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QUESTION 47
When creating a CMA, is it necessary to license the CMA and the MDS?
A. Yes, but only if you configuring CMA-level High Availability
B. No, the MDS license includes the CMA licenses
C. Yes, but only if the CMA is installed on an MDS Manager machine without an MDS container
D. Yes, but only if the MDS is not licensed
E. Yes, each CMA requires its own license, in addition to the MDS license
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 48
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning Provider-1?
A. The MDS Manager functions as a firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers
B. The provider-1 environment should be protected by its own CMA
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system provides a greater level of security, but is not recommended, due to the complicated security policies that would be necessary
D. All traffic between Provider-1 modules is encrypted, no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1 system
E. The Provider-1 environment should be protected by a separately managed firewall

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Manager Machines
B. Multiple MDS container machines
C. The CMA High Availability option selected in the customer properties window
D. The CMA high Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
E. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following directories are required to migrate an existing VPN-1 NG Management Server into Provider-1 NGX?
A. Conf and database directories
B. Conf state and database directories
C. Conf, bin and lib direcotires
D. Conf, state and PCshared conf directories
E. Conf, CPshared conf and CPshared database directories

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which command, run from the MDS Manager, will stop a specific CMA?
A. mdscmd fwstop <CMA Name>
B. mdsstop_customer <CMA Name>
C. mdscmd stopcustomer <CMA Name>
D. mdsstop <CMA Name>
E. customer_stop <CMA Name>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
When you set up administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process, which of the following options is NOT available?
A. Provider Superuser
B. Regular Administrator (None)
C. Provider Manager
D. Customer Manager
E. Customer Superuser
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Exhibit Identity the following provider-1 configuration:

A. MSP
B. Standard
C. ISP
D. NOC
E. Point-of-Preference

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 54
Which of the following action is NOT possible from the SmartUpdate view?
A. Reboot Firewall
B. Edit Provider-1 properties
C. Uninstall a package
D. Get node license and product information from a remote security gateway
E. Execute custom commands

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 55
When creating a CMA, is it necessary to license the CMA and the MDS?
A. No, the MDS license includes the CMA licenses
B. Yes, each CMA requires its own license, in addition to the MDS license
C. Yes, but only if the CMA if installed on an MDS Manager machine without an MDS container
D. Yes, but only if the MDS is not licensed
E. Yes, but only if you are configuring CMA-level High Availability
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
Which of the following Security Policy Components can be part of a Global Security Policy applied to Provider-1 Customer CMAs?
A. Customer-defined objects
B. Security Rules and Customer-defined objects
C. Security Rules
D. Web intelligence settings
E. Security Rules and Web Intelligence settings

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 57
You have created a new Administrator with the permissions set to NONE. What type of permissions does this grant the Administrator?
A. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read/Write Permissions can access all aspects of the Provider-1 configuration, but can only access specifically assigned customers and CMAs with Read only Permissions
B. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read Only permissions can access all aspects of the Provider-1 configuration and specifically assigned customers and CMAs
C. The administrator can log in to the CMA directly using one of the NGX SmartConsoles, but can’t access the MDG
D. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read Only permissions can only access specifically assigned Customers and CMAs and can’t access the MDS contents mode of any MDG view
E. The Administrator is blocked from connecting to the MDG or CMAs. This action can be set for a specified duration of time or an expiration date

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which of the following SmartConsoles CANNOT launch from a CLM?
A. SmartView Status
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartView Monitor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
By default, remote security gateways deployed as part of a Provider-1 configuration send their logs to the:
A. Local firewall and CMA
B. Local CLM only
C. CLM located on the secondary MDS, which is configured by default when a CMA is created
D. CMA only
E. CLM located on the Primary MDS, which is configured by default when a CMA is created
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Global Policies?
A. Global Policy information stored on the Primary MDS can be configured on the Secondary MDS for management failover in a High Availability configuration
B. The Global Policy must be assigned and installed during initial MDS installation and configuration
C. Before the MDG can create a global Policy, the Provider-1 Administrator must load the Global Policy SmartDashboard package on the MDS machine. This special Policy Editor is available from the check point user center
D. Every time the Global Policy is assigned, it is installed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
During the installation process of an MDS MLM, the MLM should be configured as a:
A. VPN-1 NGX Management Server
B. Comprehensive log server
C. MDS Container
D. Primary MDS
E. Primary MLM

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
What utility is a CPMI client that allows an Administrator to add or remove a customer or to use the mirror option to back up MDS information?
A. mdsenv
B. fwmds
C. mdsconfig
D. mdscmd
E. mdsstat

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
When is it necessary to configure an IP Address range on the Secondary MDS?
A. When Selectively backing up a specific CMA from the Primary MDS
B. When configuring the Secondary MDS for Management High Availability
C. When mirroring the Primary MDS to the Secondary MDS
D. When the Secondary MDS is located outside the NOC configuration
E. When configuring the Secondary MDS as an MLM

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
When you install a Global Policy on a remote Security Gateway, Where can you place the Global Rules within a CMA’s existing Policy?
A. In the middle of CMA-specific Rules
B. Before CMA-specific rules
C. In the Stealth Rules
D. In the implied Rules
E. At any Point in the CMA Rule Base as defined in the Global Policy SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Two CMAs can be created for a single customer, for High Availability (HA). Which of these statements is NOT correct for this type of CMA configuration?
A. Administrators make Security Policy changes through the Active CMA only
B. The CMAs must be synchronized to maintain the same information
C. The HA scheme requires one primary CMA and one secondary CMS, housed on different MDS computers
D. If the Active CMA’s data has not recently been synchronized with the Standby CMA, it can no longer be used to replace the Active CMA if fail over occurs
E. Should a CMA fail for any reason, the Standby CMA can continue operation without service interruption

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 71
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Explanation: Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73 How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 75
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. ipsofwd on admin
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. clish -c set routing active enable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
When you change an implicit rule’s order from Last to First in Global Properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway.
B. Select Install Database from the Policy menu.
C. Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Select Save from the File menu.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
How does the button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page retrieve the address?
A. Route Table
B. Address resolution (ARP, RARP)
C. Name resolution (hosts file, DNS, cache)
D. SNMP Get

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Network
B. Security Management object
C. Host
D. Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.
B. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.
C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.
D. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
How can you activate the SNMP daemon on a Check Point Security Management Server?
A. Using the command line, enter snmp_install.
B. Any of these options will work.
C. In SmartDashboard, right-click a Check Point object and select Activate SNMP.
D. From cpconfig, select SNMP extension.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R76 Security Gateway?
A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.
C. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
D. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 45
At ABC Corporation, access to critical information resources, such as database and e-mail servers, is controlled by the information-technology (IT) department. The supervisor in the department grants access to printers where the printer is located. Managers grant and revoke rights to files within their departments’ directories on the file server, but the IT department controls who has access to the directories. Which type of access-management system is in use at ABC Corporation?
A. Centralized access management
B. Role-based access management
C. Hybrid access management
D. Decentralized access management
E. Privileged access management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
A(n) _______ occurs when intrusion-detection measures fail to recognize suspicious traffic or activity.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. CIFS pop-up
D. Threshold
E. Alarm

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
What is single sign-on? An authentication method:
A. that allows users to authenticate once, and then uses tokens or other credentials to manage subsequent authentication attempts
B. that stores user credentials locally, so that users need only authenticate the first time, a local machine is used
C. requiring the use of one-time passwords, so users authenticate only once, with a given set of credentials.
D. that uses smart cards, hardware tokens, and biometrics to authenticate users; also known as three-factor authentication
E. that requires users to re-authenticate for every resource accessed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is NOT a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) recovery strategy?
A. Delegating risk to another entity, such as an insurer
B. Manual procedures; alternative solution to technology available
C. Deferring action; action waiting until a later date
D. Reciprocal agreements with another organization
E. Doing nothing; no action taken to recover the technology

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
____________________ is the state of being correct, or the degree of certainty a person or process can have, that the data in an information asset is correct.
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Authenticity
D. Privacy
E. Availability

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
Distinguish between the role of the data owner and the role of the data custodian. Complete the following sentence. The data owner is the:
A. department in the organization responsible for the data’s physical storage location. The data custodian is anyone who has access the data for any reason.
B. person or entity who accesses/and or manipulates data or information, in the course of assigned duties. The data custodian is a person or process with the appropriate level of privilege to access the data.
C. person or entity ultimately responsible for the security of an information asset. The data custodian is the person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the data owner.
D. person or process that originally creates the information. The data custodian is a role that shifts to any person or process currently accessing the data, and passes to the next person or process to access the data.
E. person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the functional user. The data custodian is a person or process who accesses and/or manipulates the information.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are considering purchasing a VPN solution to protect your organization’s information assets. The solution you are reviewing uses RFC-compliant and open-standards encryption schemes. The vendor has submitted the system to a variety of recognized testing authorities. The vendor does not make the source code available to testing authorities. Does this solution adhere to the secure design principle of open design?
A. No, because the software vendor could have changed the code after testing, which is not verifiable.
B. No, because the software vendor submitted the software to testing authorities only, and did not make the software available to the public for testing.
C. Yes, because the methods were tested by recognized testing authorities, and the source code is protected from vandalism.
D. Yes, because the methods are open, and the system does not rely on the secrecy of its internal mechanisms to provide protection.
E. No, because if a software vendor refuses to reveal the source code for a product, it cannot comply with the open-design principle.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of the following is the BEST method for managing users in an enterprise?
A. Enter user data in a spreadsheet.
B. Implement centralized access control.
C. Deploy Kerberos.
D. Place them in a centralized Lightweight Directory Access Protocol.
E. Use a Domain Name System.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
____________________ educate(s) security administrators and end users about organizations’ security policies.
A. Security-awareness training
B. Information Security (INFOSEC) briefings
C. Acceptable-use policies
D. Continuing education
E. Nondisclosure agreements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Operating-system fingerprinting uses all of the following, EXCEPT ________, to identify a target operating system.
A. Sequence Verifier
B. Initial sequence number
C. Address spoofing
D. Time to Live
E. IP ID field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Organizations _______ risk, when they convince another entity to assume the risk for them.
A. Elevate
B. Assume
C. Deny
D. Transfer
E. Mitigate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
A(n) _______________ is an unintended communication path that can be used to violate a system security policy.
A. Covert channel
B. Integrity axiom
C. Simple rule violation
D. Inferred fact
E. Aggregated data set

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
To protect its information assets, ABC Company purchases a safeguard that costs $60,000. The annual cost to maintain the safeguard is estimated to be $40,000. The aggregate Annualized Loss Expectancy for the risks the safeguard is expected to mitigate is $50,000.
At this rate of return, how long will it take ABC Company to recoup the cost of the safeguard?
A. ABC Company will never recoup the cost of this safeguard.
B. Less than 7 years
C. Less than 3 years
D. Less than 1 year
E. Less than 5 years

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
ABC Corporation’s network requires users to authenticate to cross the border firewall, and before entering restricted segments. Servers containing sensitive information require separate authentication. This is an example of which type of access-control method?
A. Single sign-on
B. Decentralized access control
C. Hybrid access control
D. Layered access control
E. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The items listed below are examples of ___________________ controls.
*Smart cards *Access control lists *Authentication servers *Auditing
A. Role-based
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Physical
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Why does the (ISC)2 access-control systems and methodology functional domain address both the confidentiality and integrity aspects of the Information Security Triad? Access-control systems and methodologies:
A. are required standards in health care and banking.
B. provide redundant systems and data backups.
C. control who is allowed to view and modify information.
D. are academic models not suitable for implementation.
E. set standards for acceptable media-storage devices.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
_______ intrusion-detection systems learn the behavior of a machine or network, and create a baseline.
A. Behavioral analysis
B. Statistical anomaly
C. Network
D. Pattern matching
E. Host

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Which of the following best describes the largest security challenge for Remote Offices/Branch Offices?
A. Leased-line security
B. Salami attacks
C. Unauthorized network connectivity
D. Distributed denial-of-service attacks
E. Secure access to remote organizational resources
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 36
Which of these strategies can be employed to test training effectiveness? (Choose THREE.)
A. Create a survey for managers, to see if participants practice behaviors presented during training.
B. Provide feedback forms for employees to rate instruction and training material, immediately after training has ended.
C. Include auditors before and after the training. This checks to see if the number of security-related incidents is reduced, because of the training.
D. Give incentives to employees who attend security-awareness training. Perform spot-checks, to see if incentives are displayed.
E. Test employees on security concepts several months after training has ended.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 37
_________________ is the process of subjects establishing who they are to an access control.
A. Identification
B. Authentication
C. Authorization
D. Validation
E. Biometrics
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Public servers are typically placed in the _______, to enhance security.
A. Restricted Entry Zone
B. Open Zone
C. Internet Zone
D. Demilitarized Zone
E. Public Entry Zone
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
_______ involves gathering pieces of information and drawing a conclusion, whose sensitivity exceeds any of the individual pieces of information.
A. Inference
B. Social engineering
C. Movement analysis
D. Communication-pattern analysis
E. Aggregation

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
When should procedures be evaluated?
A. When new functional users join an organization
B. On the anniversary of the procedures’ implementation
C. Each time procedures are used
D. Whenever business processes are modified
E. When new exploits and attacks are discovered

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
If e-mail is subject to review by individuals other than the sender and recipient, what should be clearly stated in the organization’s e-mail policy?
A. Technologies and methods used to monitor and enforce the organization’s policies
B. Senior management and business-unit owner responsibilities and delegation options
C. Clear, legally defensible definition of what constitutes a business record
D. Consequences for violation of the organization’s acceptable-use policy
E. No expectation of privacy for e-mail communications, using the organization’s resources

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Which of the following are common failures that should be addressed in an organization’s Business Continuity Plan (BCP) ? (Choose THREE.)
A. Connectivity failures
B. Accounting failures
C. Hardware failures
D. Utility failures
E. Personal failures

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 43
Which TWO of the following items should be accomplished, when interviewing candidates for a position within an organization?
A. Hire an investigation agency to run background checks.
B. Verify all dates of previous employment.
C. Question candidates, using polygraphs.
D. Contact personal and professional references.
E. Run criminal-background checks.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 44
A _______ _______ posture provides many levels of security possibilities, for access control.
A. Layered defensive
B. Multiple offensive
C. Flat defensive
D. Reactive defensive
E. Proactive offensive

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
At ABC Corporation, access to critical information resources, such as database and e-mail servers, is controlled by the information-technology (IT) department. The supervisor in the department grants access to printers where the printer is located. Managers grant and revoke rights to files within their departments’ directories on the file server, but the IT department controls who has access to the directories. Which type of access-management system is in use at ABC Corporation?
A. Centralized access management
B. Role-based access management
C. Hybrid access management
D. Decentralized access management
E. Privileged access management

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 86
Which of the following conditions will cause Secure Client Verification to report that a SecureClient machine is NOT considered secured? (Choose three)
A. The local.svc file is either corrupt or miconfigured.
B. The SecureClient machine cannot contact the SmartCenter Server.
C. The user has selected Disable from the SecureClient Policy menu.
D. There are expired cookies in the machines TMP directory.
E. There is no SCV policy on the SecureClient machine.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 87
Which component of VPN-1/FireWall-1 is used for Content Security to prevent end-user access to specific URLs?
A. UFP Server
B. TACACS Server
C. URI Server
D. CVP Server
E. DEFENDER Server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Which of the following actions does Secure Configuration Verification perform? (Choose three) Secure Configuration Verification confirms that the:
A. Desktop Policy is installed on all client interfaces.
B. TCP/IP is enabled on the desktop.
C. User name and password cached on the desktop are correct.
D. Client’s operating system has the appropriate patch level.
E. IP address of the client is correct for entrance into the VPN Domain.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 89
Dr bill is his organization’s Chief Technology Officer. He is seeking a solution to control the impact if unauthorized software on his corporate network. Dr bill has established the following guidelines for any solution implemented:
1.
Required objective: The solution must not allow access to corporate resources if user’s virus-protection software is not current.

2.
Desired objective: The solution should be able to control protocols enabled on the user’s computers.

3.
Desired objective: The solution should prevent users snooping traffic across internal segments of the corporate network, from acquiring useful information. Dr bill’s Security Administrator proposes SecureClient with Policy Servers, internal Enforcement Modules, and Desktop policies as a solution. Based on the information, which of the following is the BEST answer?
A. The proposed solution does not meet the required objective.
B. The proposed solution meets the required objective, but does not meet the desired objectives.
C. The proposed solution meets the required objective, and only one desired objective.
D. The proposed solution meets the requires objective and both desired objectives.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Which of the following are TRUE about SecureClient? (Choose three)
A. SecureClient cannot use Hybrid IKE for its encryption method.
B. When SecureClient and Enforcement Module exchange keys, the user will be re-authenticated if the password has been erased.
C. Before you attempt to download a Security Policy, you must first define a site in which a Policy Server is contained.
D. SecureClient syntax checking can be used to monitor userc.C file parameters. This checking is used to prevent errors causing the site to which it belongs from being deleted.
E. SecureClient supports Desktop Policies issued by a Policy Server.

Correct Answer: BDE
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QUESTION 80
Which do you configure to give remote access VPN users a local IP address?
A. Office mode IP pool
B. NAT pool
C. Encryption domain pool
D. Authentication pool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
You need to plan the company’s new security system. The company needs a very high level of security and also high performance and high through put for their applications. You need to turn on most of the integrated IPS checks while maintain high throughput. What would be the best solution for this scenario?
A. The IPS does not run when Core XL is enabled
B. You need to buy a strong multi-core machine and run R71 or later on Secure Platform with CoreXL technology enabled.
C. The IPS system does not affect the firewall performance and CoreXL is not needed in this scenario.
D. Bad luck, both together can not be achieved.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
Which can an administrator configure the notification action of a policy install time change?
A. SmartView Tracker I Audit Log
B. SmartView Monitor/ Gateways I Thresholds Settings
C. SmartDashboard / Security Gateway Object I Advanced Properties Tail
D. SmartDashboard / Policy Package Manager

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R71. Prior to upgrading, you want to backup the gateway should there be any problems with the upgrade of the following allows for the gateway configuration to be completely backup into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. Backup ActualTests.com
B. Snapshot
C. Upgrade_export
D. Database_revision

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R71 Security Gateway?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 33 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
C. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.
D. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which R71 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy install?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 45
You have created a new Administrator with the permissions set to NONE.
What type of permissions does this grant the Administrator?
A. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read/Write permissions can access all aspects of the Provider-1 configuration, but can only access specifically assigned Customers and CMAs with Read Only permissions.
B. The Administrator is blocked from connecting to the MDG or CMAs. This action can be set for a specified duration of time or an expiration date.
C. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read Only permissions can access all aspects of the Provider-1 configuration and specifically assigned Customers and CMAs.
D. The Administrator logged in to the MDG with Read Only permissions can only access specifically assigned Customers and CMAs, and cannot access the MDS Contents mode of any MDG view.
E. The Administrator can log in to the CMA directly using one of the NGX SmartConsoles, but cannot access the MDG.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 46
Which of the following examples are the BEST uses of a Global Policy?
A. Not logging specific traffic to reduce the amount of information in the log files.
B. Controlling connections with a global object to which all remote Customer systems have access, such as an FTP server installed at the MSP.
C. Logging all accepted traffic.
D. Forcing a specific group of users to authenticate before entering a specific customer’s VPN Domain.
E. Allowing SecureClient access to a specific customer’s VPN Domain.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which of the following services must be allowed through the NOC firewall to give a remote MDG access to the MDS?
A. CPMI
B. FW1_MGMT
C. CP_GUI
D. TCP_GUI
E. FW1_CPMI

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
To configure cross-Customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
A. Gateway objects
B. Administrator objects
C. Customer objects
D. User Group objects
E. Network objects
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Global Objects?
A. A Global Object must have a different IP address than that of the remote module on which it is installed.
B. A Global Object cannot share the IP address of the remote module on which the Global Policy is installed.
C. Global Objects share object names included in the Security Policy to which they are assigned.
D. Global Objects can only be edited in the Global SmartDashboard.
E. Global Objects can share names if both the Provider-1 configuration and the remote Security Gateway are at version VPN-1 NGX.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
All modules of Provider-1 communicate using CPMI which allows the MDG to communicate with the MDS. CPMI is a generic open protocol that is incorporated into the OPSEC SDK. This allows third party vendors to develop applications that can be integrated into the Provider-1 configuration, and access and control the MDS. Identify a port used by CPMI use to communicate between Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 18186
C. TCP port 264
D. TCP port 18190
E. TCP port 981

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Logging in to the MDG requires your username or Certificate and password. Which of the following is also required?
A. IP address of CMA
B. Default IP address of CMA
C. Resolvable name of Primary MDS
D. Resolvable name of CMA
E. Virtual IP address (VIP) of CMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
After configuring and licensing a backup CMA on a Secondary MDS, what must you do to ensure that the backup CMA can install Policy in the event of a failover?
A. No action is required. When a backup CMA is created for a Customer, the system automatically adjusts the Security Policy of the CMA and the backup to include the backup CMA as a Secondary Management Server.
B. Using the NOC firewall’s SmartDashboard, place the system-created object representing the backup CMA into the list of Masters for the Security Gateway.
C. Using the Primary CMA’s SmartDashboard, place the system-created object representing the backup CMA into the list of Masters for the remote Gateway.
D. From the MDG of the Primary MDS, configure the Customer for which CMA HA is desired. Select the High Availability tab in the Customer Configuration screen. On the High Availability tab, enter name, IP address, and server information for the Primary and Secondary CMA.
E. From the MDG of the Secondary MDS, configure the Customer for which CMA HA is desired. Select the High Availability tab in the Customer Configuration screen. On the High Availability tab, enter name, IP address, and server information for the Primary and Secondary CMA.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Can multiple MDGs connect to a Provider-1 system in Read/Write mode?
A. Yes, if all connect through MDS Manager machines.
B. No, only one MDG at a time can have Read/Write permissions in the Provider-1 system.
C. No, Provider-1 cannot have more than one MDS Manager.
D. Yes, if one MDG is connected to the MDS Manager, and the other MDG is connected to a MDS Container.
E. Yes, only if Administrators connecting though the MDGs have different permission levels.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
When you install a Global Policy on a remote Security Gateway, where can you place the Global Rules within a CMA’s existing Policy?
A. In the Stealth rules.
B. In the implied rules.
C. In the middle of CMA-specific rules.
D. At any point in the CMA Rule Base as defined in the Global Policy SmartDashboard.
E. Before CMA-specific rules.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 55
You are an Administrator who has just hired an assistant Administrator to help manage the NOC and all Customer Security Policies. When creating a new user for your assistant in the Provider-1 configuration, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate permission settings to assign?
A. Customer Superuser
B. Provider-1 Manager
C. Customer Manager
D. None
E. Provider-1 Superuser

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 56
When configuring Global Objects for a Global Policy, which of the following must be unique to the Global Object?
A. Check Point Products Installed option selection
B. Name
C. Name and IP address
D. IP address
E. NAT configuration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
If services other than the predefined global services are needed:
A. They must be imported from a preconfigured CMA Security Policy.
B. They must be imported from a preconfigured Global Policy.
C. They can be specifically defined in the Global SmartDashboard.
D. No action can be taken. Administrators cannot create services not predefined in the Global SmartDashboard.
E. They can be created by editing a default service already included in the Global Policy database and saved under a new name.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which of the following actions is possible from the High Availability view of the MDG?
A. Create a new backup CMA for a Customer with an existing CMA, from the Customer Contents mode.
B. View status of High Availability configuration.
C. Create new MDS machines from the MDS Contents mode.
D. Change the Active/Standby status of CMAs from the Customer Contents mode.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Teri is an Administrator for an ISP in France. Her NOC includes two MDS machines. One is installed and configured as a Manager + Container with 30 Primary CMAs, and the other maintains the 30 backup CMAs for High Availability at both the management and CMA level. Teri wants to schedule her Primary MDS to back up her Global Policy information to the Secondary MDS at midnight every Friday night. Can she configure her Provider-1 system to do this from the Global SmartDashboard of the MDG?
A. Yes, by creating a Time Object for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the At Scheduled Time option in the Management High Availability screen.
B. Yes, by creating a Scheduled Event for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the On Scheduled Event option in the Management High Availability section of the Global Properties screen.
C. No, a specific time cannot be set for this action. The action can only occur when the Global Policy is saved.
D. Yes, by creating a Time Object for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the At Scheduled Time option in the Management High Availability section of the Global Properties screen.
E. Yes, by creating a Scheduled Event for 23:59 on Friday, and by selecting the On Scheduled Event option in the Management High Availability screen.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
How many CMAs can be configured for each Customer on a single MDS?
A. Two, one Primary CMA and one Secondary CMA
B. Depends on configuration: either one Primary CMA and one Secondary CMA, or one Primary CMA and one Customer Log Module
C. Two different Primary CMAs
D. One
E. Unlimited
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
All Security Gateway participating in a Global VPN Community must share the same __________.
A. Log server
B. VPN Configuration
C. Management Server (CMA)
D. User database
E. Legal entity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
When is it necessary to configure an IP address range on the Secondary MDS?
A. When selectively backing up a specific CMA from the Primary MDS
B. When the Secondary MDS is located outside the NOC configuration
C. When mirroring the Primary MDS to the Secondary MDS
D. When configuring the Secondary MDS for Management High Availability
E. When configuring the Secondary MDS as an MLM

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
In Provider-1 NGX, which services are predefined as global services for use in the Global SmartDashboard?
A. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX.
B. None of the services are predefined.
C. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except VOIP related services.
D. Only FireWall-1 control connections are predefined.
E. All services are predefined in VPN-1 NGX, except the required user-defined CPMI service.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
How can a Provider-1 Administrator verify if a specific Administrator made changes to a specific Security Policy?
A. From the Network Objects mode of the General view, right-click the MDS icon on which the CMA resides, and select the Launch SmartView Tracker (Audit Mode) option from the menu.
B. From the CMA Contents mode of the General view, right-click the MDS icon on which the CMA resides, and select the Launch SmartView Tracker (Audit Mode) option from the menu.
C. This action is not possible
D. From the SmartDashboard of the CMA, select the Manage option; select the Audit Mode from the menu that appears.
E. From the SmartDashboard of the CMA, select the View option; select the Audit Mode from the menu that appears.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
The HA CMA bundled license is used to configure:
A. CLM High Availability in a multi-MDS configuration.
B. High Availability between one CMA on the Primary MDS, and one backup on a Secondary MDS.
C. High Availability between two CMAs on the same MDS.
D. High Availability between a CMA and SmartCenter Server.
E. High Availability between a CLM and SmartCenter Server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
For which of the following components in a Provider-1 NGX deployment can a SmartCenter Server be configured as a backup?
A. Primary MDS
B. Primary CMA not backed up by a Secondary CMA
C. Primary MDS and a Secondary CMA
D. MLM
E. Secondary MDS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
How many CMAs can be configured for each Customer?
A. No more than five
B. One Primary and one Secondary
C. Only one
D. Two Primary and two Secondary
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which of the following commands will mirror the complete functionality of MDS1 to MDS2?
A. mirror MDS1 MDS2
B. mdscmd mirrorcma MDS1 MDS2
C. mdscmd mirrormds MDS2 MDS1
D. mdscmd mirrormds <IP Address of MDS1> <IP Address of MDS2>
E. mdscmd mirrorcma <IP Address of MDS1> <IP Address of MDS2>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
When creating a CMA, is it necessary to license the CMA and the MDS?
A. Yes, but only if the CMA is installed on an MDS Manager machine without an MDS Container.
B. No, the MDS license includes the CMA licenses.
C. Yes, each CMA requires its own license, in addition to the MDS license.
D. Yes, but only if you are configuring CMA-level High Availability.
E. Yes, but only if the MDS is not licensed.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
Is it possible to connect directly to the CMA with the SmartDashboard, without the MDG running?
A. Yes, only if the SmartDashboard launched from the MDS is already connected to the CMA.
B. Yes, only if the SmartDashboard launched from the MDG is unable to reach the CMA.
C. No, the SmartDashboard must be launched from the MDG connected to the Primary MDS.
D. Yes, the SmartDashoard can connect directly to the CMA without any involvement from the MDG.
E. Yes, only if the Provider-1 Administrator sets the GUI client properties to include NGX SmartConsole access.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 40
Which of the following types of Communities can be configured as a Global VPN?
A. Site-to-Site star
B. Dual
C. Remote access meshed
D. Site-to-Site ring
E. Remote-Access star

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
To configure cross-customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
A. User Group objects
B. Network objects
C. Administrators objects
D. Gateway objects
E. Customer objects

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Logging in to the MDS requires your username or certificate and password. Which of the following is also required?
A. Resolvable name of Primary MDS
B. IP Address of CMA
C. Resolvable name of CMA
D. Virtual IP Address (VIP) of CMA
E. Default IP Address of CMA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
If a CLM is hosted on a non-MLM type of MDS, which of the following is TRUE?
A. There is a limit to the number of modules (20) that can log to the CLM
B. The CLM can only function as a backup log server if the CMA is unreachable
C. The CLM must be licensed
D. The CLM can function as both a log and management server
E. This scenario is impossible. The CLMs can’t be loaded on any other type of MDS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
To configure cross-customer VPNs, what CMA information must be imported into the Global Security Policy?
A. User Group objects
B. Certificate Authority Objects and Certificates
C. Customer objects
D. Administrator Objects
E. Network Objects

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP Address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
C. Type of MDS and one-time password
D. Type of MDS and IP Address of range for virtual IP Addresses
E. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 40
If you want your customer’s virtual systems to give protected hosts access to and from the internet, which of the following must be configured as a Public IP address?
A. Main IP of the Virtual Switch
B. Default Gateway IP Address of the Virtual Switch
C. Main IP of the Customer’s Virtual System
D. Main IP of the Management Virtual System
E. Default Gateway IP Address of the Management Virtual System
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
When configuring a Warp Link, what is the IP address that appears in the topology properties of the External Virtual Router?
A. Either the IP Address designated as the main IP for the Virtual System to which the link connects; or its Static Network Address Translation IP Address
B. 255.255.255.255
C. Same as the IP Address of the External Virtual Router
D. 0.0.0.0
E. Always the IP address designated as the main IP, for the Virtual System to which the link connects

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
If a VSX Gateway is protecting multiple customer networks behind only one shared interface, the VSX Administrator must either configure _____________ for source-based routing or deploy a VLAN solution.
A. An Internal Virtual Router
B. VSX Gateway High Availability
C. Non-VLAN Interface Trunking
D. VSX Gateway Load Sharing
E. Multiple External Virtual Routers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
When installing the Security Policy of a Management Virtual System (MVS), what objects are available for Policy installation, other than the MVS?
A. All configured Virtual Routers
B. No other object is available for Policy installation
C. All configured Virtual Systems and the External Virtual Router
D. All configured Virtual Systems
E. All configured Virtual Switches

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which of the following is the only interface configured by running sysconfig, during the installation of a VSX Gateway in a single Gateway environment?
A. Synchronization interface
B. Dedicated Customer interface
C. External Interface
D. Management Interface
E. Internal Virtual Route Interface

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Which of the following is the only interface configured by running sysconfig, during the installation of a VSX Gateway in a single Gateway environment?
A. Dedicated Customer interface
B. Synchronization interface
C. Internal Virtual Router Interface
D. External Interface
E. Management Interface

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 46
When deploying a VSX Gateway managed by a Provider-1 MDS, how many Administrators can connect in Read/Write mode to the MDS database simultaneously?
A. One for each CMA
B. Two: One can connect to the Management Virtual System database, while the other connects to the Virtual System database
C. One
D. No more than 25
E. No more than 250

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
You are configuring source-based routing in a VSX Gateway deployment with both External and Internal Virtual Routers. Which of the following functions can’t be configured for the Virtual Systems?
A. Network Address Translation
B. Virtual System clustering
C. Anti-spoofing measures
D. Remote Access VPNs
E. Intranet VPNs

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which of the following interface are configured by running sysconfig, during installation of a VSX Gateway in a High Availability environment?
A. Any Configured VLAN
B. External Interface
C. Synchronization interface
D. Management Interface
E. Dedicated Customer interface

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When configuring a Provider-1 management solution for your VSX Gateway, what is the fewest number of CMAs that must be licensed, for VSX management functionality?
A. 50
B. 25
C. 5
D. 10
E. 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
You need to provide a security layer for an existing core network. You need an inspection module that operates at layer 2, is completely transparent and does not impact the existing IP structure or different control protocols in use. Which of the following virtual devise will perform the kind of inspection you need?
A. External Virtual Router
B. Internal Virtual Router
C. Virtual System in Bridge Mode
D. Virtual Switch
E. Virtual System

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
A Warp Link is a virtual point-to-point connection between a:
A. Virtual Router and a physical interface
B. Virtual System and another Virtual System
C. Virtual System and the management interface
D. Virtual Router and Virtual Switch
E. Virtual Router and Virtual System

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which of the following VSX Gateway components are unique to and NOT shared by each Virtual System?
A. Virtual Router
B. Context Identification Module
C. VSX Management Server
D. VSX Policy Editor
E. VSX Inspection Module

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 53
Which of the following is NOT maintained separately by each Virtual System on a VSX Gateway?
A. State tables
B. Security Policies
C. Configuration parameters
D. Management database
E. Logging Parameters

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
The ___________ is a single-bit flag that indicates that the format of MAC address information is presented in a standard form.
A. Tag Control Information
B. User_Priority
C. VLAN Identifier
D. Tag Protocol Identifier
E. Canonical Format Indicator

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 55
In a VSX Gateway cluster, which of the following objects are available by default as installation targets for the Management Virtual System?
A. Virtual System cluster of each customer
B. External Virtual Switch cluster object
C. Individual Virtual Systems for each Customer’s cluster member
D. Internal Virtual Switch cluster object
E. External Virtual Router cluster object

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 56
Which of the following is a type of VLAN membership?
A. Protocol-based
B. Session-based
C. Port-based
D. Time-based
E. Application-based

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
When configuring Virtual Systems with overlapping IP Addressing, the Virtual Systems must:
A. Be include in a VPN
B. Define VLAN tags
C. Be on the same network
D. Perform Network Address Translation
E. Perform in Bridge Mode

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
When configuration a new Virtual System for your VSX Gateway configuration, what should you do first?
A. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard and create a new Virtual System Object
B. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard and create a new CMA object to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server
C. Add a new Virtual System to the Main Customer, so that the Admin CMA can be used as the Management Server
D. Open the Global SmartDashboard and create a new Virtual System Object
E. Create a new customer and CMA, to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 59
In a Standard VSX configuration, each Virtual System is configured with which of the following interfaces?
A. One leading to the Management Virtual System; and one leading to the External Virtual Router
B. One for the physical interface leading to the protected network and one leading to the management virtual system
C. One leading to the External Virtual Router/Switch and one for the physical interface leading to the protected network
D. One leading to the Management Virtual System and one leading to the Internal Virtual Router/Switch
E. One leading to a router on the External network, and one for the physical interface leading to the protected network
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Which of the following VSX components maintain Layer 3 Connectivity?
A. External Virtual Switch
B. Virtual System in Bridge Moe
C. VLAN Interface
D. Internal Virtual Switch
E. Virtual Router

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 61
What is the term used to describe a port or interface that shares traffic from more than one VLAN?
A. Comprehensive VLAN tag support
B. VLAN riding
C. Frame-Strata enabled
D. Comprehensive Layer-2 label support
E. VLAN trunking

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 62
Bridged Virtual Systems in a cluster monitor which of the following protocols, to fail over a bridged system?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS
C. BPDU
D. STP
E. VTP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
When configuring a new Virtual System for your VSX Gateway configuration, what should you do first?
A. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard and create a new Virtual System object
B. Open the Global SmartDashboard and create a new Virtual System object
C. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard and create a new CMA object to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server
D. Create a new Customer and CMA, to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server
E. Add a new Virtual System to the Main Customer, so that the Admin CMA can be used as the Management Sever

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
When deploying a VSX Gateway managed by a SmartCenter Server, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. VSX Administrators can configure different domains for each Virtual System
B. Multiple Administrators can simultaneously connect to the same databases to manage multiple customers
C. VSX Superuser Administrators can configure granular permissions for each Customer Administrator
D. All Customer objects, rules and users are shred in a single database
E. Each Virtual System has its own unique Certificate Authority

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
Which of the following commands should you run to stop a VSX Gateway Cluster?
A. cphastop
B. cpstop
C. vsxstop
D. vsxhastop
E. vsx cpstop

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
Which of the following VSX Gateway configuration is valid?
A. A shared NIC assigned to different Virtual Systems, with the same IP addresses on the same VLAN
B. A shared NIC assigned to different Virtual Systems, with the same IP address on different VLANs
C. Multiple NICs assigned to different Virtual Systems in Bridge Mode, performing Hide NAT
D. Multiple NICs assigned the same IP addresses, for each Virtual System in the configuration but with different VLAN tags
E. A shared NIC assigned to different Virtual Systems, with different IP addresses on the same VLAN

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
A Virtual Router performs which of the following tasks?
A. Network Address Translation for protected customer networks
B. Security Policy application for protected customer networks
C. Packet inspection for protected customer networks
D. Inter-Virtual System routing
E. Synchronization between VSX Gateways in a cluster

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Which of the following virtual devise will NOT fail over, if its interface fails in a VSX High Availability configuration?
A. Virtual System in Bridge Mode
B. Management Virtual System Interface
C. External Virtual Router
D. Internal Virtual Router
E. Virtual System with VLAN interfaces
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
What is the required to prevent loops in Virtual Systems in a Cluster XL environment?
A. MPLS
B. VRRP
C. BPDU
D. STP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Security Policies enforced by Virtual Systems are applied to ___________ connected to the Virtual IP Stack.
A. Warp Interfaces
B. Warp and Virtual Interfaces
C. All Interfaces
D. Virtual Interfaces
E. Physical Interfaces

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
The External Virtual Router is associated with a dedicated interface. It is considered to be which type of interface?
A. Physical
B. Virtual
C. Symbolic
D. Synchronization
E. Warp

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which of the following MDS types allows you to create and manage a VSX Gateway?
A. MDS Manager station
B. MDS SmartCenter for VSX
C. MDS Container station
D. MDS VSX Integrator
E. MDS MLM

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Which of the following can function as a Management Server for a VSX Gateway?
A. Security Management Portal
B. Check Point Integrity
C. Provider-1 NGX; Multi-Log Monitor
D. VPN-1/Firewall-1 Small Office
E. SmartCenter Server

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 74
When configuring Virtual Switch leading to the internet, which of the following items is required when creating a virtual switch object?
A. Dedicated interface
B. Subnet mask
C. Default Gateway
D. VLAN tag
E. IP Address

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
What is the netmask for each configured Warp Link?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 0.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. Same as the netmask of the default route of the External Virtual Router
E. 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: E

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