CCNA

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What is the CCNA?

The vision of the CCNA is to bring together the best of Canadian research in the field of neurodegenerative diseases affecting cognition in a collaborative and synergistic space. Researchers are working on bold and transformative research ideas to make a difference in the quality of life and the quality of services for those living with the effects of neurodegenerative diseases affecting cognition and their caregivers.

The Lead4pass CCNA includes research in Alzheimer’s disease and research collaborations with those working on other neurodegenerative diseases. While neurodegenerative diseases of aging that have an impact on cognition may manifest differently, they share common causation, risk factors, health care, ethical and quality of life issues, and require similar research approaches and resources.

Why study CCNA Lead4pass?

Cisco Certified Network Associate (Lead4pass CCNA) is a professional qualification accredited by Cisco for network professionals. This course teaches you to network, operate and troubleshoot complex networks and systems.

Free technology courses are available to cover new concepts, develop new career skills and expand student understanding of the latest technologies.

CCNA

All CCNA Certification Exams in Lead4pass.com

  • 100-101 – CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices 1 (ICND1)
  • 200-101 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2)
  • 200-120 – Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
  • 200-125 – CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
  • 640-553 – IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security
  • 640-721 – Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (IUWNE)
  • 640-760 – Supporting Cisco Service Provider IP NGN Operations (SSPO)
  • 640-801 – Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
  • 640-802 – Cisco Certified Network Associate(CCNA)
  • 640-802PT – Official CCNA Prep + Test Bundle (includes 640-802 exam and official practice test)
  • 640-803 – Cisco Certified Network Associate(New)
  • 640-811 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices
  • 640-816 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
  • 640-816PT – Official ICND2 Prep + Test Bundle (includes 640-816 exam and official practice test)
  • 640-816TL – Official ICND2 Learning Lab + Test Bundle (includes 640-816 exam and official learning lab)
  • 640-821 – Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies
  • 640-822 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
  • 640-822PT – Official ICND1 Prep + Test Bundle (includes 640-822 exam and official practice test)
  • 640-822TL – Official ICND1 Learning Lab + Test Bundle (includes 640-822 exam and official learning lab)

CCNA

CCNA

CCNA Routing and Switching helps students prepare for successful IT careers in small to medium businesses, as well as enterprise and service provider environments. As part of the Cisco Academy program, Lead4pass CCNA Routing and Switching provides a comprehensive overview of networking, from fundamentals to advanced applications and services.

CCNA Routing and Switching emphasizes theoretical concepts and practical application, while providing opportunities for students to gain the skills and hands-on experience required to design, install, operate and maintain networks. All Lead4pass CCNA Routing and Switching courses include complex and challenging hands-on labs to help students develop critical thinking, problem solving, collaboration skills and practical knowledge.

CCNA

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Lead4pass Summary:

  • Cisco Academy Home (CCNA)
  • Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
  • Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP)
  • Cisco CCNA Security Certification
  • Cisco Networking Academy Worldwide

For individuals who install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN. This includes basic mitigation of security threats, introduction to Lead4pass CCNA wireless networking concepts and terminology, and performance-based skills.

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 247
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Here is the list of skills tested in ROUTE 300-101 practice test:

Topics % Exam Content
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 10%
Layer 3 Technologies 40%
VPN Technologies 10%
Infrastructure Security 10%
Infrastructure Services 20%

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QUESTION 33
Which type of BlackBerry Enterprise Server database permission is required for a BlackBerry MVS software installation? (Choose one.)
A. db_datawriter
B. db_datareader
C. db_accessadmin
D. db_ddladmin
E. db_owner

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which three user settings can be used to determine if the BlackBerry device will ring for an incoming BlackBerry MVS call? (Choose three.)
A. Call direction
B. Call scheduling
C. Line Preference
D. Allowed caller list
E. Unknown caller

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

QUESTION 35
Which two statements describe a template? (Choose two.)
A. Templates are used to define the configuration properties of new BlackBerry MVS user accounts
B. Changes to templates affect settings for both new user accounts and existing user accounts
C. Templates are used to configure Wi-Fi Profile Control settings
D. Templates can be used to set default Caller Restriction settings

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 36
When wireless data coverage is lost during a BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile call, what are DTMF tones used for? (Choose one.)
A. Switch to standby BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
B. Associate to a different Wi-Fi network
C. Send email messages
D. Send call control requests
E. Send logging information to the BlackBerry MVS administrator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which four factors should be considered and implemented with the Wi-Fi infrastructure vendor to ensure an optimal Voice over Wi-Fi experience? (Choose four.)  300-101 practice test
A. Thorough and detailed Wi-Fi site survey
B. Deploying end-to-endQoS
C. Wi-Fi protected voice setup
D. 802.11d
E. Separate voice VLAN
F. AP controller architecture
Correct Answer: ABEF

 

 

QUESTION 38

If a plus sign is part of the number dialed from a BlackBerry device when making a call, which BlackBerry MVS administrative feature can be used to remove the plus sign (+)? (Choose one.)
A. Smart dialing
B. Number translation
C. Class of service
D. Templates
E. Dial plan manipulation

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 39
Which two security features are available with BlackBerry MVS 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. AES encryption
B. Peer-to-Peer encryption
C. Call and Diagnostic Logging
D. Authentication of BlackBerry MVS users
E. S/MIME encryption

Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 40
Which three codecs are supported by the BlackBerry MVS Client for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose three.)
A. AMR
B. G.711 A-law
C. G.711 ?lawG.711 ?-law
D. G.722
E. G.729
F. WPA2

Correct Answer: BCE

 

 

QUESTION 41
A single BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance can be associated with how many BlackBerry MVS Session Managers? (Choose one.)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 42
What must an organization PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)What must an organization? PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)
A. Detect and intercept DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
B. Replace DTMF tones with silence from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
C. Remove DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
D. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using KPML notification
E. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using HTML notification

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 43

What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds

Correct Answer: D

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200-310 pdf QUESTION 1
You have determined that your J2EE EJB tier applications should deployed to a WebLogic Cluster in order to achieve the necessary scalability requirements. When considering adequate network bandwidth to minimize lost multicast packets, which activity is likely to generate the greatest concentration of multicast traffic?
A. JNDI updates
B. JMS Server migration
C. JMX Mbean monitoring
D. HTTP Session replication
E. WebLogic cluster heartbeats

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 2
Which UML artifact best describes a Business Process?
A. Data Model
B. State Diagram
C. Workflow Detail
D. Activity Diagram
E. Sequence Diagram

Correct Answer: D
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 3
In planning most architecture it is considered to be a best practice to avoid long-running XA-transactions. Which of the following is the most compelling reason?
A. Performance can suffer due to potential XA-resource concurrency bottlenecks
B. With the XA two-phase commit protocol, there is a greater chance for heuristic conditions
C. Client applications with shorter transaction timeouts may not wait long enough for transactions to be completed.
D. Each in-flight transaction requires a unique XID, performance is impacted by excessive transaction context switching
E. Deadlock situations can occur within the Transaction Manager by typing up all the available threads involved in transaction

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true related to java Virtual Machine (JVM) issues with your weblogic server deployments?
A. WebLogic Server does not permit manually forced garbage collection on the JVM
B. The BEA JRockit JVM must be used to allow for garbage collection scheme choice
C. WebLogic Server interfaces within the same cluster may use different typed of JVMs
D. A change to the maximum heap size of the JVM does not require a WebLogic server restart
E. Greater performance is usually achieved by deploying a single multithreaded weblogic server instance to multiple JVMs.

Correct Answer: C
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 5
You have determined that your web applications will be deployed to a weblogic cluster for high availability. You want to ensure that all HTTP session data is available to other members of the cluster in case of server failure., but replication performance is a high priority. Based on this requirement, which approach would be best to incorporate into your design?
A. File-based session persistence
B. In-memory session persistence
C. Single memory-based session
D. JDBC-based session persistence
E. XA-based rapid session synchronization

Correct Answer: B
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 6
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, services in the Connectivity Layer tend to be;
A. Fine-grained and Synchronous
B. Fine-grained and Asynchronous
C. Coarse-grained and synchronous
D. Coarse-grained and Asynchronous
E. Both Coarse-grained and Fine-Grained

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 7
Which of the following XML-related standards are NOT used in Liquid Data?
A. XSLT
B. Xpath
C. SOAP
D. XqUERY
E. Xml schema

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?
A. time schedules
B. calling periods
C. dial schedules
D. time periods

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?
A. The route list applied to the route pattern
B. The device pool of the calling device
C. The translation pattern
D. The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 6
The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?
A. The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
B. Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
C. If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
D. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
E. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability
C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about Cisco VCS Addressing Zones are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can be local to the Cisco VCS or can be remote.
B. A zone is a collection of endpoints that share the same dialing behavior and bandwidth settings.
C. They consist of traversal and nontraversal zones.
D. They can only be local.
E. They consist of subzones such as DNS zones.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which four call coverage features are used by voice gateways? (Choose four.)
A. call hunt
B. Call Park
C. Call Pickup
D. call redirecting
E. overlaid phone-dn
F. basic automatic call distribution
G. overlaid ephone-dn
H. basic manual call distribution
Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

When users call number 00044156789453, they have to wait for several seconds before the call is sent. Which action sends the call immediately?
A. In the translation pattern, change the CSS.
B. In the route pattern, check the Allow Device Override check box.
C. In the route pattern, check the Urgent Priority check box.
D. In the translation pattern, check the Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number check box.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which three options are valid SIP URI formats? (Choose three.)
A. [email protected]
B. tel:[email protected]
C. phone:[email protected]
D. sip:[email protected]:5060;user=phone
E. sip:bob.cisco.com
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 15
A technician has installed and powered on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5320 and is connected via the console port. The technician needs to determine the IP settings that were automatically assigned via DHCP. Which command should be entered?
A. xstatus
B. show network eth0
C. status
D. help static

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update?
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A large company wants to procure video conference devices that allow multipoint conferences from C-Series and immersive endpoints that are registered to a Cisco VCS and Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two components meet the requirements of this company? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch registered to Cisco VCS
B. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TelePresence Server registered to Cisco VCS
D. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch trunked to Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 19
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Management would like to set up a permanent recurring Cisco TelePresence meeting where the team would dial into to a preconfigured number. Which meeting type should be used?
A. scheduled conference
B. ad hoc conference
C. rendezvous conference

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QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5

E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

 

 

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QUESTION 10
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker
B. deny packet
C. modify packet
D. request block connection
E. request block host
F. reset TCP connection

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 101
You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see “two-way/DROTHER” listed as the state for neighbor 10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1 1 1 is not a DR or BDR
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan.
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
In which of these phases is a customer’s network assessed to determine its system readiness?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A concern has been expressed that the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration statements can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switch port port-security
B. switch port port-security tagging
C. switch port accessvlan
D. switch port doublE.tag snooping
E. switch port mode access

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. Cisco Works Unrestricted
B. Cisco Works SNMS
C. Campus Manager D. Resource Management Essentials

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
A. theip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. The ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. The neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. The framE.relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 50
When designing, why would a network architect use active performance monitoring instead of passive performance monitoring?
A. To collect history and event statistics (specific to network devices)
B. To decrease Router CPU utilization on end systems (both user and server)
C. To maintain accurate network statistics (independent of end systems)
D. For performance verification (independent of application servers and users)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Assume that Telnet users of your company are experiencing delays caused by cyclic congestion spikes. Traffic analysis shows minimal use of UDP. Which technology can be used to solve this problem?
A. Committed Access Rate
B. Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Deficit Round Robin
D. Weighted RED
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
When you decide on Campus QoS Design elements, which two statements correctly identify considerations to be taken into account?
A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue.
B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue.
C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service.
D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 53
During periods of congestion, which two impacts are of traffic shaping on traffic flows? (Choose two)
A. More packets dropped
B. Fewer packets dropped
C. Less bandwidth consumption
D. Increased delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 54
WRED is short for Weighted Random Early Detection. Which two descriptions are correct concerning WRED? (Choose two)
A. WRED allows thresholds to be applied to give higher priority applications access to limited buffer resources.
B. WRED throttles TCP-based applications to avoid congestion within the queue servicing the traffic.
C. WRED can inform remote devices that there is congestion on the network by setting the pause bit within the ToS field, instructing end devices to throttle their transmissions.
D. WRED provides bandwidth guarantees for packets within a queue, and tells the scheduler the order in which queues should be served.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 55
You are a network technician. A service provider is providing a QoS-based transport service. Three classes have been defined in the core, including an Expedited Forwarding (EF) class for VoIP traffic.
Which tool will you use at the ingress for the EF class?
A. CB-WFQ
B. WRED
C. Shaping
D. Policing
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
A service provider is offering four classes of service, with each class mapped to a separate queue. Some customers complain about receiving out-of-order packets, which cause application degradation.
Which QoS policy activity most likely causes these out-of-order packets?
A. WRED
B. Policing
C. Traffic shaping
D. Remarking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
You are a network technician. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network are equal cost, and Router1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route are displayed on the diagram.
Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?
Exhibit: A. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router 1.

B. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router 3.
C. Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the Router 4- 3 link.
D. Router 1 will not use Router 4 and 3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Users at the your Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer-to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
B. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
C. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
D. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame Relay link, what should be used in the CPE?
A. Fragmentation
B. Prioritization
C. Classification
D. Traffic shaping
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 60
Fair queuing is a scheduling algorithm used in computer and telecommunications networks to allow multiple packet flows to fairly share the link capacity. How does Fair Queuing divide bandwidth?
A. Between all destinations relative to traffic load
B. Between classes of service based on traffic load
C. Equally between all classes of service
D. Equally between all flows
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two)
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees.
B. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
C. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.
D. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 62
RSVP is short for Resource Reservation Protocol. Which statement is true about the RSVP protocol?
A. It is initiated uni-directionally along the data path downstream from each requesting node.
B. It is only for avoiding packet drop on collision-prone media (such as Ethernet).
C. It is only shared by pairs of peers participating in delay-sensitive, real-time applications like VoIP.
D. It is reserved bi-directionally by each originating node.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Which description is true about RSVP reservations?
A. Dynamic, allocated when requested, and removed at the end of each session for which they were requested
B. Static, and must always be installed after power-up
C. Static, and cannot be removed once they are first requested by a delay-sensitive, real-time application
D. Dynamic, and depend on the amount of delay-sensitive, real-time data passing through

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
LLQ is short for Low Latency Queue .VoIP traffic is mapped to (LLQ) over a slow speed link. Which kind of delay will seriously affect the quality of voice for this link?
A. Encoding delay
B. Packetization delay
C. Propagation delay
D. Serialization delay

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
Which control plane problem can be prevented by implementing QoS, and how to eliminate the problem?
A. BGP instability, by prioritizing Precedence 6 traffic (per RFC 791)
B. OSPF instability, by remarking to Precedence 6 (per RFC 791)
C. OSPF instability, by using WRED to prioritize Precedence 6 routing updates (per RFC 791)
D. BGP instability, by means of traffic shaping updates (per RFC 791) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Header compression is the most cost-effective way to increase link efficiency for VoIP traffic.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
C. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
A. Packet loss of 2 percent or less
B. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
C. One-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. Jitter of 30 ms or less

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
You are the Cisco Network Designer . Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Gold
B. QoS must be set to Platinum
C. QoS must be set to Silver
D. WMM must be enabled

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 70
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Your company is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 14
D. 5

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71

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QUESTION 355
Which of the following label operations can be performed by a P router that is not a penultimate router in the MPLS VPN path?
A. Pop
B. Purge
C. Push
D. Swap

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 356
If labels are being distributed in an MPLS network but no labels are being allocated for local routes, what could be the problem?
A. There is an error with the conditional label distribution configurat on.
B. CEF is disabled on the LSR.
C. There are no LDP neighborships established to the LSR.
D. CEF is not enabled on an input interface.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 357
If you use the configuration statement “mpls mtu 1512” how many labels in a label stack are being allowed for?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 358
In an MPLS domain that carries BGP traffic it is best to use host routes without summarization for BGP next hop addresses. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 359
How is the TTL field in the label header generated?
A. It is set to a number equal to the number of hops in the MPLS path plus 1.
B. It is copied from the TTL field in the IP header on ingress.
C. It is copied from the TTL field in the IP header on egress.
D. It is set to 255 when enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 360
What does PHP stand for?
A. Packet Hierarchical Priority.
B. Previous Hop Pushing.
C. Packet Header Priorities.
D. Penultimate Hop Popping.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 361
What is true about a VPNv4 address?
A. It contains an RD and an IPV4 address.
B. It is 96 bits long.
C. They are unique within the local PE.
D. They are propagated using the core IGP.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 362
What is the correct order following initialization for the following frame mode MPLS label functions:
A. Every LSR completes its LIB, LFIB and FIX data structures
B. Each LSR assigns a label to every FEC.
C. IP routing protocols build their routing tables.
D. LSR’s announce their labels to their peer LSR’s.
E. B, D, A, C
F. B, C, D, A
G. C, A, B, D
H. C, B, D, A

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 363
What is NOT true about VC-merge in ATM MPLS networks?
A. It can cause jitter or delay across the network.
B. It increases buffer requirements.
C. It buffers cells for a whole frame before forwarding them.
D. It allows you to use per-interface label allocation.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 364
TDP is the default labeling protocol but LDP has to be used when peering to non-Cisco devices. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 365
Which IGP IP routing protocols support MPLS traffic engineering?
A. RIP v2
B. IS-IS
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 366
Which of the following router types has to perform an IP routing table lookup when forwarding a packet over an MPLS network if PHP is active?
A. Egress PE router
B. P router
C. Penultimate P router
D. CE router

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is certain that option A (Egress PE router) needs to perform an IP lookup, but CE router, being the
receiver does not apply (not D).

QUESTION 367
PE to CE routing protocols supported are, RIPv2, OSPF and EBGP. Which of the following situations would best suit the use of EBGP?
A. Stub sites which are not concerned with convergence.
B. For very large customer networks that presently use OSPF.
C. Where many routes may be originated by the customer.
D. For complex multihomed scenarios.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 368
If a customer using BGP as a PE to CE routing protocol is connected to two VPN’s there is a problem
because the customer router will not be able to route between the two VPN’s due to the provider AS
number being the same for both, which is rejected in standard BGP.
What is a BGP facility that can provide a workaround to this problem?

A. AS-transparent
B. AS-passthrough
C. No-ascheck
D. Allowas-in

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 369
In MPLS VPN’s which protocol propagates VPN labels?
A. RSVP
B. MP-BGP
C. CR-LDP
D. PIM V2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 370
How many route targets can be attached to an advertised route?
A. 0
B. Many
C. 2
D. 1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 371
Which of the following routing protocols can support multiple processes?
A. RIPv2
B. EBGP
C. OSPF

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 372
What does VRF stand for?
A. VPN routing and forwarding instance.
B. VPN route filter.
C. VPN routing formatter.
D. VPN routing function.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 373
What is the name of the entity that indicates VPN membership within an MPLS VPN?
A. PE
B. Route target
C. VPNv4 address
D. Route distinguisher

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 374
What is the function of the “S bit” in the MPLS header?
A. It is a service bit which when set indicates this label is active.
B. It is a bottom of stack bit which when set indicated that this is not the last label in the stack.
C. It is a bottom of stack bit which when set it indicates that this is the last label in the stack.
D. It is a service bit which when set indicates this label is not active.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 375
In VPN terms what is the name given to an MPLS device that interfaces with a customer site router?
A. CE
B. PE
C. CPE
D. P

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 376
Which command would you include in a configuration for a basic LC-ATM interface on a Catalyst ATM switch?
A. (config)#int atm 0/0 (config-if)#mpls ip
B. (config)#int atm 0/0 point-to-multipoint (config-if)#mpls ip
C. (config)#int atm 0/0 point-to-point (config-if)#mpls ip
D. (config)#int atm 0/0 tag-switching (config-if)#mpls ip

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 377
The TTL field in the MPLS header is used to prevent loops forming. How many bits are allocated to that field?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 378
In MPLS frame mode where in the packet is the label inserted?
A. Between layers 3 and 4.
B. Between layers 4 and 5.
C. Between layers 2 and 3.
D. Between layers 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 379
A Label Switch Path (LSP) tunnel is ______?
A. Bidirectional
B. Multidirectional
C. Unidirectional

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 286
What is true about TDP and LDP?
A. They can coexist in an MPLS network providing peers use the same type.
B. They are compatible between peers of differing type.
C. They are functionally equivalent but incompatible.
D. An MPLS network must use only one type throughout.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 287
How many bits are there in the label field of an MPLS label?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 16
D. 20

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 288
In multicast IP routing what entity is assigned a unique FEC?
A. An IGP prefix in conjunction with a class of service.
B. An egress router.
C. An IGP prefix.
D. A destination multicast address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 289
When using a hub and spoke VPN topology and EBGP as the PE to CE protocol it is necessary to implement allowas-in on the PE router that connects to the customer hub site. True or false?
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 290
How many interfaces can be associated to a VRF?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. Many

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 291
Which of the following correctly configures simple per-VRF OSPF?
A. router ospf 11 vrf purple redistribute bgp 1 network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0
B. router ospf 11 address-family ipv4 purple redistribute bgp 1 subnets network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0
C. router ospf 11 vrf purple redistribute bgp 1 subnets network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0
D. router ospf 11 ip vrf purple redistribute bgp 1 subnets network 171.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 292
What is true about using EBGP between the PE and CE routers?
A. Redistribution to MP-BGP is still required.
B. Customer BGP attributes are not maintained across the VPN.
C. All customer BGP attributes are maintained across the VPN.
D. Redistribution to MP-BGP is not required.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 293
If several MPLS VPN customer sites run BGP and want to use the same AS number throughout there would normally be a problem since standard BGP operation is to reject incoming external routes that contain the local AS number in their AS-path. What is a BGP facility that provides a workaround to this problem?
A. AS-cutthrough
B. AS-override
C. AS-passthrough
D. AS-transparent

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 294
How many labels are required as a minimum for an MPLS VPN?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 295
What is true about the use of RIP between the PE and CE routers?
A. A separate routing context is configured for each VRF running RIP.
B. RIP parameters for each VRF can be configured globally.
C. It supports RIPv1 and RIPv2.
D. Routes have to be redistributed to and from BGP.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RIPv1 CAN be used but NOT supported officially by Cisco.

QUESTION 296
How would you display the routing table for a VRF named “yellow”?
A. sh ip vrf-route yellow
B. sh ip route vrf yellow
C. sh ip route yellow
D. sh ip route mp-bgp
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 297
Which is NOT a possible function of BGP in an MPLS VPN environment?
A. The exchange of traditional global IPV4 routes.
B. The distribution of labels throughout the P network.
C. The exchange of VPN routes with a customer using either EBGP or redistribution to another protocol.
D. The exchange of VPNv4 routes.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 298
When must the BGP next-hop-self option be set in an MP-IBGP session between PE’s?
A. When BGP between the PE’s is also carrying standard communities.
B. When All routers run in the same AS.
C. When EBGP is running between the PE and CE routers.
D. When EBGP is not running between the PE and CE routers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 299
Which of the following label operations can be performed by an edge LSR?
A. Pop
B. Push
C. Swap
D. Purge

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 300
What is true about a CE router?
A. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other routers.
B. It participates in customer routing protocols.
C. It runs provider backbone IGP.
D. It has to run BGP.
E. It has no direct customer connectivity.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 301
In a PE the VRF tables are populates by?
A. Routing information from the associated CE router.
B. MP-BGP information from other PE’s.
C. The core IGP.
D. BGP-4 information from P routers.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 302
VPNv4 addresses are exchanged between ______?
A. PE and P routers
B. PE routers
C. PE and CE routers
D. CE routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 303
Within a PE router one VRF should be assigned per ______ ?
A. PE router
B. Site
C. VPN
D. Group of sites with the same VPN connectivity

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 304
Given the configuration below which type of MPLS connectivity would this normally support? int atm 0/0 atm pvp 37 int atm 0/0.37 point-to-point mpls ip
A. ATM switch to ATM enabled router over an ATM VP.
B. ATM switch to ATM switch over an ATM VP.
C. ATM enabled router to ATM enabled router over an ATM VP.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 305
How does MPLS VPN architecture allow for overlapping address space between customers?
A. The addresses are kept unique by prefixing them with a route distinguisher.
B. The addresses do not class because a separate routing process is used for each customer within the MPLS network.
C. A separate PE router is provided for each customer.
D. Customers have to use registered addresses, they cannot overlap.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 306
What type of VPN could be described as one in which a provider offers virtual point to point links between customer sites?
A. Peer to peer VPN
B. Remote access VPN
C. Overlay VPN

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 307
Which of the following are valid business categorizations for VPN’s?
A. Intranet VPN
B. Internet VPN
C. Extranet VPN
D. Access VPN

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 308
Which command would you use to display information about the TDP session and the addresses and ports being used?
A. show mpls tdp-sessions detail
B. show tag-switching tdp neighbors
C. show tag-switching neighbors
D. show mpls tdp-sessions

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 309
The default control VC an LC-ATM is 0/32 how would you change this to 2/32?
A. (config-if)#tag-switching atm vpi 2 32
B. (config-if)#tag-switching atm control-vc 2 32
C. (config-if)#tag-switching atm control-vc 2/32
D. (config)#tag-switching atm control-vc 2 32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 310
Which command would you use to disable TTL propagation?
A. (config)#no mpls ttl-propagate
B. (config-if)#no mpls ip propagate-ttl
C. (config)#no mpls ip propagate-ttl
D. (config)#no ip mpls ttl-propagate

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 311
What is the effect of the use of the hop-count TLV in cell mode MPLS to the traceroute command?
A. Traceroute still accurately indicates the number of hops in the MPLS path.
B. Traceroute will indicate the ingress router to an MPLS domain once for each hop through the MPLS path and not the core MPLS LSR’s.
C. Traceroute will accurately indicate each router in the MPLS path.
D. Traceroute will not indicate any of the MPLS domain routers including the ingress and egress routers.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Mode MPLS. Page 91 of the reference states “…Although the previous description provides all the necessary functionality for traceroute to work in a Farme-mode MPLS environment, you also need to consider the effects of traceroute across an MPLS network that is constructed with ATM-LSRs in the topology. Chapter 1, “Multiprotocol Lable Switching (MPLS) Architecture Overview,” defines an ATM-SLR as an LSR with a number of LC-ATM interfaces that forward cells between these interfaces using labels carried in the VPI/VCI field. The consequence of this is that TTL is not available in the header of an ATM cell and, therefore CANNOT BE MANIPULATED AT EACH HOP in the network. For this reason, when ATM-SLRs are within the path, the ATM portion of the network is TREATED AS ONE IP HOP.” Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (CCIP edition)
QUESTION 312
Which of the following are names of valid fields in the MPLS header?
A. Label
B. B bit
C. TTL
D. TOS

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 313
What is true about disabling TTL propagation into an MPLS domain? (Select all that apply.)
A. It has to be disabled on all LSR’s in the MPLS path.
B. The TTL field in the label is set to 0.
C. The TTL field in the label is not copied into the IP header on egress.
D. The TTL field in the label is not copied from the TTL field in the IP header on ingress.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not A: Option A is incorrect as it only needs to be turned off at ingress router.

QUESTION 314
What is true about penultimate hop popping?
A. It works on cell and frame mode MPLS networks.
B. It allows double lookup on the egress router which is more efficient.
C. It prevents the need for double lookup on an egress router.
D. It causes the label to be popped one hop earlier.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 315
Which MPLS mode of label retention allows all received labels to be stored not just the ones from a next hop neighbor?
A. Independent
B. Ordered
C. Liberal
D. Conservative

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 316
What is the order of significance for determining the IP address portion of a TDP identifier?
A. The highest interface IP address.
B. The value of the “tag tdp router-id” statement.
C. The highest loopback IP address B, A, C
D. C, A, B
E. B, C, A
F. A, C, B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 317
Which of the following modes of operation would be used for packet (or frame) mode MPLS?
A. per-interface label allocation
B. unsolicited label distribution
C. liberal label retention
D. ordered control

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 318
What is true about OSPF running between PE and CE routers?
A. Extra configuration is required to pass the OSPF route attributes from OSPF to MP-BGP.
B. OSPF route attributes are carried as extended BGP attributes into MP-BGP.
C. Extra configuration is required to pass the OSPF route attributes from MP-BGP to OSPF.
D. Routes redistributed from MP-BGP to OSPF automatically maintain OSPF route attributes.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 319
Which of the following are MPLS applications?
A. Traffic screening/filtering
B. Traffic engineering
C. QOS
D. Web caching

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 320
Which are valid MP-BGP extended community formats?
A. <type>:<ASnumber>:<Value>
B. <type>:<Prefix>:<Value>
C. <type>:<Areanumber>:<Value>
D. <type>:<IP address>:<Value>

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 321
When providing Internet access to VPN customers through global routing two options exist at the PE. What are these two options?
A. VPN leaking
B. Packet popping
C. Use a separate (sub) interface for Internet and VPN traffic.
D. Packet leaking

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 322
In cases where VPN customers use OSPF and have cross domain links to other sites which also connected into the provider network what is true about this situation?
A. The OSPF tag field can be set to prevent cross domain routing loops.
B. This configuration is not supported by MPLS VPN’s.
C. The down bit can be used to prevent cross domain routing loops.
D. The down bit will be reset as routes pass between OSPF domain and may cause routing loops.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 323
Which of the following can be performed by an ATM LSR?
A. Pop
B. Swap
C. Push

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 324
What is true about the SOO extended community?
A. SOO is only needed for multihomed customer sites.
B. SOO can be used as a loop prevention mechanism.
C. SOO is most useful for stub sites.
D. SOO has the effect of creating possible loops.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 325
What is true about the following configuration in a PE router? Router bgp 21 address-family ipv4 vrf yellow neighbor 10.3.2.1 remote-as 44 neighbor 10.3.2.1 active
A. It configures an MP-BGP neighborship to another PE.
B. It configures an EBGP neighborship to a CE.
C. It configures an IBGP neighborship with a CE.
D. It configures an IBGP neighborship to another PE.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 326
Which is a valid route configuration statement?
A. (config-vrf)#route-target 1234:13 import
B. (config-vrf)#rt import 1234:13
C. (config-vrf)#rt 1234:13 export D. (config-vrf)#route-target both 1234:13

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 327
Which BGP address family configuration statement in a PE router correctly specifies an MP-BGP session to another PE router?
A. (config-router)#ip address-family vpnv4
B. (config-router)#address-family vpnv4
C. (config-router)#address-family ipv4 vrf <vrf name>

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 328
What is true about a routing context?
A. It uses global router variables for all routing instances.
B. It allows a routing protocol run in one VRF.
C. It allows different customers on the same PE to run the same routing protocol.
D. Its allows multiple routing instances in a VRF.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 329
What is true about a PE router?
A. It participates in customer routing protocols.
B. It runs provider backbone IGP.
C. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other routers.
D. It has no direct customer connectivity.
E. It has to run BGP.

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 330
Which are function(s) required in the control plane when using multicast IP routing over MPLS?
A. PIM version 2 with MPLS extensions.
B. A label distribution protocol.
C. A packet forwarding protocol.
D. An IP routing protocol.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 331
Only one route target can be associated with each route. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 332
Which of the following describes a VPN in which every site can communicate with a server but not with each other?
A. Central services VPN
B. Overlapping VPN
C. Managed network VPN
D. Simple VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 333
What is the name given to an IP address that is extended with an RD?
A. An IPv4 address
B. A VPNv4 address
C. A VPNv2 address
D. A RDv4 address

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 334
Which of the following is NOT a valid topology?
A. Hub and spoke
B. Partial mesh
C. Circular
D. Multilevel

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 335
Which command would you use to display the contents of the LFIB table?
A. show tag-switching lfiv
B. show mpls label-forwarding-table detail
C. show mpls lfib detail

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 336
What is true about the MTU on an interface when running MPLS?
A. The MTU is automatically decreased on WAN interfaces.
B. Some switches do not support jumbo frames.
C. If the MTU is increased on a LAN interface it can result in jumbo frames.
D. The IP MTU is automatically decreased on LAN interfaces.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 337
BGP derived prefixes are assigned the label that is used for the _______?
A. IBGP peer
B. AS-Path
C. IGP prefix in the routing table
D. Next hop address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 338
What does LDP use to find non adjacent neighbors?
A. Broadcast hello packets
B. Multicast hello packets
C. Specific hello packets
D. Directed hello packets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 339
Following an exchange of LDP hellos, which router will attempts to establish the LDP session?
A. The router with the highest IP address in the LDP identifier.
B. The router which is the first to receive a hello.
C. They will both try.
D. The router with the lowest IP address in the LDP identifier.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 340
Which mode of label distribution advertises labels to all neighbor LSR’s?
A. Independent
B. Liberal
C. Unsolicited
D. On demand

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 341
What is true about per-platform label allocation over per -interface label allocation?
A. It conservers table space.
B. It conserved VPI/VCI’s in an ATM MPLS network.
C. It is more efficient.
D. It is more secure.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 342
Which customer routing protocols will support MPLS VPN’s?
A. RIP V2
B. RIP V1
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. EBGP

Correct Answer: ABDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: RIPv1 CAN be used but NOT supported officially by Cisco.
QUESTION 343
Which are the two major components of MPLS?
A. Administrative plane
B. Data plane
C. Routing plane
D. Control plane

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 344
What is true about the following configuration? ip vrf green rd 100:10 route-target both 100:10 ip vrf blue rd 100:11 route-target both 100:11 ip vrf orange rd 100:12 route target both 100:10 route-target both 100:14
A. Site orange can talk to another site using an RT of 100:14.
B. Site blue cannot talk to site orange.
C. Site orange can talk to site green
D. Site green can talk to site blue.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 345
In cases where VPN customers run OSPF and have areas that are multihomed into a provider network it is
possible for loops to form.
What provision is made to prevent this?

A. Use the OSPF “tag bit” on egress to the multihomed area from the PE.
B. Set the OSPF “down bit” on egress to the multihomed area from the PE.
C. Set the OSPF “down bit” on ingress from the multihomed area to the PE.
D. Use the OSPF “tag bit” on ingress from the multihomed area to the PE.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 346
What is true about the following configuration? ip vrf blue rd 21:222 import map map route-target both 21:222 route-map map permit 10 match ip address 10 access-list 10 permit 172.18.2.0.0.0.0.255
A. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they satisfy the access list.
B. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they have RT 21.222 appended to them.
C. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they satisfy the access list and have only RT 21.222 appended to them.
D. Routes will be entered into the vrf table if they satisfy the access list and have at least RT 21.222 appended to them.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 347
What is the name given to the MPLS VPN in terms of the OSPF hierarchy?
A. OSPF virtual link
B. OSPF superbackbone
C. OSPF ABR
D. Area 0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 348
Instead of using a routing protocol between the PE and CE routers it is possible to use static routes in
some cases.
What is true about static routes in MPLS VPN’s?

A. The static routes are on a per VRF basis.
B. You must always specify the outgoing interface.
C. The static routes are not entered into the VRF routing table.
D. The static routes are configured under the bgp address family prompt.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 349
Which are valid formats for a route distinguisher?
A. 10.34.231.4:21
B. 10:34:231:4.21
C. 14567.32
D. 121.32

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not D: option D should not be correct as it is a dot between 121 and 32 not a colon.

QUESTION 350
If a customer who is part of an MPLS VPN is running OSPF, routes are automatically imported from the
OSPF instance in the VRF to BGP for advertisement to other PE’s.
True or false?

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 351
Which of the following devices performs the MPLS function at the interface to a cell mode MPLS domain?
A. Edge LSR
B. ATM LSR
C. LSR
D. ATM edge LSR

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 352
What does cell mode MPLS use as a forwarding label?
A. The AAL5 header
B. The ATM header
C. The label
D. The IP header

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 353
Which of the following describes a VPN in which some sites are part of more than one VPN?
A. Simple VPN
B. Overlapping VPN
C. Central services VPN
D. Managed network VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 354
What is true about peer to peer VPN’s? (Select all that apply.)
A. The customer is isolated from the provider network.
B. The provider routers carry all the customers routes.
C. They are easy to implement.
D. They can provide optimum routing between sites.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Option D is also correct as page 139 states”Routing between the customer sites is always optimal, as the
provider routers know the customers’s network topology and can thus establish optimum inter-site routing.
Reference: MPLS and VPN Architectures (CCIP edition)

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