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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem?
A. The VLAN database was not erased.
B. The management VLAN is disabled.
C. The running configuration should have been erased.
D. The “mode” button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.
E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF QUESTION 5

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7
The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network. Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Correct Answer: BEF

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QUESTION 8
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 10
An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP. Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. show ip protocols
B. show ip route rip
C. show interfaces
D. debug rip routing
E. debug ip rip
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?
A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses
B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?
A. standard
B. extended
C. dynamic
D. reflexive
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which command displays the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers?
A. debug chap authentication
B. debug authentication
C. debug chap ppp
D. debug ppp authentication
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
An organization is concerned that too many employees are wasting company time accessing the Internet. Which access list statement would stop World Wide Web access for employees on the range of subnets from 172.16.8.0/24 to 172.16.11.0/24?
A. access-list 103 deny tcp 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.3 any eq 80
B. access-list 103 deny tcp 172.16.8.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 80
C. access-list 103 deny http 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 any
D. access-list 103 deny tcp any 172.16.8.0 0.0.3.255 eq 80
E. access-list 103 deny tcp 172.16.8.0 0.0.11.255 any eq 80
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 17
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues? (Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 19
Workstation A has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.24/28. Workstation B has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.100/28. The two workstations are connected with a straight- through cable. Attempts to ping between the hosts are unsuccessful. What are two things that could be attempted that would allow communications between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable.
B. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25.
C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26.
D. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15.
E. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 21
Which two data link layers are supported by Cisco IOS Software for IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. FDDI
B. PPP
C. NBMA
D. Frame Relay SVC
E. Frame Relay PVC
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 22
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1#show running-config
D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 24
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. one-to-many communication model
B. one-to-nearest communication model
C. any-to-many communication model
D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
E. the same address for multiple devices in the group
F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Correct Answer: BEF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 5
A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 6
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:
hostname Gateway
interface FastEthernet 0/0
ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248
no shutdown
interface FastEthernet 0/1
ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252
no shutdown
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1
What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. STP
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Correct Answer: CF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices can an administrator use to segment their LAN? (Choose all that apply)
A. Hubs
B. Repeaters
C. Switches
D. Bridges
E. Routers
F. Media Converters
G. All of the above
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
Routers perform which of the following functions? (Select three)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 3
Within the Certkiller office, The Sales and Production networks are separated by a router as shown in the diagram below:

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics of the above networks broadcast and collision domains? (Select the two best answer choices)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 4
The Certkiller corporate LAN consists of one large flat network. You decide to segment this LAN into two separate networks with a router. What will be the affect of this change?
A. The number of broadcast domains will be decreased.
B. It will make the broadcasting of traffic between domains more efficient between segments.
C. It will increase the number of collisions.
D. It will prevent segment 1’s broadcasts from getting to segment 2.
E. It will connect segment 1’s broadcasts to segment 2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are benefits of segmenting a network with a router? (Select all that apply)
A. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.
B. All broadcasts are completely eliminated.
C. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
D. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
E. Routers are more efficient than switches and will process the data more quickly.
F. None of the above.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 6
The Certkiller Texas branch network is displayed in the following diagram:

Of the following choices, which IP address should be assigned to the PC host?
A. 192.168.5.5
B. 192.168.5.32
C. 192.168.5.40
D. 192.168.5.63
E. 192.168.5.75
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
The Certkiller .com network is displayed in the diagram below:

Based on the diagram above, how many collision domains are present in the Certkiller .com network?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five
F. Six
G. Fourteen

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
The Certkiller network is displayed in the following diagram:

Based on the diagram shown above, which of the devices shown can transmit simultaneously without causing collisions?
A. All hosts
B. Only hosts attached to the switch
C. All hosts attached to the hub and one host attached to the switch
D. All hosts attached to the switch and one host attached to the hub
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
The Certkiller network is displayed in the diagram below: Referring to the devices shown above, which statements are true in this scenario? (Select two)

A. All the devices in both networks will receive a broadcast to 255.255.255.255 sent by host Certkiller A.
B. Only the devices in network 192.168.1.0 will recive a broadcast to 255.255.255.255 sent by host Certkiller A.
C. All the devices on both networks are members of the same collision domain.
D. The hosts on the 192.168.1.0 network form one collision domain, and the hosts on the 192.168.2.0 network form a second collision domain.
E. Each host is in a separate collision domain.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the choices below, which address represents a unicast address?
A. 224.1.5.2
B. FFFF. FFFF. FFFF.
C. 192.168.24.59/30
D. 255.255.255.255
E. 172.31.128.255/18
Correct Answer: E

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An access list was written with the four statements shown in the graphic. Which single access list statement will combine all four of these statements into a single statement that will have exactly the same effect?

A. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.0.255
B. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.1.255
C. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.3.255
D. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.15.255
E. access-list 10 permit 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

A. 172.1.0.0/22
B. 172.1.0.0/21
C. 172.1.4.0/22
D. 172.1.4.0/24172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
E. 172.1.4.0/25172.1.4.128/25172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which routing protocols can be used within the enterprise network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)

A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. BGP
F. EIGRP
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?

A. Host B should be in VLAN 13.
B. The address of host C is incorrect.
C. The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.
D. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.
E. The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.
Correct Answer: B

Cisco 640-801 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-801 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6
The user of Host1 wants to ping the DSL modem/router at 192.168.1.254. Based on the Host1 ARP table
that is shown in the exhibit, what will Host1 do?

A. send a unicast ARP packet to the DSL modem/router
B. send unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modem/router
C. send Layer 3 broadcast packets to which the DSL modem/router responds
D. send a Layer 2 broadcast that is received by Host2, the switch, and the DSL modem/router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
An internetwork has been configured as shown in the diagram, with both routers using EIGRP routing for AS 44. Users on the Branch router are unable to reach any of the subnets on the HQ router. Which of the following commands is necessary to fix this problem?

A. Branch(config-router)# version 2
B. Branch(config-router)# no auto-summary
C. Branch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 44
D. Branch(config-router)# eigrp log-neighbor-changes
E. Branch(config-router)# default-information originate
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
C. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?
A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk.
B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command.
C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.
D. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning
B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
C. STPl independence
D. 10 Gbps bandwidth
E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?
A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.
B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.
C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.
D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.
B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.
C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group.
D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer ports in an ISL.
E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.)
A. virtualization
B. unified I/O
C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card
D. support for Data Center Service Modules
E. high performance
F. high availability
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 5
Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct?
A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoE NPV
mode.
B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch.
C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function as a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder.
D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such as IVR.
E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder and Fibre Channel Bridge functions.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?
A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.
B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.
C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and destination ID load balancing are used.
D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches.
E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain inactive.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager?
A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switches
B. save and copy configuration files and software images
C. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channels
D. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEX
E. configure FCoE
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switches
B. Faster throughput
C. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environment
D. Support for increased number of VSANs
E. Support for SAN port channels
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a module that does not match the resource type is installed?
A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an “admin down” state.
B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.
C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.
D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for the system MAC address?
A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco.
B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to ensure uniqueness.
C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system backplane.
D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed in the switch.
Correct Answer: C

The Most Recommended Cisco 350-060 Certification For Free Download Questions And Answer

Exam A QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media gateway

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are standards-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL.
D. NEBS
E. eTOM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time

Correct Answer: ABD

Flydumps – 2016 Hottest Cisco 350-060 Questions And Answer Study Guide To Ensure You 100% Pass

Exam A
QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media gateway
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are standards-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL.
D. NEBS
E. eTOM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 11
According to ITIL. v3 framework, which improvement should be implemented if there is an increase in the number of false positive auto-generated incidents?
A. Update the known error database.
B. Modify the thresholds in the network management system.
C. Modify the incident management system classifications.
D. Update the service desk procedures.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose three)
A. NetFlow records unidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. NetFlow records MPLS frame flow.
C. NetFlow expert is only over TCP.
D. NetFlow records is only over UDP.
E. NetFlow records subinterface information of traffic flow.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose three)
A. LCP is used for PPP over ATM (PPPoA) setup.
B. LCP is used for PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE) setup.
C. LCP is used for PPP over Ethernet (PPPoPR) setup.
D. LCP is used for PPP CHAP authentication.
E. LCP is used for basic PPP link setup and operation.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 3
How many messages does Internet Key Exchange use to negotiate SA characteristics when it runs in aggressive mode?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
E. 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
What does RPL stand for?
A. routing primary language
B. routing policy language
C. routing police language
D. routing program language
E. routing protocol language
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. Updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 7
What is the data encapsulation method for the VPLS virtual circuit (VC)?
A. MAC over MPLS
B. L2TPV3
C. 802.1 QinQ
D. Ethernet over MPLS
E. GRE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What is the Cisco IOS default behavior for switching from the shared tree to the shortest path tree in PIM-SM operations?
A. immediately after receiving the first packet on the shared tree for a given (S,G)
B. after receiving over 1 kb/s traffic onthe shared tree for a given (S,G)
C. 10 seconds after receiving the first packet on the shared tree for a given (S,G)
D. 30 seconds after receiving the first packet on the shared tree for a given (S,G)
E. after receiving over 10 kb/s traffic onthe shared tree for a given (S,G)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which four statements about the Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) feature are true? (Choose four)
A. MPLS is required between the PE and CE routers that connect the backbone carrier to the customer carrier.
B. The backbone carrier must enable the PE router to check that the packets it receives from the CE router contain only the labels that the PE router advertised to the CE router.
C. Every packet that crosses the backbone carrier must be encapsulated so that the packet includes MPLS labels
D. AII PE routers that link the backbone carrier to the customer carrier must run Route Target Rewrite.
E. Arouting protocol is required between the PE and CE routers that connect the backbone carrier to the customer carrier. The routing protocol enables the customer carrier to exchange IGP routing information with the backbone carrier.
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 10
Which of these is not a component of MPLS traffic engineering?
A. trunk admission control
B. forwarding traffic to tunnel
C. information distribution
D. path selection, calculation, and setup
E. traffic patterns prediction
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about OSPF IPv6 routing are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires OSPF version 3.
B. automatically detects neighbors over NHMA interfaces
C. It supports encryption using
D. It uses LSA type 9
E. It uses LSA type 8
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Resilient Ethernet Protocol (REP), how many ports are always blocking?
A. zero
B. at least one
C. at least two
D. at least four
E. at least three
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which statement about ATM AAL5 over MPLS is true?
A. It supports ATM signaling.
B. It supports traffic shaping of packets in MPLS to the ATM path.
C. It supports ATM switched virtual circuits
D. It supports fragmentation and reassembly.
E. It supports AAL5 SDU switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about MPLS point-to-multipoint traffic engineering (P2MP TE) are true? (Choose two)
A. P2MP TE uses an OSPF extension that is different from the OSPF extension that is used in P2P TE.
B. Loose path is not supported in P2MP TE.
C. Multiple IP multicast groups can map to one P2MP tunnel.
D. Affinity is not supported in P2MP TE.
E. P2MP TE uses Constrained Shortest Path First (CSPF) to calculate paths.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
In which Cisco IOS configuration mode is the route distinguisher (RD) configured?
A. R1(config-route-at)# “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 350-029 Exam
B. R1(config-route-map)#
C. R1(config-it)#
D. R1(config-vrf)#
E. R1(config)#
F. R1(router)#
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which two features prevent routing loops between the OSPF sites of a customer when the sites are multihomed or a backdoor link is used between the sites? (Choose two.)
A. sham link
B. down bit
C. virtual link
D. Site of Origin
E. domain tag
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 8
In which two ways does the BGP graceful capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two)
A. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routers that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing tables.
B. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from others that are also capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the neighboring routers send end-of-RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router starts sending its own updates.
C. The peer router sends an end-of-RIB message to the restarting router.
D. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
E. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 350-029 Exam
Which four of these statements are restrictions for Frame Relay PVC bundles with QoS support for IP and MPLS? (Choose four)
A. A PVC bundle will not come up unless all the precedence, DSCP, and EXP levels are configured in the bundle.
B. A PVC bundle can perform precedence and DSCP matching at the same time
C. A PVC bundle may contain no more than sixteen PVCs
D. A PVC can be in only one PVC bundle
E. A PVC bundle cannot perform precedence and DSCP matching at the same time.
F. A PVC bundle may contain no more than eight PVCs.
Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 10
When the Cisco IOS OSPF command ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 5 is configured, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF hello interval is 5 seconds
B. OSPF hello interval is 1 second
C. OSPF dead interval is 1 second
D. OSPF dead interval is 5 seconds
E. OSPF dead interval is 20 seconds
F. OSPF hello interval is 0.2 second
Correct Answer: CF

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following events can NOT be tuned via router configuration to provide for faster convergence following a link failure?
A. Failure detection
B. IGP LSP/LSA origination
C. Per-hop flooding time of new link state
D. Number of hops that need to be notified of new link state
E. Failure reporting

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What best explains the BGP route-reflector function?
A. None of the above.
B. BGP route-reflector does not have to be in the forwarding path of data coming from its clients.
C. BGP route-reflector will stop reflecting the routes if they’re not directly-connected clients.
D. BGP route-reflector should be in forwarding path of data coming from its clients.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
In Any Transport over MPLS (AtoM) Control word is an optional 4-byte field used in the pseudowire packet. The control word carries generic and Layer 2 payload-specific information to emulate L2 packets correctly. In pseudowire packet, where is this Control Word inserted ?
A. Inserted between the MPLS label stack and the Layer 3 payload
B. Inserted between the MPLS label stack and the Layer 3 Header
C. Inserted between the MPLS label stack and the Layer 2 payload
D. Inserted between the MPLS label stack and the Layer 2 header

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
What is the proper MP-BGP configuration between the shown PE routers to implement MPLS VPNs on PE-R2 ?

A. None of the above
B. router bgp 1 neighbor 50.0.0.4 remote-as 1 neighbor 50.0.0.4 update-source Loopback0 no auto-summary ! address-family ipv4 neighbor 50.0.0.4 activate neighbor 50.0.0.4 send-community extended exit-address-family
C. router bgp 1 neighbor 50.0.0.4 remote-as 1 neighbor 50.0.0.4 update-source Loopback0 no auto-summary ! address-family vpnv4 neighbor 50.0.0.4 activate neighbor 50.0.0.4 send-community extended exit-address-family
D. router bgp 1 neighbor 50.0.0.4 remote-as 1 neighbor 50.0.0.4 update-source Loopback0 no auto-summary ! address-family vpnv4 unicast multicast neighbor 50.0.0.4 activate neighbor 50.0.0.4 send-community extended exit-address-family

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What is the importance of using Virtual Output Queues on ingress Line Cards in a high- end router?
A. Increases forwarding performance
B. Simplifies configuration
C. Prevents head-of-line blocking
D. Uses less memory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about MD5 Routing Updates authentication is valid? (Select two)
A. The MD5 algorithm inputs the routing updates of arbitrary length and outputs a 128- bit hash
B. The MD5 algorithm inputs the routing updates of every 64bit length and outputs an 8-bit hash
C. Multiple keys are supported
D. Routing updates packets are delivered in encrypted messages
E. Shared secret keys are delivered in encrypted messages
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
In which of the following BGP-related events is an End-of-RIB (EOR) message sent?
A. Just before sending a CEASE message to tear down the session.
B. During capability negotiation.
C. During initial convergence.
D. Following a link flap in the BGP speaker’s AS.
E. Following a Route Processor Switchover.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
What is the requirement of Remote Triggered Black Hole (RTBH ) filtering?
A. ISIS updates exchange between trigger router and black hole router
B. EBGP updates exchange between trigger router and black hole router
C. None of above
D. OSPF updates exchange between trigger router and black hole router
E. IBGP updates exchange between trigger router and black hole router
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
RIPv2 differs from RIPv1 in that:
A. it uses multicast address 224.0.0.10,instead of broadcast.
B. it uses multicast address 224.0.0.9,instead of broadcast.
C. it can use either multicast or broadcast addresses,instead of just broadcast.
D. it sends incremental updates,instead of periodic updates.
E. it is classless,instead of classful
F. it supports authentication,and RIPv1 does not
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 10
Which 4 statements regarding MPLS Label Stack Encoding is true?
A. A value of 4 represents the “Implicit NULL Label.”
B. A value of 0 represents the “IPv4 Explicit NULL Label.”
C. A value of 1 represents the “Router Alert Label”. The use of this label is analogous to the use of the “Router Alert Option” in IP packets (for example, ping with record route option).
D. A value of 2 represents the “IPv6 Explicit NULL Label”
E. A value of 1 represents the “IPv1 Explicit NULL Label”
F. A value of 3 represents the “Implicit NULL Label”
Correct Answer: BCDF