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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Spam protection
B. Outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. Email encryption
E. DDoS protection
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps10128/ps10154/data-sheet-c78- 729751.html
Product Overview Over the past 20 years, email has evolved from a tool used primarily by technical and research professionals to become the backbone of corporate communications. Each day, more than 100 billion corporate email messages are exchanged. As the level of use rises, security becomes a greater priority. Mass spam campaigns are no longer the only concern. Today, spam and malware are just part of a complex picture that includes inbound threats and outbound risks. Cisco. Email Security solutions defend mission-critical email systems with appliance, virtual, cloud, and hybrid solutions. The industry leader in email security solutions, Cisco delivers:
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QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.)
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. trojan horse attack
C. pharming attack
D. denial of service attack
E. day zero attack
Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/web/IN/about/network/threat_defense.html
Rogue developers create such threats by using worms, viruses, or application-embedded attacks. Botnets can be used to seed an attack, for example, rogue developers can use worms or application-embedded attacks, that is an attack that is hidden within application traffic such as web traffic or peer-to-peer shared files, to deposit “Trojans”. This combination of attack techniques – a virus or worm used to deposit a Trojan, for example-is relatively new and is known as a blended attack. A blended attack can also occur in phases: an initial attack of a virus with a Trojan that might open up an unsecured port on a computer, disable an access control list (ACL), or disarm antivirus software, with the goal of a more devastating attack to follow soon after. Host Firewall on servers and desktops/ laptops, day zero protection & intelligent behavioral based protection from application vulnerability and related flaws (within or inserted by virus, worms or Trojans) provided great level of confidence on what is happening within an organization on a normal day and when there is a attack situation, which segment and what has gone wrong and gives flexibility and control to stop such situations by having linkages of such devices with monitoring, log-analysis and event co-relation system.
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QUESTION 56
What does the command “IP ARP synchronize” do in a vPC configuration?
A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes
B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary
C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored
D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?
A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?
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QUESTION 107
What is IPv6 router solicitation?
A. a request made by a node for the IP address of the local router
B. a request made by a node for its IP address
C. a request made by a node for the IP address of the DHCP server
D. a request made by a node to join a specified multicast group
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
For IPv6, what term or phrase best describesa type 9 LSA in OSPF?
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QUESTION 110
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. flow label
C. dual stack
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. mobile IP
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three.)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 haspreempt configured.
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QUESTION 123
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled by R5 in OSPF area 5?
A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only.
C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 126
Which two statements are true about port security? (Choose two.)
A. With port security configured, four MAC addressesare allowed by default.
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QUESTION 50
Certkiller .com has a central site that is connected to a branch office via a 1.544-Mbps T1 Frame Relay circuit. The branch office has 20 video-enabled users in it. Least cost routing is used. It is required that all 20 users are able to use video services simultaneously for internal calls. Which solution best meets this objective?
A. Route video calls up to the central site in order to save on toll charges.
B. Upgrade the 1.544-Mbps T1 circuit to higher bandwidth.
C. Deploy an IP-videoconferencing video gateway at the branch office and not bother with LCR.
D. Use the Retry Video Call as Audio feature to reroute video calls as voice-only calls if they exceed the available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
In order for Cisco IP/VC 3500 Series MCU to register with a gatekeeper, which two parameters must be checked? (Choose two.)
A. RAS registration with video gateway
B. registration method, use multicast or specify IP address and port number
C. registration of gateway name and domain name
D. set TTL in gateway
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
When a H.323 device queries a gatekeeper for a route to a destination E.164 address, to which Cisco CallManager server in a cluster does the gatekeeper send the call?
A. The gatekeeper will use the Cisco CallManager server that is configured with the highest priority.
B. The gatekeeper will send the call to all the active Cisco CallManager servers in the cluster.
C. The gatekeeper will randomly distribute the calls to the Cisco CallManager servers that are defined in the Cisco CallManager group that the trunk will use.
D. The gatekeeper will use the gateway that is configured with the preference of 0 in the gw-priority command.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Certkiller .com currently has a room-based videoconferencing system that is connected to the PSTN via three BRIs. Certkiller .com is converting to H.323 and would like to continue using the BRIs to make video calls to the suppliers. Which device should the company deploy?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511
B. Cisco IPVC 3521
C. Cisco IPVC 3526
D. Cisco IPVC 3540
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
How should the IP-to-IP gateway be configured to support video codecs across all dial peers?
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QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the switch SW2 is connected to the rest of the network in the VTP domain Lab_Network?
A. The recently introduced switch SW2 adds one more VLAN to the VLAN database in the VTP domain.
B. The recently introduced switch SW2 creates a STP loop in the VTP domain.
C. The recently introduced switch SW2 removes all configured VLANs throughout the VTP domain.
D. The recently introduced switch SW2 switches over to VTP transparent mode in order to be included into the VTP domain.
E. A trunk should be configured between the two switches in order to integrate SW2 into the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
A campus infrastructure supports wireless clients via Cisco Aironet AG Series 1230, 1240, and 1250 access points. With DNS and DHCP configured, the 1230 and 1240 access points appear to boot and operate normally; however, the 1250 access points do not seem to operate correctly. What is the most likely issue causing this problem?
A. DHCP with option 150
B. DHCP with option 43
C. PoE
D. DNS
E. switch port does not support gigabit speeds
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
A standalone wireless AP solution is being installed into the campus infrastructure. The access points appear to boot correctly, however, wireless clients are not obtaining correct access. You verify that the local switch configuration connected to the access point appears as the following:
interface ethernet 0/1 switchport access vlan 10 switchport mode access spanning-tree portfast mls qos trust dscp
What is the most likely issue causing the problem?
A. QoS trust should not be configured on a port attached to a standalone AP.
B. QoS trust for switchport mode access should be defined as “cos”.
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QUESTION 66
PassGuide is implementing 802.1X in order to increase network security. In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Select three)
A. EAP-over-LAN
B. EAP MD5
C. STP
D. protocols not filtered by an ACL
E. CDP
F. TACACS+
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
VLAN maps have been configured on switch PG1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit deny feature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
A PassGuide switch was configured as shown below:
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
Given the configuration output shown above, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?
A. The host will be allowed to connect.
B. The port will shut down.
C. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
D. The host will be refused access.
E. None of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
You need to configure port security on switch PG1. Which two statements are true about this technology? (Select two)
A. Port security can be configured for ports supporting VoIP.
B. With port security configured, four MAC addresses are allowed by default. C. The network administrator must manually enter the MAC address for each device in order for the switch to allow connectivity.
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QUESTION 77
Which IOS show command can be used to examine the MPLS VPN label stack for a prefix?
A. show ip route vrf {vrf-name} {ip-prefix}
B. show ip cef {ip-prefix}
C. show ip cef vrf {vrf-name} {ip-prefix}
D. show ip vrf detail
E. show ip bgp vpnv4 all
F. show mpls interfaces
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Using OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol, when and which router will set the down bit?
A. The PE router will set the down bit when redistributing routes from MP-BGP into OSPF.
B. The PE router will set the down bit when redistributing routes from OSPF into MP-BGP.
C. The CE router will set the down bit when propagating the OSPF route to the PE router.
D. The PE router will set the down bit when propagating the OSPF route to the CE router.
E. The P router will set the down bit when propagating the route to another P router.
F. The PE router will set the down bit when propagating the route to another PE router over MP-BGP.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which type of VPN implementation is simple and cost effective because all sites connect only to the PE router and as a result optimum routing between sites is enabled by default?
A. peer-to-peer VPN
B. overlapping VPN
C. hub-and-spoke overlay VPN
D. fully-meshed overlay VPN
E. client-server VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Which three fields must be included in MPBGP updates between PE routers in an MPLS network? (Choose three.)
A. VPNv4 address
B. label used for VPN packet forwarding
C. AS path
D. Site of Origin
E. TE path designator
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
A pair of MPLS routers, operating in the default frame-mode, are connected over two parallel links. Which of the following describes what will happen when they try to establish LDP sessions?
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QUESTION 135
Which VRF parameters must be specified for a VRF to become operational?
A. RD
B. Interface
C. Import RT.
D. Export RT.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
How are route targets used to build virtual routing tables in the PE-routers?
A. Route targets are prepended to each entry in the VRF to identify which VPN owns the route.
B. Route targets are prepended to the customer’s IP address to create unique address spacing for each VPN.
C. Every customer route exported from a VRF is tagged with appropriate export route targets. VPN routes received by a PE-router are matched against import route targets configured in a CRF.
D. Every customer route received from the CE is matched against import route targets. If there is match, the route is added to the VRF. Every route received from the neighbor PE-router is entered in the VRF. It is then matched against export route targets.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Route distinguisher is prepended to IP address to create VPN address, not Route target.
QUESTION 137
When should you disable redistribution of IPv4 routing updates between MP-BGP neighbors?
A. When the network only supports MPLS VPNs.
B. When the network is using OSPF or ISIS instead of I-BGP as the network IGP.
C. When you want to reduce the number of labels that the P-router needs to store.
D. When you want to reduce the number of routes that the P-routers must store in their global BGP routing table.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
With MPLS VPNs, which four elements will be included in an MP-BGP update exchange between the PE routers? (Choose two)
A. VPNv4 Address
B. Route tag
C. Label used for VPN packet forwarding
D. Mandatory BGP attributed like As-Path and Next-Hop
E. Route target
F. Implicit null label used for PHP operation
Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
The VPN named my_vpn is operating on interface s0/0 a PE-router. The CE-PE routing protocol isRIP.
