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Exam Code: 600-510
Exam Name: Developing with Network Programmability
Updated: Jun 09, 2017
Q&As: 112
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/600-510.html

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20% 1.0 Interpreting the Requirements

1.1 Gather requirements

  • 1.1.a Analyze business requirements to determine application/network requirements

1.2 Map the requirements to capabilities

  • 1.2.a Apply different API models
  • 1.2.b Analyze application requirements to determine optimal application model
  • 1.2.b (i) Controller-based
  • 1.2.b (ii) Device-centric API (distributed)

1.3 Identify the application dependencies in conjunction with company environment (policies and IT infrastructure)

  • 1.3.a Analyze current environment and identify known dependencies

1.4 Draft the block diagram and functional specifications

  • 1.4.a Create a flow chart/diagram to represent how the application is going to work

1.5 Document application/networking touch points

  • 1.5.a Document how application interacts with other elements of the environment

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QUESTION 11
A developer is creating a process that will be a participant in an ebXML B2B conversation. Which control or node can be used to receive the first message in a conversation?
A. A TPM control
B. An ebXML control
C. A RosettaNet control
D. A Client Request node
E. An Application View control

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Certkiller .com Communications, the nation’s second leading cable TV provider, plans to provide application integration with an existing program directory. Certkiller .com will automate the service and sell it to subscribers. To make this subscriber service as dynamic as possible, Certkiller .com has a business requirement that the service functionality can be changed later, without having to change client applications. Which is the best way to accomplish this?
A. A loosely-coupled Message-driven EJB
B. A Message Broker control that all client applications subscribe to
C. An asynchronous Web service that uses the Dynamic Invocation Interface (DII) or dynamic proxy interfaces
D. A synchronous Web service that uses DII or dynamic proxy interfaces
E. Automated distribution of a generated stub

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The Olivari Group, an electronic-components broker, has a business requirement to exchange complex business documents with suppliers and brokers. It currently uses some sophisticated manual processes for exchanging information; its goal is to automate the processes as much as possible, to free its employees to focus on more meaningful tasks. The Olivari Group wants to use well-defined, industry-standard partner interface processes. Which protocol would be the best choice?
A. ebXML
B. An asynchronous message broker control
C. RosettaNet
D. SOAP 1.2 with attachments
E. Open Collaborate

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In the exhibit, consider the following snippet of a UML activity diagram.

What is the best way to implement the Notify Customer Service Agent task?
A. Create a Message Broker Publish control that sends a message to a customer service role.
B. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a customer service role.
C. Create a Message Broker Subscribe control receiving messages from the process for the customer service role.
D. Create a Task Worker control assigned to a specific customer service agent.
E. Create a Task control assigned to a specific customer service agent.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
A Client Request node is configured to validate its input with this XML Schema:
<xs:schema xmlns:xs=”http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema” targetNamespace=”http://openuri.org”>
<xs:element name=”item”>
<xs:complexType>
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name=”title” type=”xs:string”/>
<xs:element name=”code” type=”xs:string”/>
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
</xs:element>
</xs:schema>
Why does the following XML document fail validation by the Client Request node? <item xmlns=”http://
openuri.org”>
<title>MoserDozer</title>
<code>3A98-193SA-SF</code>
</item>

A. The document that is sent as an argument is not well-formed.
B. The <schema> element defaults the elementFormDefault attribute to unqualified.
C. The document that is sent as an argument requires the addition of the line xmlns:tns=”http:// openuri.org”.
D. The document that is sent as an argument must specify which schema to use for validation.
E. The document that is sent as an argument must set the targetNamespace, as the schema does.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Field Occurrence option should the developer select for the emailAddress field?
A. Once
B. Repeat Delimiter (followed by a text box)
C. Repeat Field (followed by a pull-down menu)
D. Repeat Number (followed by a text box)
E. Unlimited

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
A new WebLogic Integration application must integrate with an existing customer-relationship management application. This application can store multiple email addresses for each customer, in the following ASCII format: 3:[email protected]:[email protected]:[email protected]:7815552304 The leading numeral specifies the number of email addresses held by this customer. The email addresses, delimited by colons, follows. In Format Builder, the developer creates a field named number for the leading numeral, and a field named emailAddress for each email address. These fields constitute a group named emailAddresses. The customer phone number follows the last colon. In Format Builder, which Group Delimiter option should the developer select for the emailAddresses group?
A. None
B. Delimiter Field, with delimiter shared
C. Delimiter Field, with delimiter NOT shared
D. A or B
E. A or C
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which statement correctly compares a Parallel node to an Event Choice node?
A. A maximum of one branch of an Event Choice node is executed; any number of branches of a Parallel node can be executed.
B. An Event Choice node can have only two branches; a Parallel node can have an unlimited number of branches.
C. If the Parallel node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
D. If the Parallel node specifies an AND join condition, there is no difference between the node types.
E. If the Event Choice node specifies an OR join condition, there is no difference between the node types.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Exhibit:

While creating a For Each node, a developer is shown the following schema representation in WebLogic
Workshop:
Which statement is false?

A. quoteRequest is an element.
B. zip is a child element of shipAddress.
C. The question marks imply optional (as opposed to mandatory) status.
D. widgetRequest is a valid repeating element over which the For Each node can iterate.
E. A maximum number of occurrences of widgetRequest can be specified in the schema.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A developer creates a Perform node, as shown in the exhibit.

Which is the generated Java method?
A. public void perform() { }
B. public boolean perform() { }
C. static public boolean perform() { }
D. public void perform() throws Exception { }
E. public boolean perform() throws Exception { }

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A developer creates a Message Broker Publish control to publish messages to the channel that is specified
by this channel file:
<channels xmlns=”http://www.bea.com/wli/broker/channelfile” channelPrefix=”/B2B”
xmlns:req=”http://www.example.org/request”>
<channel name=”xml” messageType=”none”>
<channel name=”qrChannel” messageType=”xml”
qualifiedMessageType=”req:quoteRequest”/>
</channel>
</channels>
What is the resulting name of the corresponding channel, from the viewpoint of the control?

A. B2B:qrChannel
B. /B2B/qrChannel
C. /B2B/xml/qrChannel
D. t3://www.example.org/request/B2B/qrChannel
E. http://www.example.org/request/B2B/xml/qrChannel

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Consider this code fragment: /**
*
@jc:task
*/
public interface ApprovalCtrl extends TaskControl, com.bea.control.ControlExtension
{
/**
*
@jc:task-create
*
name=”{name}”
*
@jc:task-update
*
request={xml}
*/
public String certkiller(String name, XmlObject xml); Which statement about the method Certkiller is
correct?
A.
Certkiller is a wrapper method.
B.
Certkiller is a custom query method.
C.
Certkiller is a custom callback method.
D.
The extension for this source file must be .dtf
E.
Certkiller has better type safety than the standard operations.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Consider this process diagram in the exhibit.

The timer timeout is set to 5 s and repeats-every is set to 15 s. What happens during execution of this
process?
A. The process instance completes in just over 5 seconds.
B. The process instance completes in just over 10 seconds.
C. The process instance completes in just over 15 seconds.
D. The process instance completes in just over 20 seconds.
E. The process instance does not successfully complete; it blocks indefinitely.

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: DCICT Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Updated: May 30, 2017
Q&As: 61
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/200-155.html

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1.1 Describe common server types and connectivity found in a data center
1.2 Describe the physical components of the Cisco UCS
1.3 Describe the concepts and benefits of Cisco UCS hardware abstraction
1.4 Perform basic Cisco UCS configuration
1.4.a Cluster high availability
1.4.b Port roles
1.4.c Hardware discovery
1.5 Describe server virtualization concepts and benefits
1.5.a Hypervisors
1.5.b Virtual switches
1.5.c Shared storage
1.5.d Virtual Machine components
1.5.e Virtual Machine Manager

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QUESTION 34
Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?
A. SSID
B. MAC
C. VLAN
D. IP Address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?
A. user login name
B. authentication server
C. location
D. controller Loopback address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
16 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?
A. greater than
B. less than
C. inverse of
D. contains

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?
A. controller
B. client
C. authentication server
D. Internal user database

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
View the Server group screen shot above.

A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user’s credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?
17 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam
A. The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.
B. The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami
C. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.
D. RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.

A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius
attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role.
What statements below are correct?

A. The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest
B. The user was placed in the initial Role guest
C. Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive
D. Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used
E. 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 40
View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.
A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?
A. The User will get the Emp Role
B. The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role
C. The User will get the employee Role
D. The User will get the Employee Role
E. The User will get the initial Role

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?
A. Virtual-ap ap mesh-radio-profile ap system profile
B. Wlan ssid-profile ap-system-profile virtual-ap profile
C. Virtual-ap profile ap-system profile aaa profile
D. 802.1X authentication profile wlan ssid-profile virtual-ap profile

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?
A. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role
B. The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile
C. A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile
D. An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands: Vlan 55 Vlan 56 Vlan 57 Interface gigabitethernet 1/0 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk native vlan 55 switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57 Which of the following sentences best describes this port?
A. All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and 802.1Q tag
B. All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag
C. All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged
D. All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged 20 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? Select all that apply.
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 45
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

21 Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. you can’t tell

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.

If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. Captive Portal
22
Aruba ACMP-6-1 Exam

E. Logon
F. no role will be assigned

Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 247
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html

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Topics % Exam Content
Network Principles 10%
Layer 2 Technologies 10%
Layer 3 Technologies 40%
VPN Technologies 10%
Infrastructure Security 10%
Infrastructure Services 20%

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QUESTION 33
Which type of BlackBerry Enterprise Server database permission is required for a BlackBerry MVS software installation? (Choose one.)
A. db_datawriter
B. db_datareader
C. db_accessadmin
D. db_ddladmin
E. db_owner

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which three user settings can be used to determine if the BlackBerry device will ring for an incoming BlackBerry MVS call? (Choose three.)
A. Call direction
B. Call scheduling
C. Line Preference
D. Allowed caller list
E. Unknown caller

Correct Answer: BDE

 

 

QUESTION 35
Which two statements describe a template? (Choose two.)
A. Templates are used to define the configuration properties of new BlackBerry MVS user accounts
B. Changes to templates affect settings for both new user accounts and existing user accounts
C. Templates are used to configure Wi-Fi Profile Control settings
D. Templates can be used to set default Caller Restriction settings

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 36
When wireless data coverage is lost during a BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile call, what are DTMF tones used for? (Choose one.)
A. Switch to standby BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
B. Associate to a different Wi-Fi network
C. Send email messages
D. Send call control requests
E. Send logging information to the BlackBerry MVS administrator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which four factors should be considered and implemented with the Wi-Fi infrastructure vendor to ensure an optimal Voice over Wi-Fi experience? (Choose four.)  300-101 practice test
A. Thorough and detailed Wi-Fi site survey
B. Deploying end-to-endQoS
C. Wi-Fi protected voice setup
D. 802.11d
E. Separate voice VLAN
F. AP controller architecture
Correct Answer: ABEF

 

 

QUESTION 38

If a plus sign is part of the number dialed from a BlackBerry device when making a call, which BlackBerry MVS administrative feature can be used to remove the plus sign (+)? (Choose one.)
A. Smart dialing
B. Number translation
C. Class of service
D. Templates
E. Dial plan manipulation

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 39
Which two security features are available with BlackBerry MVS 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. AES encryption
B. Peer-to-Peer encryption
C. Call and Diagnostic Logging
D. Authentication of BlackBerry MVS users
E. S/MIME encryption

Correct Answer: CD

 

 

QUESTION 40
Which three codecs are supported by the BlackBerry MVS Client for Voice over Wi-Fi calls? (Choose three.)
A. AMR
B. G.711 A-law
C. G.711 ?lawG.711 ?-law
D. G.722
E. G.729
F. WPA2

Correct Answer: BCE

 

 

QUESTION 41
A single BlackBerry Enterprise Server instance can be associated with how many BlackBerry MVS Session Managers? (Choose one.)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 42
What must an organization PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)What must an organization? PBX be able to do with DTMF tones? (Choose two)
A. Detect and intercept DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
B. Replace DTMF tones with silence from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
C. Remove DTMF tones from the cellular call leg between the PBX and BlackBerry devices
D. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using KPML notification
E. Notify the BlackBerry MVS Server of the DTMF tones using HTML notification

Correct Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 43

What is the maximum round trip ping time supported between the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager? (Choose one)
A. 40 milliseconds
B. 80 milliseconds
C. 120 milliseconds
D. 240 milliseconds
E. 480 milliseconds

Correct Answer: D

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200-310 pdf QUESTION 1
You have determined that your J2EE EJB tier applications should deployed to a WebLogic Cluster in order to achieve the necessary scalability requirements. When considering adequate network bandwidth to minimize lost multicast packets, which activity is likely to generate the greatest concentration of multicast traffic?
A. JNDI updates
B. JMS Server migration
C. JMX Mbean monitoring
D. HTTP Session replication
E. WebLogic cluster heartbeats

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 2
Which UML artifact best describes a Business Process?
A. Data Model
B. State Diagram
C. Workflow Detail
D. Activity Diagram
E. Sequence Diagram

Correct Answer: D
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 3
In planning most architecture it is considered to be a best practice to avoid long-running XA-transactions. Which of the following is the most compelling reason?
A. Performance can suffer due to potential XA-resource concurrency bottlenecks
B. With the XA two-phase commit protocol, there is a greater chance for heuristic conditions
C. Client applications with shorter transaction timeouts may not wait long enough for transactions to be completed.
D. Each in-flight transaction requires a unique XID, performance is impacted by excessive transaction context switching
E. Deadlock situations can occur within the Transaction Manager by typing up all the available threads involved in transaction

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true related to java Virtual Machine (JVM) issues with your weblogic server deployments?
A. WebLogic Server does not permit manually forced garbage collection on the JVM
B. The BEA JRockit JVM must be used to allow for garbage collection scheme choice
C. WebLogic Server interfaces within the same cluster may use different typed of JVMs
D. A change to the maximum heap size of the JVM does not require a WebLogic server restart
E. Greater performance is usually achieved by deploying a single multithreaded weblogic server instance to multiple JVMs.

Correct Answer: C
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 5
You have determined that your web applications will be deployed to a weblogic cluster for high availability. You want to ensure that all HTTP session data is available to other members of the cluster in case of server failure., but replication performance is a high priority. Based on this requirement, which approach would be best to incorporate into your design?
A. File-based session persistence
B. In-memory session persistence
C. Single memory-based session
D. JDBC-based session persistence
E. XA-based rapid session synchronization

Correct Answer: B
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 6
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, services in the Connectivity Layer tend to be;
A. Fine-grained and Synchronous
B. Fine-grained and Asynchronous
C. Coarse-grained and synchronous
D. Coarse-grained and Asynchronous
E. Both Coarse-grained and Fine-Grained

Correct Answer: A
200-310 pdf  QUESTION 7
Which of the following XML-related standards are NOT used in Liquid Data?
A. XSLT
B. Xpath
C. SOAP
D. XqUERY
E. Xml schema

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?
A. time schedules
B. calling periods
C. dial schedules
D. time periods

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?
A. The route list applied to the route pattern
B. The device pool of the calling device
C. The translation pattern
D. The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 6
The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?
A. The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
B. Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
C. If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
D. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
E. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability
C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about Cisco VCS Addressing Zones are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can be local to the Cisco VCS or can be remote.
B. A zone is a collection of endpoints that share the same dialing behavior and bandwidth settings.
C. They consist of traversal and nontraversal zones.
D. They can only be local.
E. They consist of subzones such as DNS zones.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which four call coverage features are used by voice gateways? (Choose four.)
A. call hunt
B. Call Park
C. Call Pickup
D. call redirecting
E. overlaid phone-dn
F. basic automatic call distribution
G. overlaid ephone-dn
H. basic manual call distribution
Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

When users call number 00044156789453, they have to wait for several seconds before the call is sent. Which action sends the call immediately?
A. In the translation pattern, change the CSS.
B. In the route pattern, check the Allow Device Override check box.
C. In the route pattern, check the Urgent Priority check box.
D. In the translation pattern, check the Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number check box.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which three options are valid SIP URI formats? (Choose three.)
A. [email protected]
B. tel:[email protected]
C. phone:[email protected]
D. sip:[email protected]:5060;user=phone
E. sip:bob.cisco.com
Correct Answer: ABD

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Pass Latest Updated Cisco 210-065 Exam Answers

QUESTION 15
A technician has installed and powered on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5320 and is connected via the console port. The technician needs to determine the IP settings that were automatically assigned via DHCP. Which command should be entered?
A. xstatus
B. show network eth0
C. status
D. help static

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
The firmware for the primary codec of a Cisco TelePresence System 3010 is being upgraded. Which codec CLI command could be used to check on the progress of the update?
A. utils upgrade display
B. utils system version
C. show upgrade detail
D. show system upgrade

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A large company wants to procure video conference devices that allow multipoint conferences from C-Series and immersive endpoints that are registered to a Cisco VCS and Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two components meet the requirements of this company? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch registered to Cisco VCS
B. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TelePresence Server registered to Cisco VCS
D. Cisco C-Series endpoint with a multisite option key registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch trunked to Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 19
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Management would like to set up a permanent recurring Cisco TelePresence meeting where the team would dial into to a preconfigured number. Which meeting type should be used?
A. scheduled conference
B. ad hoc conference
C. rendezvous conference

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QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5

E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 6
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

 

 

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QUESTION 10
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker
B. deny packet
C. modify packet
D. request block connection
E. request block host
F. reset TCP connection

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 101
You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see “two-way/DROTHER” listed as the state for neighbor 10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1 1 1 is not a DR or BDR
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan.
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
In which of these phases is a customer’s network assessed to determine its system readiness?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A concern has been expressed that the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration statements can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switch port port-security
B. switch port port-security tagging
C. switch port accessvlan
D. switch port doublE.tag snooping
E. switch port mode access

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. Cisco Works Unrestricted
B. Cisco Works SNMS
C. Campus Manager D. Resource Management Essentials

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
A. theip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. The ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. The neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. The framE.relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 50
When designing, why would a network architect use active performance monitoring instead of passive performance monitoring?
A. To collect history and event statistics (specific to network devices)
B. To decrease Router CPU utilization on end systems (both user and server)
C. To maintain accurate network statistics (independent of end systems)
D. For performance verification (independent of application servers and users)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Assume that Telnet users of your company are experiencing delays caused by cyclic congestion spikes. Traffic analysis shows minimal use of UDP. Which technology can be used to solve this problem?
A. Committed Access Rate
B. Class Based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Deficit Round Robin
D. Weighted RED
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
When you decide on Campus QoS Design elements, which two statements correctly identify considerations to be taken into account?
A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue.
B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue.
C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service.
D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 53
During periods of congestion, which two impacts are of traffic shaping on traffic flows? (Choose two)
A. More packets dropped
B. Fewer packets dropped
C. Less bandwidth consumption
D. Increased delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 54
WRED is short for Weighted Random Early Detection. Which two descriptions are correct concerning WRED? (Choose two)
A. WRED allows thresholds to be applied to give higher priority applications access to limited buffer resources.
B. WRED throttles TCP-based applications to avoid congestion within the queue servicing the traffic.
C. WRED can inform remote devices that there is congestion on the network by setting the pause bit within the ToS field, instructing end devices to throttle their transmissions.
D. WRED provides bandwidth guarantees for packets within a queue, and tells the scheduler the order in which queues should be served.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 55
You are a network technician. A service provider is providing a QoS-based transport service. Three classes have been defined in the core, including an Expedited Forwarding (EF) class for VoIP traffic.
Which tool will you use at the ingress for the EF class?
A. CB-WFQ
B. WRED
C. Shaping
D. Policing
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
A service provider is offering four classes of service, with each class mapped to a separate queue. Some customers complain about receiving out-of-order packets, which cause application degradation.
Which QoS policy activity most likely causes these out-of-order packets?
A. WRED
B. Policing
C. Traffic shaping
D. Remarking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
You are a network technician. Study the exhibit carefully. All links provided in the network are equal cost, and Router1 is configured to use per packet load sharing. One-way latencies for each route are displayed on the diagram.
Which option is true about packets sent from Network A to Network B?
Exhibit: A. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router 1.

B. Any out-of-order packets will be buffered and sent in order by CBWFQ, configured on Router 3.
C. Network B may receive out-of-order packets due to excessive latency on the Router 4- 3 link.
D. Router 1 will not use Router 4 and 3, because it will detect delayed TCP ACK packets coming from that path.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Users at the your Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer-to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
B. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
C. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
D. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame Relay link, what should be used in the CPE?
A. Fragmentation
B. Prioritization
C. Classification
D. Traffic shaping
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 60
Fair queuing is a scheduling algorithm used in computer and telecommunications networks to allow multiple packet flows to fairly share the link capacity. How does Fair Queuing divide bandwidth?
A. Between all destinations relative to traffic load
B. Between classes of service based on traffic load
C. Equally between all classes of service
D. Equally between all flows
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two)
A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees.
B. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
C. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.
D. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 62
RSVP is short for Resource Reservation Protocol. Which statement is true about the RSVP protocol?
A. It is initiated uni-directionally along the data path downstream from each requesting node.
B. It is only for avoiding packet drop on collision-prone media (such as Ethernet).
C. It is only shared by pairs of peers participating in delay-sensitive, real-time applications like VoIP.
D. It is reserved bi-directionally by each originating node.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Which description is true about RSVP reservations?
A. Dynamic, allocated when requested, and removed at the end of each session for which they were requested
B. Static, and must always be installed after power-up
C. Static, and cannot be removed once they are first requested by a delay-sensitive, real-time application
D. Dynamic, and depend on the amount of delay-sensitive, real-time data passing through

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
LLQ is short for Low Latency Queue .VoIP traffic is mapped to (LLQ) over a slow speed link. Which kind of delay will seriously affect the quality of voice for this link?
A. Encoding delay
B. Packetization delay
C. Propagation delay
D. Serialization delay

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
Which control plane problem can be prevented by implementing QoS, and how to eliminate the problem?
A. BGP instability, by prioritizing Precedence 6 traffic (per RFC 791)
B. OSPF instability, by remarking to Precedence 6 (per RFC 791)
C. OSPF instability, by using WRED to prioritize Precedence 6 routing updates (per RFC 791)
D. BGP instability, by means of traffic shaping updates (per RFC 791) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Header compression is the most cost-effective way to increase link efficiency for VoIP traffic.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
C. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?
A. Packet loss of 2 percent or less
B. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
C. One-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
D. Jitter of 30 ms or less

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
You are the Cisco Network Designer . Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Gold
B. QoS must be set to Platinum
C. QoS must be set to Silver
D. WMM must be enabled

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 70
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Your company is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point?
A. 20
B. 10
C. 14
D. 5

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71

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