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QUESTION 41
Which option can you set in Workgroup Manager for an SMB share point?
A. Mount path
B. Network mounting
C. Access Control Lists
D. Default file permissions
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
The managed Dock Display preference for Mary’s user account is set to Never. This means that no managed Dock Display preference
A. will apply at Mary’s next login
B. will ever apply when Mary logs in
C. that depends upon precedence will apply when Mary logs in
D. that is managed at the user account level will apply at Mary’s next login
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which of these is a feature of an Apple Remote Desktop Task Server?
A. Reviewing reports about a client.
B. Scanning the local network for ARD computers.
C. Scheduling tasks for clients that are currently offline.
D. Turning on powered-down clients using the Lights Out Management protocol.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
You would like to give instructors the ability to perform the Apple Remote Desktop functions of locking and unlocking the screens on computers in a classroom, but you do not want to have the instructors learn to use the Remote Desktop utility. Which of these steps could help you accomplish this goal?
A. Distribute an ARD installation package that includes the tasks and is configured with “sudo” as the default user.
B. Create a Computer List in Remote Desktop and provide an Automator application that contains an ARD workflow to perform the tasks.
C. Use Workgroup Manager to manage the preferences of Remote Desktop for the instructor’s user account, so that only Lock and Unlock are available.
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QUESTION 37
On a clean installation of Mac OS X Server you have enabled weblog service and created a weblog entry for user jsmith. Who can VIEW this jsmith weblog entry?
A. Anyone
B. Any user who has authenticated via qtuser files
C. Any user who has authenticated via Open Directory
D. Any user who has authenticated as jsmith via qtuser files
E. Any user who has authenticated as jsmith via Open Directory
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You should create regular audio podcasts rather than enhanced audio podcasts if you want to maintain compatibility with _________.
A. .Mac
B. any MP3 player
C. iPods that support video
D. the Web service in Mac OS X Server
E. the Weblog service in Mac OS X Server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
You have enabled streaming on port 80 of your streaming server. Which strategy will preserve access to, and prevent conflicts with, the web service running on the same server?
A. Configure the Firewall service to permit RTP and RTSP throughput.
B. Enable NAT on the streaming server, and enter your client computers’ IP addresses.
C. Multihome the server and bind the streaming service to a different IP address than the one used for web services.
D. Create an SDP file that has an alternate port number for the streaming server, and copy the SDP file to the client computers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which XML tag identifies each podcast episode within an rss.xml file?
A. <link>
B. <item>
C. <channel>
D. <description>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
On Mac OS X Server, you can set up one Weblog Server per _________.
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QUESTION 52
Distinguish between the role of the data owner and the role of the data custodian. Complete the following sentence. The data owner is the:
A. department in the organization responsible for the data’s physical storage location. The data custodian is anyone who has access the data for any reason.
B. person or entity who accesses/and or manipulates data or information, in the course of assigned duties. The data custodian is a person or process with the appropriate level of privilege to access the data.
C. person or entity ultimately responsible for the security of an information asset. The data custodian is the person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the data owner.
D. person or process that originally creates the information. The data custodian is a role that shifts to any person or process currently accessing the data, and passes to the next person or process to access the data.
E. person or entity responsible for imposing and enforcing policies and restrictions, dictated by the functional user. The data custodian is a person or process who accesses and/or manipulates the information.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are considering purchasing a VPN solution to protect your organization’s information assets. The solution you are reviewing uses RFC-compliant and open-standards encryption schemes. The vendor has submitted the system to a variety of recognized testing authorities. The vendor does not make the source code available to testing authorities. Does this solution adhere to the secure design principle of open design?
A. No, because the software vendor could have changed the code after testing, which is not verifiable.
B. No, because the software vendor submitted the software to testing authorities only, and did not make the software available to the public for testing.
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QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following should be included in an enterprise Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Choose THREE.)
A. Accidental or intentional data deletion
B. Severe weather disasters
C. Employee terminations
D. Employee administrative leave
E. Minor power outages
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 67
Which type of access management uses information about job duties and positions, to indicate subjects’ clearance levels?
A. Discretionary
B. Role-based
C. Nondiscretionary
D. Hybrid
E. Mandatory
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
When attempting to identify OPSEC indicators, information-security professionals must: (Choose THREE.)
A. Discover the information daily activities yield.
B. Meet with adversaries.
C. Perform business impact analysis surveys.
D. Scrutinize their organizations’ daily activities.
E. Analyze indicators, to determine the information an adversary can glean ?both from routine and nonroutine activities.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
Which of the following can be stored on a workstation? (Choose TWO.)
A. Payroll information
B. Data objects used by many employees
C. Databases
D. Interoffice memo
E. Customer correspondence
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 70
How is bogus information disseminated?
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QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
A(n) _______ occurs when intrusion-detection measures fail to recognize suspicious traffic or activity.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. CIFS pop-up
D. Threshold
E. Alarm
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
What is single sign-on? An authentication method:
A. that allows users to authenticate once, and then uses tokens or other credentials to manage subsequent authentication attempts
B. that stores user credentials locally, so that users need only authenticate the first time, a local machine is used
C. requiring the use of one-time passwords, so users authenticate only once, with a given set of credentials.
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QUESTION 55
A digital signature:
A. Automatically changes shared keys.
B. Uniquely encodes the receiver of the key.
C. Provides a secure key-exchange mechanism over the Internet.
D. Guarantees the authenticity of a message.
E. Decrypts data to its original form.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Dr bill is a Security Administrator who must define a new user for SecuRemote access to his VPN-1/ FireWall-1 VPN Domain. Dr bill has an established Remote Access VPN community for existing SecuRemote users. Dr bill creates a new user and populates the Login Name field. He then saves and installs the Security Policy. When Dr bill attempts a SecuRemote connection using the newly created user, the connection fails. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for the failure?
A. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module does not have a valid license for the new SecuRemote user.
B. Dr bill did not configure Time properties for the new user. New users are restricted to No Time.
C. Dr bill did not define an authentication method or generate a certificate for the new user.
D. The new user was not placed in a group. The All Users group cannot be used for SecuRemote access.
E. Dr bill did not configure the user’s locations. The Any location is not a valid option for SecuRemote users.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Dr bill wants to configure a custom script to launch an application for certain rules. Which of the following should Dr bill configure?
A. SNMP Trap Alert Script
B. Custom scripts cannot be executed through Alert Scripts.
C. Mail Alert Script
D. User-Defined Alert Script
E. Popup Alert Script
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Assume an intruder has succeeded in compromising your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys. Which of the following will end the intruder’s
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QUESTION 61
Which of the following modes allows a client in a load-balanced environment to retain its connection with the same server during a session?
A. Persistent Client Mode
B. Persistent Server Mode
C. Persistent Router Mode
D. Active Server Mode
E. Active Client Mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL) are maintained on the LDAP Server. You have problems when the Server. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would you perform?
A. Check the connectivity.
B. Check the entrust.ini files.
C. Run “fw authgexport -f -f_” from a command line prompt.
D. Use FireWall-1/VPN-1 Resource Hit’s certlist.exe.
E. Create the text file $FWAUTH/conf/loggers and input the public key.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
When configuring MEP, “Enable Backup Gateway for SecuRemote connections” must be selected from what tab of the Properties Setup screen?
A. IP Pool NAT
B. Security Policy
C. Entry Point
D. High Availability
E. Security Servers
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
What interface should be resolvable to the firewall module’s real host name when dealing with a SEP configuration?
A. DMZ Interface
B. Secure (Control) Interface
C. External Interface
D. Virtual Interface
E. Internal Interface
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
State synchronization should be used with the _______ High Availability configuration.
A. Single Entry Point
B. Dual Entry Point
C. Tandem Entry
D. Collateral Entry
E. Synchronized Entry
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
When describing encryption domain, a PROPER SUBSET implies that:
A. Gateway encryption domainsare identical.
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QUESTION 87
Which of the following statements accurately describes the upgrade_export command?
A. Upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included before exporting.
B. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files directory.
C. Upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the data base revisions prior to upgrading the security Management Server.
D. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server. Upgrade_export stores all object database and the conf directions for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security gateway?
A. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.
B. In Global Properties / Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as none in the track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.
C. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R71 Gateway object.
D. Define two log servers on the R71 Gateway object. Enable Log Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable log rule Base on the second log server. Use Smart Reporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
From the output below, where is the fingerprint generated? ActualTests.com
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A. SmartUpdate
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartConsole
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which of the following statements BEST describesCheck Point’s
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QUESTION 56
What does the command “IP ARP synchronize” do in a vPC configuration?
A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes
B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary
C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored
D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?
A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?
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QUESTION 72
During the installation process of an MDS MLM, the MLM should be configured as a:
A. MDS Container.
B. Primary MLM.
C. VPN-1 NGX Management Server.
D. Comprehensive log server.
E. Primary MDS.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
The General view is the only view in which an Administrator can:
A. Assign a Global Policy to a Customer.
B. View statistics on a remote Security Gateway’s performance.
C. Reboot a remote workstation.
D. Edit the CMA and MDS objects.
E. Execute custom commands.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
When you install a Global Policy on a remote Security Gateway, where can you place the Global Rules within a CMA’s existing Policy?
A. At any point in the CMA Rule Base as defined in the Global Policy SmartDashboard.
B. In the middle of CMA-specific rules.
C. In the implied rules.
D. After CMA-specific rules.
E. In the Stealth rules.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
You are the Provider-1 Administrator for an MSP. You work from home and the MDG is at a remote location NOT inside the NOC. You need the ability to connect from the MDG to the MDS machine protected by the NOC firewall. Consider the NOC firewall Rule Base displayed below. Will this Rule Base allow you remote MDG access to the MDS, and allow the CMAs on the MDS to control the remote Security Gateways?
A. No, the NOC firewall Rule Base should not contain a Stealth Rule.
B. Yes, the Rule Base meets all of the requirements for the scenario presented.
C. No, the Rule Base does not allow the CMAs loaded on the MDS to connect to the remote Gateways.
D. No, the MDG-to-MDS Rule does not have the necessary service to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS.
E. No, the group object representing the CMAs should be in the destination field of the MDG-to-MDS Rule. The MDG can only connect to the individual CMAsloaded on the MDS Container.
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