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QUESTION 1
Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How much power is the system currently using?
A. 663 W
B. 1150 W
C. 1850 W
D. 6000 W
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Refer to the show environmental power-supply command output exhibit. How many additional line cards of the same type that are currently in the system can you safely install and remain redundant in the worse power usage if there is a power supply failure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum long-term normal operating temperature of the Cisco CRS-1, ASR 9000 Series Routers, and XR 12000 Series Routers?
A. 40C (104F)
B. 50C (122F)
C. 55C (131F)
D. 65C (149F)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
The Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis Site Planning Guide suggests having 48 inches of clearance behind the chassis. What would definitely happen to the system if there were only 28 inches of clearance behind the Cisco CRS 16-Slot Line Card Chassis?
A. The system would overheat due to inadequate airflow.
B. The fabric card could not be exchanged if one failed.

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QUESTION: 1 What is one example of typical business requirements that are driving the design of installed base data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. virtualization
C. greater collaboration
D. physical space
Answer: C
QUESTION: 2 What documents are not typically an output that is deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. troubleshooting procedures
D. migration plan

Answer: C
QUESTION: 3 What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources

Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 What is a typical output of the design planning phase that characterizes an existing data center?
A. a high-level conceptual architecture proposal
B. a gap analysis
C. a verification plan
D. reactive fault detection and correction

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. Layer 2 default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 6 Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS—classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B, E, G
QUESTION: 7 Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS—policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols like OSPF
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users

Answer: C, F, H
QUESTION: 8 Which protocols are Cisco recommended for connecting the main data center to a remote data center?

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QUESTION 1
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)
A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.

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QUESTION 1
Which business portfolio is appropriate for the customer who has sophisticated requirements and is looking for scalability?
A. Built for Small Business
B. Fit Small Business
C. Right for Small Business
D. Simple Small Business

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which Built for Small Business Cisco security product offers a simplified out-of-the-box solution for the small business customer?
A. Cisco SA500 Series
B. Cisco 800 Series ISR G2
C. Cisco 2900 Series ISR G2
D. Cisco ASA 5500 Series

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which series in the Cisco Unified IP Phone Portfolio includes a conference phone and wireless IP phone?
A. 3900Series
B. 6900Series
C. 7900 Series
D. 8900Series

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which two advantages does Cisco Business Edition 3000 have over competitors? (Choose two)
A. Flexible secure wireless guest and employee access
B. lower total cost of ownership
C. positioned as a jack-of-all-trades platform
D. simplicity of initial configuration and deployment
E. use of multiple appliances that support up to 300 users
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5
What are two advantages that the Cisco SA520 all-in-one UTM
A. Access control lists
B. higher bandwidth
C. Virtual private networks
D. URL filtering
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 6
What are the three main pillars of the Cisco One Product Portfolio for small business customer*?

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit The pictures on the right are the internal components of the Cisco UCS 6250 Blade Server Which component image should be applied to which empty component block?
A. CPU for block A, adapter card for block B, hard drive for block C. memory for block D
B. CPU for block C. adapter card for block D, hard drive for block A. memory for block B
C. CPU for block B, adapter card for block C, hard drive for block D, memory for block B
D. CPU for block D. adapter card for block A. hard drive for block B. memory for block C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which two commands or key sequences display a list of the available commands in the Cisco NX-OS prompt UCS-switch (nxos) #? (Choose two)
A. Tab (key)
B. help
C. ?
D. ~ (tilde key)
E. w
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit
Which tab displays the hard disk drives that are installed?

A. A-CPUs
B. B – Memory
C. Power Supplies
D. D – Storage
E. E -Adapters

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device types of Overall Status are acceptable and do not indicate failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which cable is used to access the command-line -interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

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QUESTION 24
Refer to the topology exhibit.
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the BR1 site loses connectivity to the SAF network, the call to extension 3001 fails to reroute via the PSTN.
Examine the SDI trace in the exhibit.
What is the most likely cause of the failure?
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
A. The full E.164 number for extension 3001 could not be constructed.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the HQ site was unable to determine the ToDlD number to extension 3001.
C. The calling phone line CSS does not have access to the V route pattern.
D. CCD requesting service does not have the correct partition configured for CCD learned patterns
E. The AAR CSS for the HQ phone does not have access to the \\ route pattern.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
All directory number extensions are assigned to the Internal_LP partition. All phones are configured with only a line CSS, BR1 Jntl.CSS. Assuming the gateway has been configured correctly.

100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
100% Real Q&As | 100% Real Pass
When the two PSTN callers place a call to 02288223002, which of the following statements is true?
A. The caller at 7700990255 will succeed. The caller at 2079460255 will fail
B. The caller at 2079460255 will succeed. The caller at 7700990255 will fail
C. Both calls will succeed.
D. Both calls will fail
E. Both calls will fail. However, the caller at 7700990255 can still reach 3001 because 7700990255 is the Remote Destination of 3001
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Which course of action will resolve the Mobile Connect issues that are shown in the exhibit?

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QUESTION 105
Which statement best describes the relationships between AAA function and TACACS+, RADIUS based on the exhibit shown?

A. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS3 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS4
B. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS3
C. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS3
D. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TSS3 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Which two statements are correct regarding a Cisco IP phone’s web access feature? (Choose two.)
A. It is enabled by default.
B. It uses HTTPS.
C. It can provide IP address information about other servers in the network.
D. It requires login credentials, based on the UCM user database.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 107
Which option ensures that data is not modified in transit?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Authorization
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
What is a static packet-filtering firewall used for ?
A. It analyzes network traffic at the network and transport protocol layers.
B. It validates the fact that a packet is either a connection request or a data packet belonging to a connection.
C. It keeps track of the actual communication process through the use of a state table.
D. It evaluates network packets for valid data at the application layer before allowing connections.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which firewall best practices can help mitigate worm and other automated attacks?
A. Restrict access to firewalls
B. Segment security zones
C. Use logs and alerts
D. Set connection limits

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which statement best describes the Turbo ACL feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Turbo ACL feature processes ACLs into lookup tablesfor greater efficiency.

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QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.

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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Spam protection
B. Outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. Email encryption
E. DDoS protection

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps10128/ps10154/data-sheet-c78- 729751.html
Product Overview Over the past 20 years, email has evolved from a tool used primarily by technical and research professionals to become the backbone of corporate communications. Each day, more than 100 billion corporate email messages are exchanged. As the level of use rises, security becomes a greater priority. Mass spam campaigns are no longer the only concern. Today, spam and malware are just part of a complex picture that includes inbound threats and outbound risks. Cisco. Email Security solutions defend mission-critical email systems with appliance, virtual, cloud, and hybrid solutions. The industry leader in email security solutions, Cisco delivers:
Fast, comprehensive email protection that can block spam and threats before they even hit your network

Flexible cloud, virtual, and physical deployment options to meet your ever-changing business needs

Outbound message control through on-device data-loss prevention (DLP), email encryption, and optional integration with the RSA enterprise DLP solution

One of the lowest total cost of ownership (TCO) email security solutions available

QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.)
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. trojan horse attack
C. pharming attack
D. denial of service attack
E. day zero attack

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/web/IN/about/network/threat_defense.html
Rogue developers create such threats by using worms, viruses, or application-embedded attacks. Botnets can be used to seed an attack, for example, rogue developers can use worms or application-embedded attacks, that is an attack that is hidden within application traffic such as web traffic or peer-to-peer shared files, to deposit “Trojans”. This combination of attack techniques – a virus or worm used to deposit a Trojan, for example-is relatively new and is known as a blended attack. A blended attack can also occur in phases: an initial attack of a virus with a Trojan that might open up an unsecured port on a computer, disable an access control list (ACL), or disarm antivirus software, with the goal of a more devastating attack to follow soon after. Host Firewall on servers and desktops/ laptops, day zero protection & intelligent behavioral based protection from application vulnerability and related flaws (within or inserted by virus, worms or Trojans) provided great level of confidence on what is happening within an organization on a normal day and when there is a attack situation, which segment and what has gone wrong and gives flexibility and control to stop such situations by having linkages of such devices with monitoring, log-analysis and event co-relation system.

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QUESTION 56
What does the command “IP ARP synchronize” do in a vPC configuration?
A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes
B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary
C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored
D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?
A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?

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