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QUESTION 21
Which Mac OS X v10.3 utility is helpful when troubleshooting a computer’s Ethernet connectivity?
A. Network Utility
B. Activity Monitor
C. Network Monitor
D. Internet Connect
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Open Directory is compatible with______________
A. LDS on a UNIX server
B. Samba running on Windows
C. Netinfo running on Windows 2000
D. Locally stored BSD configuration files
E. Active Directory service on a Microsoft Windows server
F. Open LDAP or other LDAP service on third-party servers
Correct Answer: ABCDEF
QUESTION 23
Which statements are true about WebDAV?(Choose all that apply.)
A. WebDAV enabled per website.
B. You must define a realm in order to use Web DAV.
C. You define the size of a WebDAV volume using Server Admin.
D. You can connect to a WebDAV server using a web browser only.
E. The WebDAV module must be turned on before WebDAV can take effect.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 24
You want to restrict managed user jim from using Safari in the local/Applications directory on a managed computer to which he has access. Which of these are valid ways to accomplish this goal?
A. Using the Get info window, lock Safari on jim’s computer
B. Using Workgroup Manager, disable jim’s ability to open applications on the local volume.
C. Using workgroup Manager, remove Safari from the list of jim’s allowed applications.
D. Using the Get info window for Safari, set the application’s privileges to None for user jim.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 25
Which statement about FileValuit is TRUE?
A. Once a user enables FileVault it cannot be disabled
B. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user account
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault protected account user data if the password is lost
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk image.
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit The pictures on the right are the internal components of the Cisco UCS 6250 Blade Server Which component image should be applied to which empty component block?
A. CPU for block A, adapter card for block B, hard drive for block C. memory for block D
B. CPU for block C. adapter card for block D, hard drive for block A. memory for block B
C. CPU for block B, adapter card for block C, hard drive for block D, memory for block B
D. CPU for block D. adapter card for block A. hard drive for block B. memory for block C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which two commands or key sequences display a list of the available commands in the Cisco NX-OS prompt UCS-switch (nxos) #? (Choose two)
A. Tab (key)
B. help
C. ?
D. ~ (tilde key)
E. w
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit
Which tab displays the hard disk drives that are installed?
A. A-CPUs
B. B – Memory
C. Power Supplies
D. D – Storage
E. E -Adapters
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device types of Overall Status are acceptable and do not indicate failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which cable is used to access the command-line -interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
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QUESTION 24
Refer to the topology exhibit.
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When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the BR1 site loses connectivity to the SAF network, the call to extension 3001 fails to reroute via the PSTN.
Examine the SDI trace in the exhibit.
What is the most likely cause of the failure?
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A. The full E.164 number for extension 3001 could not be constructed.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the HQ site was unable to determine the ToDlD number to extension 3001.
C. The calling phone line CSS does not have access to the V route pattern.
D. CCD requesting service does not have the correct partition configured for CCD learned patterns
E. The AAR CSS for the HQ phone does not have access to the \\ route pattern.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
All directory number extensions are assigned to the Internal_LP partition. All phones are configured with only a line CSS, BR1 Jntl.CSS. Assuming the gateway has been configured correctly.
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When the two PSTN callers place a call to 02288223002, which of the following statements is true?
A. The caller at 7700990255 will succeed. The caller at 2079460255 will fail
B. The caller at 2079460255 will succeed. The caller at 7700990255 will fail
C. Both calls will succeed.
D. Both calls will fail
E. Both calls will fail. However, the caller at 7700990255 can still reach 3001 because 7700990255 is the Remote Destination of 3001
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
Which course of action will resolve the Mobile Connect issues that are shown in the exhibit?
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QUESTION 105
Which statement best describes the relationships between AAA function and TACACS+, RADIUS based on the exhibit shown?
A. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS3 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS4
B. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS3
C. TACACS+ – TIS1 and TIS4 RADIUS – TIS2 and TIS3
D. TACACS+ – TIS2 and TSS3 RADIUS – TIS1 and TIS4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
Which two statements are correct regarding a Cisco IP phone’s web access feature? (Choose two.)
A. It is enabled by default.
B. It uses HTTPS.
C. It can provide IP address information about other servers in the network.
D. It requires login credentials, based on the UCM user database.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 107
Which option ensures that data is not modified in transit?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Authorization
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
What is a static packet-filtering firewall used for ?
A. It analyzes network traffic at the network and transport protocol layers.
B. It validates the fact that a packet is either a connection request or a data packet belonging to a connection.
C. It keeps track of the actual communication process through the use of a state table.
D. It evaluates network packets for valid data at the application layer before allowing connections.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 109
Which firewall best practices can help mitigate worm and other automated attacks?
A. Restrict access to firewalls
B. Segment security zones
C. Use logs and alerts
D. Set connection limits
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which statement best describes the Turbo ACL feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The Turbo ACL feature processes ACLs into lookup tablesfor greater efficiency.
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QUESTION 86
When you use the Global Properties’ default settings on R76, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
B. RIP traffic
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. SmartUpdate connections
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
You have installed a R76 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?
A. The new Gateway’s temporary license has expired.
B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.
C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.
D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from .
A. The ICA management tool
B. SmartUpdate
C. sysconfig
D. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway’s
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QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Spam protection
B. Outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. Email encryption
E. DDoS protection
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps10128/ps10154/data-sheet-c78- 729751.html
Product Overview Over the past 20 years, email has evolved from a tool used primarily by technical and research professionals to become the backbone of corporate communications. Each day, more than 100 billion corporate email messages are exchanged. As the level of use rises, security becomes a greater priority. Mass spam campaigns are no longer the only concern. Today, spam and malware are just part of a complex picture that includes inbound threats and outbound risks. Cisco. Email Security solutions defend mission-critical email systems with appliance, virtual, cloud, and hybrid solutions. The industry leader in email security solutions, Cisco delivers:
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QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.)
A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. trojan horse attack
C. pharming attack
D. denial of service attack
E. day zero attack
Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/web/IN/about/network/threat_defense.html
Rogue developers create such threats by using worms, viruses, or application-embedded attacks. Botnets can be used to seed an attack, for example, rogue developers can use worms or application-embedded attacks, that is an attack that is hidden within application traffic such as web traffic or peer-to-peer shared files, to deposit “Trojans”. This combination of attack techniques – a virus or worm used to deposit a Trojan, for example-is relatively new and is known as a blended attack. A blended attack can also occur in phases: an initial attack of a virus with a Trojan that might open up an unsecured port on a computer, disable an access control list (ACL), or disarm antivirus software, with the goal of a more devastating attack to follow soon after. Host Firewall on servers and desktops/ laptops, day zero protection & intelligent behavioral based protection from application vulnerability and related flaws (within or inserted by virus, worms or Trojans) provided great level of confidence on what is happening within an organization on a normal day and when there is a attack situation, which segment and what has gone wrong and gives flexibility and control to stop such situations by having linkages of such devices with monitoring, log-analysis and event co-relation system.
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QUESTION 57
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduce network outages, i.e, hot-swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support.
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggregation creates hih-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 58
If you chose either the 3Com Switch 8810 or Switch 8814 for Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center solution, which interface Modules would you use to connect the four distribution centers and the nine satellite buildings?
A. Option A -One 24-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17514) with -Four 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -Nine 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
B. Option B -Two 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
C. Option C -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) and One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
D. Option D -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514)with Eight 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -18 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which two 3 Com solutions would you recommend to Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) for each of the four distribution centers in Buildings 16,20,35 and 38, to connect them to the campus backbone? (Choose two)
A. Option A -Two Switch 4050 each with -One 1000BASE-SX GBIC
B. Option B -Two Switch 4060 each with -One 1000BASE-LX GBIC
C. Option C -One switch 7700 7-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CBIC91)
D. Option D -One switch 7700R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
E. Option E -One switch 7700 R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Four 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 60
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s
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QUESTION 51
Which physical security feature is built into MacBook and MacBook Pro computers ?
A. Battery cover lock
B. Locking hard drive bay
C. Kensington security slot
D. Radio frequency ID tags (RFID)
E. RAM compartment locked bv torx screw
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
An index value below 4096 for a NetBoot service image indicates that the image_______.
A. is a NetBoot image
B. is a Net Install image
C. is intended to be hosted on only one NetBoot server
D. is intended to be hosted on multiple NetBoot servers, for load-balancing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which preparatory step must you complete before you can restore a disk image using asr ?
A. Run asr images can on the image
B. Delete Apple Setup Done from the Image
C. Convert the image to a Red/Write image using Disk Utility.
D. Delete the By Host preferences and VM swap flies from the image.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Using System Image Utility. You are defining a workflow that will be used to create a Net install image. Which Automator action should you add to the workflow if you want to include specific LDAP binding information in the finished image?
A. Define Image Source
B. Filter Computer Models
C. Filter Clients by IP Address
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Filter Clients by MAC Address
F. Apply System Configuration Settings
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 55
You want to creates Mac OS X v10.6 ASR deployment image that does NOT contain Computer-special
data or configuration settings, such as cache files and network port settings.
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QUESTION 41
Which option can you set in Workgroup Manager for an SMB share point?
A. Mount path
B. Network mounting
C. Access Control Lists
D. Default file permissions
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
The managed Dock Display preference for Mary’s user account is set to Never. This means that no managed Dock Display preference
A. will apply at Mary’s next login
B. will ever apply when Mary logs in
C. that depends upon precedence will apply when Mary logs in
D. that is managed at the user account level will apply at Mary’s next login
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which of these is a feature of an Apple Remote Desktop Task Server?
A. Reviewing reports about a client.
B. Scanning the local network for ARD computers.
C. Scheduling tasks for clients that are currently offline.
D. Turning on powered-down clients using the Lights Out Management protocol.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
You would like to give instructors the ability to perform the Apple Remote Desktop functions of locking and unlocking the screens on computers in a classroom, but you do not want to have the instructors learn to use the Remote Desktop utility. Which of these steps could help you accomplish this goal?
A. Distribute an ARD installation package that includes the tasks and is configured with “sudo” as the default user.
B. Create a Computer List in Remote Desktop and provide an Automator application that contains an ARD workflow to perform the tasks.
C. Use Workgroup Manager to manage the preferences of Remote Desktop for the instructor’s user account, so that only Lock and Unlock are available.
