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Question No : 1
Which of the following statements is most accurate about PRPC portals? (Choose One)
A. PRPC provides standard Case Manager and Case Worker portals, which can be customized
B. PRPC provides standard portals only for Case Managers
C. PRPC does not provide standard portals for Case Management
D. PRPC provides standard Case Manager and Case Worker portals , which cannot be customized

Answer: A
Question No : 2
Which of the following cannot be used as a direct source for Repeating Grids? (Choose One)
A. Page lists
B. Page Groups
C. Report Definition
D. Data Table

Answer: D
Question No : 3
Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding Smart Layouts? (Choose One)
A. Smart Layouts are useful in aligning the UI fields
B. Smart Layout widths can be changed in the branding wizard
C. Smart Layout widths can be changed in a section rule
D. Smart Layouts can be converted to free form layouts

Answer: C
Question No : 4
Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding sections? (Choose One)
A. A harness requires at least one section
B. A flow action can reference only one section in its layout
C. A layout can be converted into a section
D. When including a section, it must be in the same class as its container

Answer: D
Question No : 5
Where does the label “Create Quick Correspondence” come from? (Choose One)
A. Set on the Assignment shape on the flow
B. Set by the short description of the flow action
C. Set by the usage on the history tab of the flow action
D. Is the name of the flow action rule

Answer: B
Question No : 6
Assuming all other factors equal, which flow action will be available to the most operators?

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1.A
client has purchased a Flex System with a Flex System Manager (FSM) and a p260 node. Which of the following is the most cost-effective procedure to install the VIO server?

A.
Engage Lab Services to complete the installation

B.
Use the external USB DVD RAM that IBM delivers with a Flex System

C.
Copy the VIO ISO images onto the FSM and use the installios command

D.
Launch the Remote Control from the FSM and remote mount the VIO ISO images from your workstation Answer: C
2.A client requires the following management functions of their PureFlex environment:

Which management function is used to execute these tasks?
A. IBM PowerSC
B. IBM SmartCloud Entry
C. IBM Flex System Manager
D. IBM Chassis Management Module Answer: C
3.A
client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?

A.
FSM

B.
BIOS upgrade

C.
Chassis Manager

D.
Flex Node Interface GUI Answer: A
4.The client seeks to reduce cost and complexity in a highly virtualized x86 environment. They want the
network policies to migrate automatically along with mobile virtual machines to ensure that security,
performance and access remains intact as virtual machines move from server to server. VMware is their
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QUESTION 86
Which action will preview audio in the Work Area?
A. pressing the spacebar on the keyboard
B. pressing Shift + 0 on the numeric keypad
C. pressing the Enter key on the numeric keypad
D. pressing Alt + the period key (Windows) or Option + the period key (Mac OS) on the numeric keypad

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
You are using the Motion Tracking feature of After Effects and are setting the search region to track the movement of a specific feature in the footage.
Which should you use to determine the size of the search region?
A. speed of movement in the entire shot
B. changes of direction throughout the entire shot
C. total movement of the feature throughout the entire shot
D. frame to frame movement of the feature throughout the shot

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 88
You have added additional track points to motion footage by using the New Track Point option in the Tracker Controls palette options menu. Which feature or command can make use of the additional Track Point data?
A. expressions
B. Track Type > Stabilize
C. Track Type > Perspective corner pin
D. position keyframes set by the Track Motion button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
Which effects can you apply to a tracked location using the Motion Tracker?
A. keying effects
B. effects with rotation properties
C. effects with position properties
D. effects with text or number properties

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
Which defines the area in the footage to be tracked when using the Motion Tracking feature?
A. track point
B. attach point
C. search region
D. feature region

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 91
Which Vector Paint playback mode displays strokes painted at the current frame and surrounding few frames?

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QUESTION 86
You have selected the Fall Leaf brush, but you would like to change the color of a path of leaves. Which two methods could you use? (Choose two.)
A. choose Filter > Colors > Adjust Colors
B. select the path and change the fill color
C. select the path and change the stroke color
D. select the path and double click on the Fall Leaf scatter brush; change the colorization to Tints
E. select the path and double click on the Fall Leaf scatter brush; change the colorization to Hue Shift

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 87
Click the Exhibit button.
You have placed the selection tool over an object resulting in the selection cursor symbol changing to the
one displayed in the exhibit.
What does this symbol indicate?
A. The selection tool is over a selected object or group.
B. The selection tool is over an unselected object or group.
C. The selection tool is over an anchor point on a selected object.
D. The selection tool is over an anchor point on an unselected object.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
You have applied a shape mode to selected objects. How should you restore the objects to their original appearance?
A. click Add to Shape Area in the Pathfinder palette
B. click Subtract from Shape Area in the Pathfinder palette
C. choose Expand Compound Shape from the Pathfinder palette menu
D. choose Release Compound Shape from the Pathfinder palette menu

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Which statement describes modifications resulting from applying a filter or an effect?
A. Filter menu commands change the underlying object instead of just its appearance.
B. Effects menu commands change the underlying object instead of just itsappearance.

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QUESTION 1
What is the recommended minimum hard-drive size for a virtual instance of Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. 80 GB
B. 90 GB
C. 160 GB
D. 180 GB

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the recommended minimum hard-drive size for a virtual instance of Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. 80 GB
B. 90 GB
C. 160 GB
D. 180 GB

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What are two installation options for Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5? (Select two.)
A. upgrade from Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0.3
B. enable autoupdate in LiveUpdate settings
C. upgrade from Symantec Mail Security for SMTP (SMS-SMTP) 8.0.3
D. OSRestore using the downloadable VMWare OVF template
E. OSRestore from the Symantec BrightmailGateway 10.5CD

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by which two features? (Select two.)
A. rapid release definitions
B. real-time updates
C. DKIM signing
D. SMTP authentication
E. hourly quarantine expunging
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5
Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?
A. Symantec 2950 series appliances
B. Symantec 3570 series appliances
C. Symantec 7100 series appliances
D. Symantec 8300 series appliances
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which two are functions of a Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 scanner? (Select two.)
A. provides quarantine storage for messages
B. downloads virus definitions
C. hosts a web server
D. filters the message stream
E. runs expunger agents for the quarantine

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of incident folders that may be created in Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5?

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QUESTION 1
You are turning on the quota on a file system for the first time. You want to ensure you are able to establish quota for a group of users named finance.
What should you do?
A. Create a file named quota and assign it to the finance group.
B. Create a file named quota and place it in the root directory of the file system.
C. Create a file named quota.grp and assign it to the group of users.
D. Create a file named quota.grp that is owned by the root of the file system.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which user store is essential for using the user risk summary feature?
A. Tomcat
B. Active Directory
C. MySQL
D. Samba

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
When you are mounting a file system, which mode sets the policy for handling I/O errors on mounted file system?
A. disable
B. ioerror
C. cio
D. minicache

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the model.notification.port file on a detection server

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 6
What is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data LossPrevention for Mobile Prevent?

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QUESTION 46
Which three options can you enable on a site by site basis in server Admin?___________(Choose all that apply)
A. WebDAV
B. CGI execution
C. Performance cache
D. QuickTime streaming
E. Chellenge-response authentication
F. Allow document MIME type change

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 47
You are currently in the same directory as a file called file 1? To view this file’s contents from the command line you can type_____________. Choose all that apply.
A. Cat file 1
B. Cat file\1
C. Cat file \1
D. Cat file\ 1
E. Cat file 1\
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 48
Web Mail____________-(choose all that apply)
A. is a POP client
B. is an IMAP client
C. is based on SquirrelMail
D. does not have its own SMTP server
E. is configured in the Mail services settings in Server Admin
F. is used to administer the mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.3
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 49
How do you boot a Mac OS X v10.3 computer in single-user mode?

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QUESTION 117
Regarding constructing a good encryption algorithm, what does creating an avalanche effect indicate?
A. Changing only a few bits of a plain-text message causes the ciphertext to be completely different.
B. Changing only a few bits of a ciphertext message causes the plain text to be completely different.
C. Altering the key length causes the plain text to be completely different.
D. Altering the key length causes the ciphertext to be completely different.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 118
With the increasing development of network, various network attacks appear. Which statement best describes the relationships between the attack method and the result?

A. Ping Sweep – TIS1 and TIS3 Port Scan – TIS2, TIS4 and TIS5
B. Ping Sweep – TIS2 and TIS4 Port Scan – TIS1, TIS3 and TIS5
C. Ping Sweep – TIS1 and TIS5 Port Scan – TIS2, TIS3 and TIS4
D. Ping Sweep – TIS2 and TIS3 Port Scan – TIS1, TIS4 and TIS5

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 119
Stream ciphers run on which of the following?
A. Individual blocks, one at a time, with the transformations varying during the encryption
B. Individual digits, one at a time, with the transformations varying during the encryption
C. Fixed-length groups of digits called blocks
D. Fixed-length groups of bits called blocks

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 120
Which description is true about ECB mode?
A. ECB mode uses the same 64-bit key to serially encrypt each 56-bit plain-text block.
B. In ECB mode, each 56-bit plain-text block is exclusive ORed (XORed) bitwise with the previous ciphertext block.
C. ECB mode uses the same 56-bit key to serially encrypt each 64-bit plain-text block.
D. In ECB mode, each 64-bit plain-text block is exclusive ORed (XORed) bitwise with the previousciphertext block.

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QUESTION 117
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:

RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using
200.200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following: Original source – groupobject; Destination -any; Service – any; Translated source – 200.200.200.5; Destination – original; Service – original.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.
B. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.
C. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
D. Routing isnot configured correctly.

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QUESTION 1
Where does an IP phone obtain the extension number and speed-dial settings from?
A. the settings that are configured on the physical phone
B. the registration file that the phone receives from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. the device and line configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, during the registration process
D. the default device profile that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications, Manager

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which web-based application that is accessed via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration GUI generates reports for troubleshooting or inspecting cluster data?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability alarms
B. Cisco Unified RTMT Trace and Log Central
C. Cisco Unified RTMT Monitor
D. Cisco Unified Reporting tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which statement about device mobility is true?
A. When local route groups are used, there is no need to configure device mobility groups or phone device CSSs as long as phone line CSSs are used.
B. When local route groups are used, you must configure device mobility groups and phone device CSSs.
C. When the device mobility group at the home device pool and roaming device pool are not the same, the Phone will keep the home region.
D. When device mobility groups at the home device pool and roaming device pool are the same, the phone will keep the home MRGL setting. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Refer to the SDI trace in the exhibit A PSTN call arrived at the MGCP gateway that is shown in the SDI trace. If the caller ID that is displayed on the IP phone is 087071 222 and the HQ_clng pty_CSS contains the HQ_cing_pty_Pt partition, which exhibit showsthe correct gateway digit manipulation”?

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