[100% Pass Exam Dumps From Google Drive] Easy Cisco ICND1 v3.0 100-105 Dumps Exam Learning Mode 2017 Practice Test Questions on Vimeo for The Cisco Learning Network

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 309

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 20
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different
subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 22
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 23
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the
routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 24
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan

D. restrict
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 25
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 26
Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
100-105 vce 
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 27
Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource
management is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented,
regularly reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 28
Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
100-105 exam 
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 29
Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 30
What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
100-105 dumps 
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 32
Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of
so doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
100-105 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 34
Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries
cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
100-105 vce 
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 35
The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organization, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful
strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organization in meeting its
team objectives
B. Familiarize yourself with the goals and objectives of other organizations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organizations and within the support industry and your
communities
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 36
You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk
currently operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action
should you undertake to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
100-105 dumps 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 810-502
Exam Name: Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction – Written Exam
Updated: Jun 20, 2017
Q&As: 112
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/810-502.html

Pass4itsure 810-502 Dumps Section 1 – Architecture and Planning (26%)
Demonstrate knowledge of the core engines for CE, PE, WPXT and CSS
Demonstrate knowledge of Content Manager scalability concepts
Demonstrate knowledge of high-availability concepts
Demonstrate knowledge of disaster recovery concepts
Demonstrate knowledge of prerequisite tasks and use of installation/upgrade worksheet
Demonstrate and understanding of a Content Engine domain
Demonstrate knowledge of platform communications (core engines and infrastructure components)
Demonstrate knowledge of the APIs and available transports available
Demonstrate basic knowledge of P8 dependencies to directory servers, database servers and storage devices

810-502

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 810-512 DUMPS EXAM Q&AS

QUESTION 28
You are installing HCM for managing Brocade HBAs. What are two ways to do this? (Choose two)
A. on the Brocade switch where the HBA connects
B. on the principal switch in the fabric
C. on the DCFM host
D. on the server where the HBA is installed
810-502 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 29
An administrator wants to display logged in devices and upgrade the firmware of a Brocade 825 HBA. What are three ways to perform these tasks? (Choose three.)
A. Use bcu on the server with the HBA.
B. Launch Web Tools on the server with the HBA.
C. Launch HCM GUI on the server with the HBA.
D. Right-click on the HBA in the DCFM connectivity map and select Element Manager.
E. Start a telnet session to the switch connected to any HBA FC port, and use in-band device management

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 30
You must provide end-to-end performance monitoring and historical. What can provide this information?
A. DCFM
B. Top Talkers
C. portperfshow
D. SNMPv3
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which class of service uses end-to-end credits for flow control?
“A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 15 Brocade 143-410 Exam

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class F

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You have two separate fabrics in the same data center and you would like to share data between the server in one fabric and the storage in another fabric.
Which type of port would you use to allow the server to see the storage without merging the two fabrics?
A. M_Port
B. E_Port
C. EX_Port
D. VE_Port

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Which well-known address is used to register for state change notifications?
A. FFFFFB
B. FFFFFC
C. FFFFFD
D. FFFFFE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Which port types are represented by the numbers in the exhibit? <img src=”143-410-17_3.jpg” width=”600″ height=”479″>
A. 1 =N_Port; 2=F_Port; 3=E_Port; 4=N_Port
B. 1=F_Port;2=E_Port; 3=E_Port, 4=F_Port
C. 1 =N_Port; 2=E_Port 3=F_Port, 4=N_Port
D. 1 =F_Port; 2=F_Port; 3=E_Port, 4=F_Port

810-502 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which port type is used by online FC-attached storage?
A. E_Port
B. EX_Port
C. F_Port
D. U_Port

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which three components should be known when configuring a port for extended fabric?
A. average frame size
B. link speed
C. link distance
D. maximum frame size
E. link attenuation

810-502 dumps Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 37
The well-known address for the Management Server is FFFFFA. How many bits are in this reserved address?
A. 8
B. 24
C. 32 “A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 18 Brocade 143-410 Exam

D. 48
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
What is the default port state on a switch before a device is plugged into it?
A. G_Port
B. U_Port
C. F_Port
D. N_Port

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Which ISL will become the principal when there are multiple ISLs available?
A. the one with the highest deskew
B. the first to respond to the connection request
C. the one with the highest metric value
D. the one with the lowest link cost

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
What will the principal switch do if a new switch attempts to join a fabric with a duplicate domain ID with the insistent domain ID set to -no”?
A. Segment the Inter-Switch Link.
B. Assign the incoming switch a different domain ID.
C. Merge the switch configurations.
D. Initiate the selection of a new principal switch.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which two statements should the buffer-to-buffer credit flow model are true? (Choose two)
A. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is implemented to limit the amount of data that a port may send.
B. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control isflow control between adjacent ports in the I/O path.
C. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is dependent on the use ofARBs to manage data flow.
D. Buffer-to-buffer credit flow control is dependent on the use ofIDLs to manage data flow.

810-502 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 42
What are three uses of the last byte in a 24-bit Fibre Channel address specific to a Brocade switch? (Choose three)
A. public loop
B. shared area
C. domain ID
D. NPIV
E. routed fabric “A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 20 Brocade 143-410 Exam
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 43
Which two commands will display device PIDs on a Brocade switch? (Choose two)
A. nsallshow
B. cfgshow
C. nscamshow
D. pdshow
810-502 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 44
Which port is the FCIP equivalent of an E_port?
A. N_Port
B. EX_Port
C. G_Port
D. VE_Port
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Which Fibre Channel well-known address service records the port and node attributes?
“A Composite Solution With Just One Click” – Certification Guaranteed 21 Brocade 143-410 Exam
A. FFFFFC
B. FFFFFD
C. FFFFFE
D. FFFFFA
Correct Answer: A

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Up To Date Cisco 600-510 Dumps Yumpu Free Download 2017: Developing with Network Programmability

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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
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20% 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements

1.1 Gather requirements

  • 1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements

1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities

  • 1.2.a Apply different API models
  • 1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
  • 1.2.b (i) Controller-based
  • 1.2.b (ii) Device-centric API (distributed)

1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)

  • 1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies

1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications

  • 1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work

1.5 Document application/networking touch points

  • 1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

600-510

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 600-510 DUMPS EXAM Q&AS  

QUESTION 11
A developer is creating a process that will be a participant in an ebXML B2B conversation. Which control or node can be used to receive the first message in a conversation?
A. A TPM control
B. An ebXML control
C. A RosettaNet control
D. A Client Request node
E. An Application View control

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Certkiller .com Communications, the nation’s second leading cable TV provider, plans to provide application integration with an existing program directory. Certkiller .com will automate the service and sell it to subscribers. To make this subscriber service as dynamic as possible, Certkiller .com has a business requirement that the service functionality can be changed later, without having to change client applications. Which is the best way to accomplish this?
A. A loosely-coupled Message-driven EJB
B. A Message Broker control that all client applications subscribe to
C. An asynchronous Web service that uses the Dynamic Invocation Interface (DII) or dynamic proxy interfaces
D. A synchronous Web service that uses DII or dynamic proxy interfaces
E. Automated distribution of a generated stub

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The Olivari Group, an electronic-components broker, has a business requirement to exchange complex business documents with suppliers and brokers. It currently uses some sophisticated manual processes for exchanging information; its goal is to automate the processes as much as possible, to free its employees to focus on more meaningful tasks. The Olivari Group wants to use well-defined, industry-standard partner interface processes. Which protocol would be the best choice?
A. ebXML
B. An asynchronous message broker control
C. RosettaNet
D. SOAP 1.2 with attachments
E. Open Collaborate

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In the exhibit, consider the following snippet of a UML activity diagram.

What is the best way to implement the Notify Customer Service Agent task?
A. Create a Message Broker Publish control that sends a message to a customer service role.
B. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a customer service role.
C. Create a Message Broker Subscribe control receiving messages from the process for the customer service role.
D. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a specific customer service agent.
E. Create a Task control assigned to a specific customer service agent.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
A Client Request node is configured to validate its input with this XML Schema:
<xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema” targetNamespace=”http://openuri.org”>
<xs:element name=”item”>
<xs:complexType>
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name=”title” type=”xs:string”/>
<xs:element name=”code” type=”xs:string”/>
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
</xs:element>
</xs:schema>
Why does the following XML document fail validation by the Client Request node? <item xmlns=”http://
openuri.org”>
<title>MoserDozer</title>
<code>3A98-193SA-SF</code>
</item>

A. The document that is sent as an argument is not well-formed.
B. The <schema> element defaults the elementFormDefault attribute to unqualified.
C. The document that is sent as an argument requires the addition of the line xmlns:tns=”http:// openuri.org”.
D. The document that is sent as an argument must specify which schema to use for validation.
E. The document that is sent as an argument must set the targetNamespace, as the schema does.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Field Occurrence option should the developer select for the emailAddress field?
A. Once
B. Repeat Delimiter (followed by a text box)
C. Repeat Field (followed by a pull-down menu)
D. Repeat Number (followed by a text box)
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Group Delimiter option should the developer select for the emailAddresses group?
A. None
B. Delimiter Field, with delimiter shared
C. Delimiter Field, with delimiter NOT shared
D. A or B
E. A or C
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to an Event Choice node?
A. A maximum of one branch of an Event Choice node is executed; any number of branches of a Parallel node can be executed.
B. An Event Choice node can have only two branches; a Parallel node can have an unlimited number of branches.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
D. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
E. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Exhibit:

While creating a For Each node, a developer is shown the following schema representation in WebLogic
Workshop:
Which statement is false?

A. quoteRequest is an element.
B. zip is a child element of shipAddress.
C. The question marks imply optional (as opposed to mandatory) status.
D. widgetRequest is a valid repeating element over which the For Each node can iterate.
E. A maximum number of occurrences of widgetRequest can be specified in the schema.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A developer creates a Perform node, as shown in the exhibit.

Which is the generated Java method?
A. public void perform() { }
B. public boolean perform() { }
C. static public boolean perform() { }
D. public void perform() throws Exception { }
E. public boolean perform() throws Exception { }

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A developer creates a Message Broker Publish control to publish messages to the channel that is specified
by this channel file:
<channels xmlns=”http://www.bea.com/wli/broker/channelfile” channelPrefix=”/B2B”
xmlns:req=”http://www.example.org/request”>
<channel name=”xml” messageType=”none”>
<channel name=”qrChannel” messageType=”xml”
qualifiedMessageType=”req:quoteRequest”/>
</channel>
</channels>
What is the resulting name of the corresponding channel, from the viewpoint of the control?

A. B2B:qrChannel
B. /B2B/qrChannel
C. /B2B/xml/qrChannel
D. t3://www.example.org/request/B2B/qrChannel
E. http://www.example.org/request/B2B/xml/qrChannel

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Consider this code fragment: /**
*
@jc:task
*/
public interface ApprovalCtrl extends TaskControl, com.bea.control.ControlExtension
{
/**
*
@jc:task-create
*
name=”{name}”
*
@jc:task-update
*
request={xml}
*/
public String certkiller(String name, XmlObject xml); Which statement about the method Certkiller is
correct?
A.
Certkiller is a wrapper method.
B.
Certkiller is a custom query method.
C.
Certkiller is a custom callback method.
D.
The extension for this source file must be .dtf
E.
Certkiller has better type safety than the standard operations.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Consider this process diagram in the exhibit.

The timer timeout is set to 5 s and repeats-every is set to 15 s. What happens during execution of this
process?
A. The process instance completes in just over 5 seconds.
B. The process instance completes in just over 10 seconds.
C. The process instance completes in just over 15 seconds.
D. The process instance completes in just over 20 seconds.
E. The process instance does not successfully complete; it blocks indefinitely.

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 61
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1.1 Describe common server types and connectivity found in a data center
1.2 Describe the physical components of the Cisco UCS
1.3 Describe the concepts and benefits of Cisco UCS hardware abstraction
1.4 Perform basic Cisco UCS configuration
1.4.a Cluster high availability
1.4.b Port roles
1.4.c Hardware discovery
1.5 Describe server virtualization concepts and benefits
1.5.a Hypervisors
1.5.b Virtual switches
1.5.c Shared storage
1.5.d Virtual Machine components
1.5.e Virtual Machine Manager

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As    

QUESTION 34
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
16 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
View the Server group screen shot above.

A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?
17 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam
A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.

A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius
attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role.
What statements below are correct?

A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 40
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.
A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap ap mesh-radio-profile ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile ap-system-profile virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile ap-system profile aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile wlan ssid-profile virtual-ap profile

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role
B. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile
C. A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile
D. An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands: Vlan 55 Vlan 56 Vlan 57 Interface gigabitethernet 1/0 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk native vlan 55 switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57 Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged 20 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 45
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

21 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
22
Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned

Correct Answer: B

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  • 100-101 – CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices 1 (ICND1)
  • 200-101 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2)
  • 200-120 – Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
  • 200-125 – CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
  • 640-553 – IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security
  • 640-721 – Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (IUWNE)
  • 640-760 – Supporting Cisco Service Provider IP NGN Operations (SSPO)
  • 640-801 – Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 247
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Topics % Exam Content
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 10%
Layer 3 Technologies 40%
VPN Technologies 10%
Infrastructure Security 10%
Infrastructure Services 20%

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QUESTION 33
Which type of BlackBerry Enterprise Server database permission is required for a BlackBerry MVS software installation? (Choose one.)
A. db_datawriter
B. db_datareader
C. db_accessadmin
D. db_ddladmin
E. db_owner

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which three user settings can be used to determine if the BlackBerry device will ring for an incoming BlackBerry MVS call? (Choose three.)
A. Call direction
B. Call scheduling
C. Line Preference
D. Allowed caller list
E. Unknown caller

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

QUESTION 35
Which two statements describe a template? (Choose two.)
A. Templates are used to define the configuration properties of new BlackBerry MVS user accounts
B. Changes to templates affect settings for both new user accounts and existing user accounts
C. Templates are used to configure Wi-Fi Profile Control settings
D. Templates can be used to set default Caller Restriction settings

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 36
When wireless data coverage is lost during a BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile call, what are DTMF tones used for? (Choose one.)
A. Switch to standby BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
B. Associate to a different Wi-Fi network
C. Send email messages
D. Send call control requests
E. Send logging information to the BlackBerry MVS administrator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which four factors should be considered and implemented with the Wi-Fi infrastructure vendor to ensure an optimal Voice over Wi-Fi experience? (Choose four.)  300-101 practice test
A. Thorough and detailed Wi-Fi site survey
B. Deploying end-to-endQoS
C. Wi-Fi protected voice setup
D. 802.11d
E. Separate voice VLAN
F. AP controller architecture
Correct Answer: ABEF

 

 

QUESTION 38

If a plus sign is part of the number dialed from a BlackBerry device when making a call, which BlackBerry MVS administrative feature can be used to remove the plus sign (+)? (Choose one.)
A. Smart dialing
B. Number translation
C. Class of service
D. Templates
E. Dial plan manipulation

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 39
Which two security features are available with BlackBerry MVS 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. AES encryption
B. Peer-to-Peer encryption
C. Call and Diagnostic Logging
D. Authentication of BlackBerry MVS users
E. S/MIME encryption

Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 40
Which three codecs are supported by the BlackBerry MVS Client for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose three.)
A. AMR
B. G.711 A-law
C. G.711 ?lawG.711 ?-law
D. G.722
E. G.729
F. WPA2

Correct Answer: BCE

 

 

QUESTION 41
A single BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance can be associated with how many BlackBerry MVS Session Managers? (Choose one.)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 42
What must an organization PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)What must an organization? PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)
A. Detect and intercept DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
B. Replace DTMF tones with silence from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
C. Remove DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
D. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using KPML notification
E. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using HTML notification

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 43

What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds

Correct Answer: D

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200-310 pdf QUESTION 1
You have determined that your J2EE EJB tier applications should deployed to a WebLogic Cluster in order to achieve the necessary scalability requirements. When considering adequate network bandwidth to minimize lost multicast packets, which activity is likely to generate the greatest concentration of multicast traffic?
A. JNDI updates
B. JMS Server migration
C. JMX Mbean monitoring
D. HTTP Session replication
E. WebLogic cluster heartbeats

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 2
Which UML artifact best describes a Business Process?
A. Data Model
B. State Diagram
C. Workflow Detail
D. Activity Diagram
E. Sequence Diagram

Correct Answer: D
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 3
In planning most architecture it is considered to be a best practice to avoid long-running XA-transactions. Which of the following is the most compelling reason?
A. Performance can suffer due to potential XA-resource concurrency bottlenecks
B. With the XA two-phase commit protocol, there is a greater chance for heuristic conditions
C. Client applications with shorter transaction timeouts may not wait long enough for transactions to be completed.
D. Each in-flight transaction requires a unique XID, performance is impacted by excessive transaction context switching
E. Deadlock situations can occur within the Transaction Manager by typing up all the available threads involved in transaction

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true related to java Virtual Machine (JVM) issues with your weblogic server deployments?
A. WebLogic Server does not permit manually forced garbage collection on the JVM
B. The BEA JRockit JVM must be used to allow for garbage collection scheme choice
C. WebLogic Server interfaces within the same cluster may use different typed of JVMs
D. A change to the maximum heap size of the JVM does not require a WebLogic server restart
E. Greater performance is usually achieved by deploying a single multithreaded weblogic server instance to multiple JVMs.

Correct Answer: C
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 5
You have determined that your web applications will be deployed to a weblogic cluster for high availability. You want to ensure that all HTTP session data is available to other members of the cluster in case of server failure., but replication performance is a high priority. Based on this requirement, which approach would be best to incorporate into your design?
A. File-based session persistence
B. In-memory session persistence
C. Single memory-based session
D. JDBC-based session persistence
E. XA-based rapid session synchronization

Correct Answer: B
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 6
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, services in the Connectivity Layer tend to be;
A. Fine-grained and Synchronous
B. Fine-grained and Asynchronous
C. Coarse-grained and synchronous
D. Coarse-grained and Asynchronous
E. Both Coarse-grained and Fine-Grained

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 7
Which of the following XML-related standards are NOT used in Liquid Data?
A. XSLT
B. Xpath
C. SOAP
D. XqUERY
E. Xml schema

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?
A. time schedules
B. calling periods
C. dial schedules
D. time periods

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?
A. The route list applied to the route pattern
B. The device pool of the calling device
C. The translation pattern
D. The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 6
The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?
A. The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
B. Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
C. If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
D. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
E. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability
C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about Cisco VCS Addressing Zones are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can be local to the Cisco VCS or can be remote.
B. A zone is a collection of endpoints that share the same dialing behavior and bandwidth settings.
C. They consist of traversal and nontraversal zones.
D. They can only be local.
E. They consist of subzones such as DNS zones.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which four call coverage features are used by voice gateways? (Choose four.)
A. call hunt
B. Call Park
C. Call Pickup
D. call redirecting
E. overlaid phone-dn
F. basic automatic call distribution
G. overlaid ephone-dn
H. basic manual call distribution
Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

When users call number 00044156789453, they have to wait for several seconds before the call is sent. Which action sends the call immediately?
A. In the translation pattern, change the CSS.
B. In the route pattern, check the Allow Device Override check box.
C. In the route pattern, check the Urgent Priority check box.
D. In the translation pattern, check the Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number check box.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which three options are valid SIP URI formats? (Choose three.)
A. [email protected]
B. tel:[email protected]
C. phone:[email protected]
D. sip:[email protected]:5060;user=phone
E. sip:bob.cisco.com
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 15
A technician has installed and powered on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5320 and is connected via the console port. The technician needs to determine the IP settings that were automatically assigned via DHCP. Which command should be entered?
A. xstatus
B. show network eth0
C. status
D. help static

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update?
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A large company wants to procure video conference devices that allow multipoint conferences from C-Series and immersive endpoints that are registered to a Cisco VCS and Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two components meet the requirements of this company? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch registered to Cisco VCS
B. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TelePresence Server registered to Cisco VCS
D. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch trunked to Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 19
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Management would like to set up a permanent recurring Cisco TelePresence meeting where the team would dial into to a preconfigured number. Which meeting type should be used?
A. scheduled conference
B. ad hoc conference
C. rendezvous conference

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QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5

E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

 

 

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QUESTION 10
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker
B. deny packet
C. modify packet
D. request block connection
E. request block host
F. reset TCP connection

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

This volume is part of the Cisco 210-260 Exam Certification Guide Series from FLYDUMPS. Cisco 210-260 exam in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 210-260 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 210-260 exam day nears.

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