA Name>
D. customer_stop <CMA Name>
E. mdsstop_customer <CMA Name>

Correct Answer: E

Checkpoint 156-815 only advanced and equipped with much more features,it is also not internet dependent,once installed.It enables you to see Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices in a simulated Checkpoint 156-815 exam environment.Working with Checkpoint 156-815 Interactive Testing Engine is like passing an actual Checkpoint 156-815 exam.